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  • Question 1 - A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening breathlessness and daily productive cough. As a young child, she had occasional wheezing with viral illnesses and she currently works in a ship yard and also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past three years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis is a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptoms of bronchiectasis include:
      – a persistent productive cough
      – breathlessness.

      The 3 most common causes in the UK are:
      – a lung infection in the past, such as pneumonia or whooping cough, that damages the bronchi
      – underlying problems with the immune system (the body’s defence against infection) that make the bronchi more vulnerable to damage from an infection
      – allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) – an allergy to a certain type of fungi that can cause the bronchi to become inflamed if spores from the fungi are inhaled

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died in a house fire. He describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 2 months. Suspecting a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder what is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The first-line treatment for this patient would be cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can develop in people of any age following a traumatic event, for example, a major disaster or childhood sexual abuse. It encompasses what became known as ‘shell shock’ following the first world war. One of the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria is that symptoms have been present for more than one month.

      Clinical features:
      Re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images
      Avoidance: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event
      Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating
      Emotional numbing – lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached from other people
      Depression
      Drug or alcohol misuse
      Anger

      Management:
      Following a traumatic event single-session interventions (often referred to as debriefing) are not recommended
      Watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than 4 weeks
      Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases
      Drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults.
      If drug treatment is used then paroxetine or mirtazapine are recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not been himself' and has been feeling 'out of sorts' for the past 3 weeks. There is no history of past mental health problems. Which of the following symptoms is highly suggestive of depression in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early morning waking

      Explanation:

      Early morning waking is a highly suggestive feature of depression in this patient.

      NICE use the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression:
      1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
      2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
      3. Significant weight loss or weight gain when not dieting or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
      4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
      5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
      6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
      7. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
      8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day
      9. Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

      Subthreshold depressive symptoms: Fewer than 5 symptoms
      Mild depression: Few, if any, symptoms over the 5 required to make the diagnosis, and symptoms result in only minor functional impairment
      Moderate depression: Symptoms or functional impairment are between ‘mild’ and ‘severe’
      Severe depression: Most symptoms and the symptoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms.

      Treatment of depression:
      Psychotherapy (in the form of cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy) alone or in combination with medications such as:
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
      – Atypical antidepressants
      – Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (SDAMs)
      – Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

      There is also empirical support for the ability of CBT to prevent relapse.

      Electroconvulsive therapy is a useful treatment option for patients with severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindications is raised intracranial pressure.

      Side-effects:
      Headache
      Nausea
      Short term memory impairment
      Memory loss of events before ECT
      Cardiac arrhythmia
      Long-term side-effects: Impaired memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid

      Explanation:

      Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old asthmatic woman presents with an acute attack. Her arterial blood gases breathing air are as follows:
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.6 kPa
      pCO2 5.1 kPa

      What do these results signify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her respiratory effort may be failing because she is getting tired

      Explanation:

      In any patient with asthma, a decreasing PaO2 and an increasing PaCO2, even into the normal range, indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.

      Chest tightness and cough, which are the most common symptoms of asthma, are probably the result of inflammation, mucus plugs, oedema, or smooth muscle constriction in the small peripheral airways. Because major obstruction of the peripheral airways can occur without recognizable increases of airway resistance or FEV1, the physiologic alterations in acute exacerbations are generally subtle in the early stages. Poorly ventilated alveoli subtending obstructed bronchioles continue to be perfused, and as a consequence, the P(A-a)O2 increases and the PaO2 decreases. At this stage, ventilation is generally increased, with excessive elimination of carbon dioxide and respiratory alkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old female presents to the emergency department having taken an overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female presents to the emergency department having taken an overdose of 40 x 500mg paracetamol tablets and 400ml of vodka. This is her fourth attendance with an overdose over the past 3 years. She is also known to the local police after an episode of reckless driving/road rage. On arrival, she is tearful and upset. Vital signs and general physical examination are normal apart from evidence of cutting on her arms. She is given activated charcoal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is highly suggestive of a borderline personality disorder.

