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  • Question 1 - A teenage girl presented in the OPD with a history of amenorrhea. She...

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    • A teenage girl presented in the OPD with a history of amenorrhea. She said she was exercising daily and needs to lose weight. On examination, she is 162cm in height and 45kgs in weight. Which of the following is the most probable cause in this case?

      Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia and hypocalcaemia are possibly present

      Explanation:

      This scenario represents anorexia nervosa disorder, a psychological disorder. Extreme weight loss with a strict diet can lead to deficiency of many nutrients like magnesium and calcium. This can also cause amenorrhea.

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  • Question 2 - A 20 year old male, who was otherwise completely healthy, has developed severe...

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    • A 20 year old male, who was otherwise completely healthy, has developed severe and sudden pain in his lower back. It started after getting up from his bed. What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      Sudden onset of severe lower back pain whilst is felt more when bending (such as getting up from a bed) is consistent with a diagnosis of a prolapsed intervertebral disc.

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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he...

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    • A 28-year-old manual worker had stepped on a rusty nail. He says he received tetanus toxoid 8 years ago. What should be done for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human immunoglobulin only

      Explanation:

      Only immunoglobulins are required, as he is already immunized.

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  • Question 4 - A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump...

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    • A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.

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  • Question 5 - A 30 year old male came in with chills and dilated pupils, which...

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    • A 30 year old male came in with chills and dilated pupils, which were withdrawal signs and symptoms of a certain drug. Which of the following can cause above presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heroine

      Explanation:

      Both cocaine and heroine withdrawal cause dilated pupils. Heroine withdrawal causes chills.

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  • Question 6 - A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back....

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    • A 6 year old presents with fever and multiple vesicles on his back. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      This clinical picture is typical of chickenpox, which is treated with antihistamines and calamine lotion. In the case of fever, acetaminophen can be used. Generally treatment is purely for symptomatic relief.

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  • Question 7 - A 53 year old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in...

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    • A 53 year old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin and haematuria that was sudden in onset. Investigations revealed an 8mm stone in the left lower ureter. Supportive therapy was initiated with nifedipine and steroids. The patients returned to the emergency with vomiting and worsening pain and passage of two stones. Renal function tests are significant for an impending ARF. Which of the following steps would be employed in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Nephrolithiasis encompasses the formation of all types of urinary calculi in the kidney, which may deposit along the entire urogenital tract from the renal pelvis to the urethra. Nephrolithiasis manifests as sudden onset colicky flank pain that may radiate to the groin, testes, or labia (renal/ureteric colic) and is usually associated with haematuria.
      Risk factors include low fluid intake, high-sodium, high-purine, and low-potassium diets, which can raise the calcium, uric acid, and oxalate levels in the urine and thereby promote stone formation.
      Diagnostics include noncontrast spiral CT of the abdomen and pelvis or ultrasound to detect the stone, as well as urinalysis to assess for concomitant urinary tract infection and serum BUN/creatinine to evaluate kidney function. Urinary stones are most commonly composed of calcium oxalate. Less common stones are made up of uric acid, struvite (due to infection with urease-producing bacteria), calcium phosphate, or cystine.
      Small uncomplicated stones without concurrent infection or severe dilation of the urinary tract may be managed conservatively with hydration and analgesics to promote spontaneous stone passage. When the spontaneous passage appears unlikely or fails due to the stone’s size or location, first-line urological interventions include shock wave lithotripsy, ureterorenoscopy, and, in case of large kidney stones, percutaneous nephrolithotomy. The most important preventive measure is adequate hydration.
      Collected stones should be sent for chemical analysis because in many cases specific lifestyle guidance, diet changes, and/or initiation of medical treatment (e.g., thiazide diuretics, urine alkalinisation) can prevent future stone formation.

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  • Question 8 - A 22 year old male presents with loose stools and abdominal pain that...

