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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident.
His thyroid function testing is :
TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5),
Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25),
Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2).
Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?Your Answer: Graves' disease
Correct Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome
Explanation:Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she had previously applied cream to the body of a patient with similar symptoms. What is the mechanism that produces her itch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic reaction
Explanation:Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it. The entry of allergen into the epidermis or dermis causes a localized allergic reaction. Local mast-cell activation in the skin leads immediately to a local increase in vascular permeability, which causes extravasation of fluid and swelling. Histamine released by mast cells activated by allergen in the skin causes large, itchy, red swellings of the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelin antagonists are useful in primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Current guidelines recommend the use of ambrisentan, Bosentan (recommendation I, level of evidence A) and macitentan (I, B) in patients with PAH and WHO functional class II and III. In WHO functional class IV, the first-line drug is Epoprostenol and the recommendation for Endothelin receptor antagonists is weaker (IIb, C).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A diagnosed case of scabies presented in OPD for some medical advice. Which of the following statements best suits scabies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Scabies is an infection caused by a microscopic mite known as Sarcoptes scabies. The chief presenting complaint is itching especially in skin folds and mostly during night. It spreads from one person to another through skin contact, and therefore it is more prevalent in crowded areas like hospitals, hostels and even at homes where people live in close contact with each other. Treatment options include benzyl benzoate, ivermectin, sulphur and permethrin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G1
Explanation:The duration of these cell cycle phases varies considerably in different kinds of cells. For a typical rapidly proliferating human cell with a total cycle time of 24 hours, the G1 phase might last about 11 hours, S phase about 8 hours, G2 about 4 hours, and M about 1 hour. The proliferation of most animal cells is similarly regulated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In particular, a decision point in late G1, called the restriction point in animal cells, is the point at which the cell becomes committed to the cell cycle and after which extracellular proliferation stimulants are no longer required.. Although the proliferation of most cells is regulated primarily in G1, some cell cycles are instead controlled principally in G2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates.
She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity.
The following results are obtained:
(Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)),
0 : 9.2,
2 : 14.2.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of management options, she chooses to have radioiodine therapy. Which one of the following is the most likely adverse effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Approximately one third of patients treated with radioiodine therapy develop transient hypothyroidism. Unless a patient is highly symptomatic, thyroxine replacement may be withheld if hypothyroidism occurs within the first 2 months of therapy. If it persists for longer than 2 months, permanent hypothyroidism is likely and replacement with T4 should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety.
On examination, she is haemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid.
TFTs show the following:
Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23),
Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6),
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5).
What is the appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds
Explanation:The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2–3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to the acute medical unit for pneumonia. This is his fourth admission for pneumonia in the past six months.
Which of the following factors is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinaemia
Explanation:Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.
CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).
Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10–15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure.
Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l.
A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology.
Which diagnosis fits best with this woman’s clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Profound hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: about 2 per 1000
Explanation:Annual incidence of DVT in the general population is about 1 per 1000 adults. So the most suitable answer is about 2 per 1000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least associated with lead poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).
For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse
Explanation:DIAGNOSIS:
A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
Bounding pulses
Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
Hepatomegaly -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain, especially 30 minutes after eating. This is associated with nausea and belching. She also describes constipation with occasional explosive diarrhoea. The stools are normally hard with mucus and she needs to strain with every motion. Abdominal pain is relieved after defecation but abdominal bloating persists. She wakes up an hour earlier each morning to finish her breakfast in order to prevent vomiting. She has missed work on a few occasions and feels that her weight has fluctuated. Past medical history includes scarlet fever. She is not on any regular medications except intermittent laxatives over the counter. Abdominal examination is normal. Rectal examination reveals an anal fissure.
Investigation results:
Haemoglobin (Hb 13.1 g/dL,
White blood count (WBC) 6.0 × 109/L,
Platelets 180× 109/L,
Mean cell volume (MCV) 87 fL,
International normalised ratio (INR) 1.0,
Na+ 136 mmol/L,
K+ 3.9 mmol/L,
Urea 3.7 mmol/L,
Creatinine 70 μmol/L,
Albumin 39 glL.
Liver function test normal.
Anti-endomysial antibody negative.
Thyroid function test normal.
Gastroscopy normal.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy normal.
Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scans are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis to account for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Overlap irritable bowel syndrome and functional dyspepsia
Explanation:This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, of varying duration. It is a functional, not an organic problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretin
Explanation:Secretin stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver. VIP induces relaxation of the stomach and gallbladder, secretion of water into pancreatic juice/ bile, and inhibits gastric acid secretion/absorption. CCK classically stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. Gastrin stimulates the secretion of HCl by parietal cells in the stomach. Motilin, as the name suggests, increases motility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA-DR3
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Troponin T
Explanation:The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.
Investigations were as follows:
Hb 13.1 g/dL,
WCC 8.6 x109/L,
PLT 201 x109/L,
Na+ 139 mmol/L,
K+ 4.5 mmol/L,
Creatinine 110 µmol/L,
17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal.
Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.
Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young age
Explanation:Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
1. Young age (<40 years)
2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
3. Increased tumour size
4. High-grade tumour
5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
6. Positive lymph node status -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepato-splenomegaly.
Investigations reveal:
Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22),
Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 – 105),
ALT 198 iu/l (5 – 35),
AST 158 iu/l (1 – 31),
Albumin 25 g/L (37 – 49),
Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive,
Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative,
Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for the C282Y mutation. Her ferritin is 927 mg/L (normal range 15-150), haemoglobin 12.5 g/dL (normal range 11.5-16) and aspartate aminotransferase 87 U/L (normal range <40).
Which is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weekly venesection to drop her ferritin into the low-normal range
Explanation:Venesection should be done (essentially blood-letting) to decrease the too-high ferratin level. IV Desterrioxamine would have the opposite effect. ASA does not have to do with ferritin. You do not just watch this and recheck. And you do not want to make the patient anaemic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing
Explanation:There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old Nigerian woman who is a known case of sickle cell anaemia presents with fever and worsening of recurrent back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats.
The investigations done on her arrival show:
Hb: 7.8 g/dL,
WCC: 10.1 x10^9/L,
Plts: 475 x10^9/L,
Reticulocytes: 12%,
Serum total bilirubin: 88 μmol/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaso-occlusive event
Explanation:This patient is having vaso-occlusive event/crisis (thrombotic crisis) which is a type of sickle cell crisis. It may be associated with ostealgia.
There is no evidence of an aplastic crisis in this case as the haemoglobin level is reasonable with a good reticulocyte count. Conversely, the haemoglobin is not low enough and reticulocyte count and bilirubin are not high enough for a haemolytic crisis.
Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. The four main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, aplastic crisis, and haemolytic crisis.
Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). Aplastic crisis is characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis. It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection. In haemolytic crisis, a fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer
Explanation:The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels in the adult population. What percentage of individuals will have IgE levels higher than 2 standard deviations from the mean, assuming that the IgE levels follow a normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat
Explanation:Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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