      Borderline personality disorder is marked out by instability in moods, behaviour, and relationships. The diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of at least 5 of the following symptoms;
      1) Extreme reactions including panic, depression, rage, or frantic actions to abandonment, whether real or perceived
      2) A pattern of intense and stormy relationships with family, friends, and loved ones, often veering from extreme closeness and love to extreme dislike or anger
      3) Distorted and unstable self-image or sense of self, which can result in sudden changes in feelings, opinions, values, or plans and goals for the future (such as school or career choices)
      4) Impulsive and often dangerous behaviours, such as spending sprees, unsafe sex, substance abuse, reckless driving, and binge eating
      5) Recurring suicidal behaviours or threats or self-harming behaviour, such as cutting, intense and highly changeable moods, with each episode lasting from a few hours to a few days
      6) Chronic feelings of emptiness and/or boredom
      7) Inappropriate, intense anger or problems controlling anger
      8) Having stress-related paranoid thoughts or severe dissociative symptoms, such as feeling cut off from oneself, observing oneself from outside the body, or losing touch with reality.

      Other options:
      There are no features consistent with endogenous depression, such as early morning wakening or loss of appetite.
      There are also no features consistent with hypomania such as pressure of speech, a flight of ideas, or over-exuberant behaviour.
      The lack of history of drug abuse rules out drug-induced psychosis.
      An anti-social personality disorder is characterized by a failure to conform to social norms and repeated lawbreaking. There is consistent irresponsibility, impulsivity, and disregard for both their safety and that of others. This is not the case in the given scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 10 - A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
      People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.

      Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
      Fear of germs or contamination
      Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
      Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
      Having things symmetrical or in a perfect order

      Compulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
      -Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
      -Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
      -Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
      -Compulsive counting

      Research also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar disorder is placed on Lithium. How often should his Lithium levels be checked once a stable dose has been achieved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Lithium acts by:
      – I inhibiting postsynaptic D2 receptor super sensitivity
      – Altering cation transport in nerve and muscle cells and influencing reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
      – Inhibiting phosphatidylinositol cycle second messenger systems

      The NICE guidelines for depression and bipolar disorder both recommend Lithium as an effective treatment; patients who take lithium should have regular blood tests to monitor the amount of lithium in their blood (every 3 months), and to make sure the lithium has not caused any problems with their kidneys or thyroid (every 6 months).

      Lithium adverse effects include:
      – Leucocytosis (most patients) which is when the white cells are above the normal range in the blood.
      – Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      – Dry mouth (20-50%)
      – Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Confusion (40%)
      – Decreased memory (40%)
      – Headache (40%)
      – Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      – Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      – Hyperreflexia (15%)
      – Muscle twitch (15%)
      – Vertigo (15%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be...

    Incorrect

    • A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 13 - A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at the clinic due to a swollen and painful left leg. Doppler ultrasonography confirms the diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis. She was previously diagnosed with DVT 4 months back and was on warfarin therapy (target INR 2-3) when it occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Life-long warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      If the INR in the range of 2-3 has still resulted in thrombosis, the target INR is increased to 3-4. However, because the risk of bleeding increases as the INR rises, the INR is closely monitored and adjustments are made as needed to maintain the INR within the target range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with her husband. He is worried due to her depressed mood and her poor interaction with the baby. He describes her mood three days ago being much different. She was talking in a rapid and incoherent fashion about the future.
      The mother denies any hallucinations but states that her child has been brought into a 'very bad world'. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario warrants urgent admission and psychiatric evaluation as the mother seems to be suffering from puerperal psychosis.

      Post-partum mental health problems can range from the ‘baby-blues’ to puerperal psychosis.