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    • A 22 year old male presents with loose stools and abdominal pain that is vague in nature. He previously had an episode of lower abdominal pain that was associated with pyrexia which settled on its own. He has also experienced mild weight loss recently. On examination, he is pale and has an ill defined mass in the right iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease (CD) is an inflammatory bowel disease, the pathogenesis of which is not fully understood. The clinical presentation of CD may be similar to ulcerative colitis (UC), the other most common inflammatory bowel disease. CD mostly affects young adults and adolescents between the ages of 15 and 35. It is typically located in the terminal ileum, but can discontinuously affect the entire gastrointestinal tract and commonly leads to complications such as fistulas, abscesses, and stenosis. Clinical features include diarrhoea, weight loss, and abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), as well as extraintestinal manifestations in the eyes, joints, or skin. It is often difficult to diagnose because there is no confirmatory test. Diagnosis is therefore based on the patient’s medical history, physical examination, lab tests, imaging (e.g., MRI), endoscopy, and serological testing. Acute episodes are treated with corticosteroids, and in severe cases, immunosuppressants may be indicated. Antibiotics and surgical intervention may be needed to help treat complications. Because the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected, Crohn disease cannot be cured (in contrast to ulcerative colitis). The goal of treatment is thus to avoid the progression and recurrence of inflammatory episodes.

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  • Question 9 - Which of the following drugs will most likely trigger an exacerbation of acute...

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    • Which of the following drugs will most likely trigger an exacerbation of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Hormonal contraceptives all contain man-made oestrogen and progestin hormones in a limited amount. These hormones prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the body’s natural cyclical hormones to prevent pregnancy. Even though all of these drugs except Ibuprofen can cause AIP in a vulnerable woman. The most likely cause is the OCP.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man, who is on salbutamol and low dose budesonide, has be...

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    • A 32-year-old man, who is on salbutamol and low dose budesonide, has be suffering from recurrent asthma attacks for the last week. What is the next drug of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmeterol

      Explanation:

      According to recent guidelines on asthma management, after administering SABA as needed, low doses of ICS are indicated. In this case the patient already takes budesonide so he now requires a long acting beta agonist (LABA), in this case salmeterol.

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  • Question 11 - The main source of nutrients in the liver is via the ...

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    • The main source of nutrients in the liver is via the

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein or hepatic portal vein is a blood vessel that carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver. This blood is rich in nutrients that have been extracted from food, and the liver processes these nutrients; it also filters toxins that may have been ingested with the food. 75% of total liver blood flow is through the portal vein, with the remainder coming from the hepatic artery proper.

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  • Question 12 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

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    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old female presented with the complaint of menorrhagia for the last 2...

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    • A 45-year-old female presented with the complaint of menorrhagia for the last 2 years. No pharmacological treatment has worked. She has had all the children she wants but refuses any open surgical procedure. Which of the following is the most suitable option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine artery embolization

      Explanation:

      Uterine artery embolization does not require open surgery or GA.

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  • Question 14 - A 69 year old male, who is a hypertensive and a smoker presented...

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    • A 69 year old male, who is a hypertensive and a smoker presented with sudden onset central chest pain radiating to his back. Examination revealed a pulsatile mass in the abdomen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: USG

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA). Characteristic pain, pulsatile abdominal mass and risk factors such as age>60, hypertension and smoking support the diagnosis. Ultrasonography is the standard imaging tool for AAA. It can also detect free peritoneal blood.

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  • Question 15 - A 70 year old male underwent surgery for rectal carcinoma. 10 days after...

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    • A 70 year old male underwent surgery for rectal carcinoma. 10 days after the operation, he presents with a mass in his pelvis and a high-grade fever. Choose the most likely diagnosis from the list of options below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic Abscess

      Explanation:

      Developing a pelvis abscess is one of the most common postoperative surgical complications after rectal operations. The symptoms of a pelvic mass and fever are also consistent with a pelvic abscess.

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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man on warfarin post hemicolectomy is about to undergo surgery. Which...

