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  • Question 1 - A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is no increase in risk above the normal population level.

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The joint between the two pubic bones is called the: ...

    Correct

    • The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:

      Your Answer: Pubis symphysis

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. If she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following combinations of physical indications is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Little guarding but marked rebound tenderness in the suprapubic region.

      Explanation:

      Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).

      When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.

      A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.

      Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.

      Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
      Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: fast voltage gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      It blocks the voltage gated sodium channels and reduce the influx of sodium ions preventing depolarization of the membrane and blocking the conduction of the action potential. The affinity of the receptor site in the sodium channels depends on whether it is resting, open or inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Incorrect

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.
      Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal oblique

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
      The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half-life of Oxytocin is approximately 5 minutes
      The half-life of Misoprostol is approximately 20-40 minutes
      The half-life of Ergometrine is approximately 30-120 minutes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is funnel shaped

      Explanation:

      The female bony pelvis is larger, broader and more of a funnel shape. The inlet is larger and oval in shape and the sides of the female pelvis are wider apart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview,...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview, it was noted that she was a regular alcohol drinker and has been using contraceptive pills for the past 3 years.
      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate advice for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop alcohol now

      Explanation:

      Alcohol exposure during pregnancy results in impaired growth, stillbirth, and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Fetal alcohol deficits are lifelong issues with no current treatment or established diagnostic or therapeutic tools to prevent and/or ameliorate some of these adverse outcomes.

      Alcohol readily crosses the placenta with fetal blood alcohol levels approaching maternal levels within 2 hours of maternal intake. As there is known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy, and alcohol is a known teratogen that can impact fetal growth and development during all stages of pregnancy, the current recommendation from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Centre for Disease Control (CDC), Surgeon General, and medical societies from other countries including the Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada all recommend complete abstinence during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The typical female breast contains how many lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • The typical female breast contains how many lobes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs.
      Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.

      Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.

      Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 13 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      When considering immunoglobulins in neonates. There are only a few key points you are likely to be tested on. 1. IgA is resistant to stomach acid and found in large amounts in breast milk. 2. IgG is the only Ig that can cross the placenta so is key for passive neonatal immunity 3. When the neonate starts synthesising its own Ig it is IgM that is produced first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as ...

    Incorrect

    • WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births.
      According to WHO the perinatal period commences at 22 completed weeks (154 days) of gestation and ends seven completed days after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Incorrect

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones that are secreted into the circulation at one site but have effects on distal target organs are endocrine as is the case with the hormones above. Autocrine and Intracrine messengers act within the same cell. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts. Apocrine is a histological term used to describe some types of exocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.
      From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding fertilization & implantation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fertilization & implantation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside

      Explanation:

      During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with low risk, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. While types 16,18,31 and 33 are associated with high risk, high grade neoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in females? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in females?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal, inferior rectal and dorsal nerve of clitoris

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. The nerve gives the following branches in females: the inferior anal nerve, the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.
      Which is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.

      Explanation:

      The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
      Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.

      Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
      ‌- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
      ‌- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
      ‌- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
      ‌- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
      ‌- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
      ‌- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.

      Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IUGR

      Explanation:

      An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers

      Explanation:

      Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
      sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 24 - Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shape of the pubic arch

      Explanation:

      During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 25 - A patients MSU comes back showing heavy growth of E.coli that is resistant...

    Incorrect

    • A patients MSU comes back showing heavy growth of E.coli that is resistant to trimethoprim, amoxicillin and nitrofurantoin. You decide to prescribe a course of Cephalexin. What is the mechanism of action of Cephalexin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: inhibit peptidoglycan cross-links in bacterial cell wall

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporins are beta lactum drugs, like penicillin. They act by inhibiting the cross linkage of the peptidoglycan wall in bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).
      Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.
      Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix

      Explanation:

      When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.

      In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.2/1000

      Explanation:

      Major vessel injury is the most important potential complication when undertaking laparoscopy. It’s incidence is 0.2/1000. Bowel Injury is more common at 0.4/1000

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 28 - What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of Oxytetracycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to 30S subunit of microbial ribosomes blocking attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site on the ribosome

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is classified as a broad spectrum antibiotic. It is a bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis acting at the ribosomal level. Tetracycline binds to the 30s ribosomal subunit preventing the binding of the aminoacidic charged T-RNA to the ribosome-mRNA complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 29 - The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The third pharyngeal arch gives rise to which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The 3rd arch gives rise to the Glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following can be considered as a major contraindication for the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be considered as a major contraindication for the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Contraindications of PROVERA (medroxyprogesterone acetate) include: undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding, known, suspected, or history of breast cancer, known or suspected oestrogen- or progesterone-dependent neoplasia, active DVT, pulmonary embolism, or a history of these conditions, active arterial thromboembolic disease (for example, stroke and MI), or a history of these conditions, known anaphylactic reaction or angioedema, known liver impairment or disease, known or suspected pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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