      The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale may be used to screen for depression:
      A 10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30
      indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week
      score > 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’
      sensitivity and specificity > 90%. It includes a question about self-harm

      Postpartum psychosis has a complex multifactorial origin. Risk factors include a history of bipolar disorder, history of postpartum psychosis in a previous pregnancy, a family history of psychosis or bipolar disorder, a history of schizoaffective disorder or schizophrenia and discontinuation of psychiatric medications during pregnancy.
      Incidence rate: 2.6 per 1000 births.
      Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth
      Symptoms of puerperal psychosis include confusion, lack of touch with reality, disorganized thought pattern and behaviour, odd effect, sleep disturbances, delusions, paranoia, appetite disturbances, a noticeable change in the level of functioning from baseline, hallucinations and suicidal or homicidal ideation.
      The safety of the patient and new-born is of utmost importance, and thus, immediate hospitalization is warranted if there is a risk of harm to either one.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe – whilst they are secreted in breast milk it is not thought to be harmful to the infant
      There is around a 20% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent back pain that is unrelated to activity for the past several months. Laboratory findings show :
      WCC: 6.7 x 109/l (5.4 neutrophils, 1.2 lymphocytes and 0.2 monocytes),
      Haemoglobin: 11.2 g/dL,
      Haematocrit: 33.3%,
      MCV: 88 fl,
      Platelet count: 89 x 109/l.

      The biochemistry shows:
      sodium 144 mmol/L,
      potassium 4.5 mmol/L,
      chloride 100 mmol/L,
      bicarbonate 26 mmol/L,
      urea 14 mmol/L,
      creatinine 90 μmol/L,
      glucose of 5.4 mmol/l.

      A CT scan of the spine reveals scattered 0.4 to 1.2 cm bright lesions in the vertebral bodies.
      Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum prostate specific antigen of 35 microgram/l

      Explanation:

      Old age, persistent backache, weight loss, and osteosclerotic lesions make prostatic adenocarcinoma the most likely diagnosis. The sequelae include severe pain, pathological fractures, hypercalcemia and cord compression. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is detected by elevated levels of prostate specific antigen. Positive serology for borrelia burgdorferi would hint at Lyme disease which does not cause osteosclerotic bone lesions, neither would Neisseria gonorrhoeae have such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - Which area in the body controls the hypoxic drive to breathe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which area in the body controls the hypoxic drive to breathe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid body

      Explanation:

      The carotid body consists of chemosensitive cells at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery that respond to changes in oxygen tension and, to a lesser extent, pH. In contrast to central chemoreceptors (which primarily respond to PaCO2) and the aortic bodies (which primarily have circulatory effects: bradycardia, hypertension, adrenal stimulation, and also bronchoconstriction), carotid bodies are most sensitive to PaO2. At a PaO2 of approximately 55-60 mmHg, they send their impulses via CN IX to the medulla, increasing ventilatory drive (increased respiratory rate, tidal volume, and minute ventilation). Thus, patients who rely on hypoxic respiratory drive will typically have a resting PaO2 around 60 mm Hg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 17 - A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her neck and right arm. She admits that this pain is worse on sitting and driving for long periods. Past history is significant for two previous road traffic accidents. Examination reveals weakness and sensory loss over C5/C6 nerve distribution. There is pain with neck movement and particularly extension. Which of the following investigations would be the most helpful in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI scan of the cervical spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Cervical radiculopathy is usually due to compression or injury to a nerve root by a herniated disc or degenerative changes. Levels C5 to T1 are the most commonly affected. It is usually, but not always, accompanied by cervical radicular pain, a sharp and shooting pain that travels from the neck and down the upper limb and may be severe. This needs to be differentiated from pain referred from the musculoskeletal (somatic) structures in the neck, which may be aching rather than sharp, and is more severe in the neck than in the upper limb. The neurological signs of cervical radiculopathy depend on the site of the lesion. The patient may have motor dysfunction, sensory deficits or alteration in tendon reflexes. While pain is a common presenting symptom, not all radiculopathies are painful (i.e. only motor deficits may be obvious). CT scanning cannot accurately demonstrate the commonest cause for cervical radiculopathy (disc herniation) without myelography, which requires hospital admission, lumbar puncture and the use of contrast. In patients with cervical radiculopathy, MRI is the imaging technique of choice for the detection of root compression by disc herniation and osteophytes. MRI allows the nerve roots to be directly visualised. Nerve conduction studies are also useful in determining the nerve roots that are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move...