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    • A 25-year-old man on warfarin post hemicolectomy is about to undergo surgery. Which of the following should be done in such a case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and add heparin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin and Heparin are both anticoagulants, however, warfarin is used to treat chronic conditions, whereas heparin is administered for managing acute conditions (shorter half-life). As this person is about to undergo surgery, anticoagulation can cause excessive bleeding, especially when tissues are cut. Therefore, warfarin will be stopped prior to the procedure and heparin will be administered either subcutaneously or intravenously to prevent formation of any blood clots during surgery but must also be stopped shortly before surgery. As its effect does not last as long as that of warfarin, it can be stopped a shorter time before surgery. Common practice is to give the last dose the evening before surgery.

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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old male patient with hypertension complains of acute urinary retention. He provides...

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    • A 70-year-old male patient with hypertension complains of acute urinary retention. He provides a history of urinary frequency for the past 18 months and has been taking Nifedipine and Propranolol for blood pressure control. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his acute presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers decrease smooth-muscle contractility in the bladder and this can cause urinary retention.
      An enlarged prostate gland could be the reason if he gave a history of obstructive symptoms.
      Diabetes presents with polyuria.
      Bladder cancer commonly presents with painless haematuria.

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  • Question 18 - A 35 year old female with chronic pelvic pain, was recently diagnosed with...

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    • A 35 year old female with chronic pelvic pain, was recently diagnosed with PID. She was prescribed doxycycline. After 2 days she returned with complaints of abdominal bloating, nausea and regurgitation. Which of the following advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take Doxycycline after meals

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline is known to cause dyspeptic symptoms. So advising to take Doxycycline after meals is important. Taking with meals or adding an antacid is not advised, as both will cause reduction in drug absorption.

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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old female underwent a surgery involving the posterior triangle of the neck....

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    • A 60-year-old female underwent a surgery involving the posterior triangle of the neck. After the surgery, she had difficulty when moving her right shoulder joint. Which of the following nerves is most probably involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which is involved in shoulder movements. Any injury to this nerve will result in the difficulty of movements around the shoulder.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a...

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    • A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a six-week history of gradual dysphagia with solids. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the abnormal (metaplastic) change in the mucosal cells lining the lower portion of the oesophagus, from normal stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium with interspersed goblet cells, normally present only in the colon. This change is considered to be premalignant and is associated with a high incidence of transition to oesophageal adenocarcinoma. Clinical features of carcinoma of the oesophagus include: loss of weight, hoarseness of voice, dysphagia, and cough. Barium swallow and oesophagoscopy with biopsy should be done.

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  • Question 21 - A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both...

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    • A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both solids and liquids. What would be the best management option if the barium swallow showed a dilated oesophagus which tapers to a fine distal end?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilatation of the LES

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia for both solids and liquids indicates either obstruction or impaired oesophageal peristalsis which is usually due to neuromuscular causes such as achalasia. Achalasia is the failure of smooth muscle fibres to relax, which can cause the lower oesophageal sphincter to remain closed. The lower part of the oesophagus is more narrow than normal and presents as a birds beak appearance on barium swallow. If dysphagia was present only on solid food consumption, a benign or malignant tumour must be suspected.

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  • Question 22 - A 70 year old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing...

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    • A 70 year old male presents with hoarseness of the voice and breathing difficulties for the past 3 months. A chest x-ray, showed a unilateral opacity in hilum. He has no history of smoking. Choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of bronchial carcinoma.

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  • Question 23 - A 45 year old male presented with chronic diarrhoea and right lower abdominal...

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    • A 45 year old male presented with chronic diarrhoea and right lower abdominal pain. On examination he was febrile and there was tenderness over the right lower quadrant and an anal fissure. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his abdominal pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, IBD and IBS are the causes for chronic diarrhoea. Pyelonephritis and ureteric colic are associated with urinary symptoms. Tenderness of pyelonephritis is at the loin region. Perianal disease is associated with fifty percent of patients with Crohn’s disease.

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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old female presented following an insect bite she complained of itching at...

