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  • Question 1 - From which of the following spinal segments do both the internal and external...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following spinal segments do both the internal and external anal sphincters receive their innervation?

      Your Answer: S5

      Correct Answer: S4

      Explanation:

      The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle of the involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3
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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.
      Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.
      Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past.
      On examination her vital signs seems to be normal. Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall.The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability.A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin.
      Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel

      Explanation:

      Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
      Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.

      This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina.  Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
      This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease.  Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation.  Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
      In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.

      Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.

      Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage.  However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.

      Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain.  However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.

      Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.  Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.
      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      G0 is a resting phase. Interphase (G1,S,G2) is where the cell grows and DNA replication occurs forming chromatids. Mitosis is where cell division occurs and this happens in a the following phases: Prophase Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms Metaphase Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate Anaphase Chromatids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes Telophase New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome Cytokinesis Cells divide Diagram illustrating Mitosis Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
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  • Question 6 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
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  • Question 7 - At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised ...

    Incorrect

    • At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD

      Explanation:

      Testing for GD should use the 2 hour 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to test for GD in women. Testing women who have had GD in a previous pregnancy: early self monitoring of blood glucose OR a 75 g 2 hour OGTT as soon as possible after booking (whether in the first or second trimester) and a further 75 g 2hour OGTT at 24-28 weeks if the results of the first OGTT are normal. Testing women with risk factors for GD: 75g 2 hour OGTT at 24-28 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.
      On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.
      Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.

      Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.

      In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.

      In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.

      An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.

      In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - What is the average lifespan of a basophil (white blood cell)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average lifespan of a basophil (white blood cell)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-4 days

      Explanation:

      Basophils are granulocytic white blood cells. They express IgE antibody on their surface and react to release prostaglandins and leukotrienes to mediate an inflammatory, allergic reaction.
      Blood Cell Lifespans:
      Red Blood Cells 120 days
      Platelets 5-9 days
      White blood cells 2-5 days

      Neutrophils (up to 5 days)
      Basophils (2 to 3 days)
      Eosinophils (2 to 5 days)
      Monocytes (1 to 5 days)
      Lymphocytes (variable)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 10 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher.
      More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
      At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
      1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
      2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
      3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.

      Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
      Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.

      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Incorrect

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 13 - A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.
      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis – Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage- Because the patient’s HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband’s infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75%, so follow-up testing is still needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 15 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus start?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transportation of the maternal IgG through the placenta starts around the 12 week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 17 - What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound? ...

    Incorrect

    • What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The ultrasound used a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 18 - In patients with endometriosis what is the infertility rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • In patients with endometriosis what is the infertility rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Around 30-40% of women affected by this condition complain of difficulty in conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 19 - You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy. What is the typical genotype of a partial molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 69 XXY

      Explanation:

      The partial mole is produced when an egg is fertilized by two sperm producing genotype 69 XXY (triploid). It can also occur when one sperm reduplicates itself yielding the genotypes 92 XXXY (tetraploid) though this is less common The genotype of a complete mole is typically 46 XX (diploid) but can also be 46 XY (diploid)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 20 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      Prelabour Rupture of Membranes:
      – Risk of serious neonatal infection 1% (vs 0.5% for women with intact membranes)
      – 60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      – Induction appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and >24 hours post rupture and patients labour hasn’t started.
      – If <34 weeks induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following drugs is most associated with coronary artery spasm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is most associated with coronary artery spasm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ergometrine

      Explanation:

      Ergot alkaloids e.g. Ergometrine, produce marked and prolonged alpha receptor mediated vasoconstriction. Its overdose can cause ischemia and gangrene of the limbs and bowel. It also causes coronary artery spasm and has been used by cardiologist as a provocation test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 22 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B....

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B. Which of the following additional tests should she be screened for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella, Toxoplasma and Syphilis

      Explanation:

      A screening blood test for the infectious diseases HIV, Syphilis, Rubella, Toxoplasmosis and Hepatitis B is offered to all pregnant females so as to reduce the chances of transmission to the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - DHEA is synthesized from which molecule? ...

    Incorrect

    • DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not having menstrual periods over the last 6 months. She had her first menstrual periods at the age of 13 and they have been consistent since then with a cycle of 28 days. She reports that she had an unplanned pregnancy 8 months ago and did an elective abortion at the 8th week of gestation. Since that time she has not had menstrual periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. The pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, most likely caused by Asherman’s syndrome- Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menstruation for – 3 months in a patient who had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- Asherman’s syndrome as the cause of her amenorrhea is suggested by its beginning shortly after undergoing elective abortion. It is an outflow tract obstruction caused by intrauterine synechiae resulting from the procedure.

      The best diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis is hysteroscopy. It can allow visualization of the uterine cavity, the nature and extent of intrauterine synechiae.

      → Progesterone withdrawal test is one of the diagnostic studies done in the early work-up of secondary amenorrhoea- It is usually followed by the estrogen-progesterone challenge test and other tests. Progesterone withdrawal test alone would not confirm Asherman’s syndrome.
      → Pelvic ultrasound is more useful in primary amenorrhea work-up when the presence or absence of the uterus is to be confirmed- It is not very useful in the evaluation of intrauterine adhesions.
      → Brain MRI is useful in confirming the presence of pituitary tumours in patients, who are found to have high levels of prolactin. This patient’s most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is Asherman’s syndrome.
      → TSH and prolactin levels should be the next step in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea after pregnancy has been ruled out; however, these studies cannot confirm Asherman’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.
      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.

      Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.

      Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 29 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Incorrect

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 30 - At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk...

    Incorrect

    • At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.
      Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
      Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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