    Incorrect

    • A young man complains that he feels paralysed and is unable to move when he wakes up and less often when he is falling asleep. He complains of having hallucinations and sees other strangers in the room. His anxiety has also increased with these episodes. What is his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Sleep paralysis is a temporary inability to move or speak that occurs when you’re waking up or falling asleep. Paralysis is often accompanied by hallucinations

      REM is a stage of sleep when the brain is very active and dreams often occur. The body is unable to move, apart from the eyes and muscles used in breathing, possibly to stop the person from acting out the dreams and hurting himself.

      It’s not clear why REM sleep can sometimes occur while one is awake, but it has been associated with:
      -not getting enough sleep (sleep deprivation or insomnia)
      -irregular sleeping patterns – for example, because of shift work or jet lag
      -narcolepsy – a long-term condition that causes a person to suddenly fall asleep at inappropriate times
      -a family history of sleep paralysis
      -sleeping on one’s back

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 64 year old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
       
      Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection in immunocompetent hosts generally manifests as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is insidious.
      In patients who may have pulmonary infection with MAC, diagnostic testing includes acid-fast bacillus (AFB) staining and culture of sputum specimens.

      The ATS/IDSA guidelines include clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria to establish a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease.

      Clinical criteria are as follows:

      Pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss; less commonly, fever and weight loss; dyspnoea

      Appropriate exclusion of other diseases (e.g., carcinoma, tuberculosis).

      At least 3 sputum specimens, preferably early-morning samples taken on different days, should be collected for AFB staining and culture. Sputum AFB stains are positive for MAC in most patients with pulmonary MAC infection. Mycobacterial cultures grow MAC in about 1-2 weeks, depending on the culture technique and bacterial burden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 22 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he claims that his ears are too big in proportion to his face and he seldom leaves the house because of this. His records show that he was treated for anxiety and depression with fluoxetine previously and has been off work with back pain for the past 4 months. On examination, his ears appear to be normal.
      What is the most appropriate term of this behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphophobia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in the given scenario would be body dysmorphic disorder or dysmorphophobia

      It is a mental disorder where patients have a significantly distorted body image.

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV criteria:
      Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. If a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is markedly excessive.
      The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
      The preoccupation is not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g., dissatisfaction with body shape and size in Anorexia Nervosa).

      Treatment:
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the most commonly used and most empirically supported intervention to improve body image.
      Several drugs have been targets of study in anorexia nervosa treatment, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, antidepressants, antipsychotics, nutritional supplementation, and hormonal medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago.

      His blood pressure was found to be 143/96mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found.

      Investigations;
       
      Hb 11.9 g/dL,
      WCC 11.1 x109/L,
      PLT 190 x109/L,
      Na+ 138 mmol/L,
      K+ 4.8 mmol/L,
      Creatinine 105 μmol/L,
      CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion
      Aspergillus precipitins positive

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 25 - A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks.

      On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences.
      Investigations:
      BP is 141/72 mmHg
      Pulse 82 bpm and regular
      Sp(O2) 92% on room air
      RR 19 breaths/min
      Temperature 37.1°C.
      Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%.
       
      Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax

      Explanation:

      High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).

      HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 26 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses.
      Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
      It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
      Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 28 - A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for...

    Incorrect

    • A female in her early 20's who has been diagnosed with asthma for the past four years visits the office for a review. She has been using Beclomethasone dipropionate inhaler 200mcg bd along with Salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and her asthma is still uncontrolled. Her chest examination is clear and she has good inhaler technique. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of her asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The NICE 2017 guidelines state that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Inhaled corticosteroid e.g. Beclomethasone), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) should be added.
      If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.

      This recommendation is also stated in NICE 2019 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 29 - A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anakinra

      Explanation:

      Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder visits the office for a review. He is reluctant to try cognitive behavioural therapy. Which medication could be useful in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was initially developed in 1987 for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is guided by the Adaptive Information Processing model. EMDR is an individual therapy typically delivered one to two times per week for a total of 6-12 sessions, although some people benefit from fewer sessions. Sessions can be conducted on consecutive days.

      Drug treatments (paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline or phenelzine) should be considered for the treatment of PTSD when a sufferer expresses a preference to not engage in trauma-focused psychological treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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