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    • A 25-year-old female presented following an insect bite she complained of itching at the site of bite. What is the most appropriate management can be done at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral antihistamine

      Explanation:

      Itching is due to release of histamine locally as a reaction to insect bites. Oral antihistamines are adequate as she doesn’t have other systemic features of anaphylaxis.

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  • Question 25 - A 32 year old man notices a pruritic scaly annular rash on his...

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    • A 32 year old man notices a pruritic scaly annular rash on his thigh. He claims that the rash appeared after a walk in the park. Which drug would you suggest he starts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture of an itchy, scaly annular rash after a walk in the park suggests erythema migrans. The pathogen responsible is a spirochete, Borrelia Burgdorferi transmitted by ticks leading to Lyme disease. Doxycycline is the antibiotic of choice if no contraindications.

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  • Question 26 - A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and...

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    • A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and feet, shortly after being unconscious for a while. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasm

      Explanation:

      Infantile spasm belongs to the spectrum of seizure disorders. Infantile spasm manifests itself with loss of consciousness and jerky movements. The peak age of onset is between 4 and 6 months. Approximately 90% of infantile spasms begin before 12 months of age. It is rare for infantile spasms to begin during the first 2 weeks of life or after 18 months.

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  • Question 27 - From the options provided, which statement would most likely points towards Munchausen's syndrome...

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    • From the options provided, which statement would most likely points towards Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a cause of sudden infant death

      Explanation:

      Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a mental illness and a form of child abuse. The caretaker of a child, most often a mother or a father, either makes up fake symptoms or causes real symptoms to make it look like the child is sick. The person with MSP gains attention by seeking medical help for exaggerated or made-up symptoms of a child in his or her care. As health care providers strive to identify what’s causing the child’s symptoms, the deliberate actions of the mother or caretaker can often make the symptoms worse.
      The person with MSP does not seem to be motivated by a desire for any type of material gain. People with MSP may create or exaggerate a child’s symptoms in several ways. They may simply lie about symptoms, alter tests (such as contaminating a urine sample), falsify medical records, or they may actually induce symptoms through various means, such as poisoning, suffocating, starving, and causing infection.

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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to ED with acute dyspnoea. He was treated...

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    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to ED with acute dyspnoea. He was treated for an anterior myocardial infarction a few weeks back. On examination, he is dyspnoeic, peripheral oxygen saturation is 85% on air and he has bibasal crepitations. What is the most suitable investigation to be done at this stage to find the cause for his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echo

      Explanation:

      This presentation is compatible with acute pulmonary oedema probably due to sudden papillary muscle rupture or VSD. Echo should be the answer to establish the underlying cause. It will also help to identify other complications associated with MI.

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  • Question 29 - A 22 year old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge...

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    • A 22 year old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her vagina. She previously underwent a dental procedure and completed a 7 day antibiotic course prior to it. Which of the following microorganisms has most likely lead to this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Candida albicans is the most common cause of candidiasis and appears almost universally in low numbers on healthy skin, in the oropharyngeal cavity, and in the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. In immunocompetent individuals, C. albicans usually causes minor localized infections, including thrush (affecting the oral cavity), vaginal yeast infections (if there is an underlying pH imbalance), and infections of the intertriginous areas of skin (e.g., the axillae or gluteal folds). More widespread and systemic infections may occur in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., neonates, diabetics, and HIV patients), with the oesophagus most commonly affected (candida esophagitis). Localized cutaneous candidiasis infections may be treated with topical antifungal agents (e.g., clotrimazole). More widespread and systemic infections require systemic therapy with fluconazole or caspofungin.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man presented with a rash over his forearms, shins and face...

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    • A 50-year-old man presented with a rash over his forearms, shins and face when he visited the clinic in the summer. Which of the following medications is the most likely to be associated with this photosensitive rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of cardiology drugs including amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin 2 receptor blockers (A2RBs) commonly also cause rashes only some of which appear to be photosensitive.

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