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  • Question 1 - A 60 yr. old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism. On examination his BP was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His CXR was normal. He was treated with low molecular weight heparin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial lung investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ventilation-perfusion scan

      Correct Answer: Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the standard investigative tool, used for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary angiography is indicated if CTPA is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha

      Explanation:

      The main mechanism of fibrate drugs is activation of gene transcription factors known as PPARs, particularly PPAR-Ī±, which regulate the expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism. There are several consequences of PPAR-Ī± activation, which reduce circulating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 55 yr. old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 yr. old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was admitted with a history of fever for the past 2 weeks. On investigation, his echocardiography revealed a small vegetation around the mitral valve. His blood culture was positive for Streptococcus viridans. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      According to the American Heart Association (AHA) penicillin-susceptible S viridans, S bovis, and other streptococci (MIC of penicillin of ā‰¤0.1 mcg/mL) should be treated with penicillin G or ceftriaxone or penicillin G + a gentamicin combination or vancomycin (if allergy to penicillin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 30 yr. old male patient presented with palpitations that occur randomly at...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 yr. old male patient presented with palpitations that occur randomly at rest. There have however been episodes of fast palpitations and dizziness on exertion. On examination there was a systolic murmur at the apex as well as a prominent apex beat and the chest was clear. Which of the following is LEAST likely to suggest a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A history of hypertension for 10 years

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an autosomal dominant condition. Patients present with sudden cardiac death, dyspnoea, syncope and presyncope, angina, palpitations, orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, Congestive heart failure and dizziness. Physical findings include double or triple apical impulse, prominent a wave in the JVP, an ejection systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur and a holosystolic murmur at the apex and axilla of mitral regurgitation.
      ECG shows ST-T wave abnormalities and LVH, axis deviation (right or left), conduction abnormalities (P-R prolongation, bundle-branch block), sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, atrial enlargement, abnormal and prominent Q wave in the anterior precordial and lateral limb leads.
      2D echocardiography shows abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LVH, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 32 yr. old male who was on methadone has suddenly collapsed while...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old male who was on methadone has suddenly collapsed while running and was found dead. What is the most likely cause for his death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT

      Explanation:

      Methadone and cocaine can cause QT prolongation through the direct effects on the resting membrane potential. Methadone can increase QT dispersion in addition to QT interval. Methadone inhibits the Human Ether-a-go-go Related Gene (hERG) and causes QTc prolongation and development of Torsades de point. Brugada-like syndrome is another condition found in methadone users which predisposes the users to life-threatening ventricular tachycardia and sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's...

    Incorrect

    • From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's syndrome of an adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      The main cardiovascular manifestations associated with Marfan’s syndrome are aortic dilatation and mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 72 yr. old female patient with a history of atrial fibrillation was...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 yr. old female patient with a history of atrial fibrillation was admitted with recurrent episodes of syncopal attacks. Her ECG showed torsade de pointes. What is the drug which does not cause the above presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Drugs causing torsades de pointes are Amiodarone, Chlorpromazine, Clarithromycin, Disopyramide, Dofetilide, Erythromycin, Haloperidol, Methadone, Procainamide, Quinidine, Sotalol, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Nilotinib, Ondansetron, Ranolazine, Sunitinib, Ziprasidone, Amitriptyline, Ciprofloxacin, Imipramine, Chlorthalidone, Dasatinib, Hydrochlorothiazide, Furosemide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin post operatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she collapsed whilst shopping. She has a tachycardia of 150 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg. Her ECG showed a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is more suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia (VT) over a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular dissociation

      Explanation:

      To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - A 35 yr. old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 yr. old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was brought to Casualty, complaining of chest pain and worsening difficulty in breathing for the past 36 hrs. On examination she was tachypnoeic, her BP was 85/65 mmHg and peripheral oxygen saturation was 98% on air. Her cardiac examination was normal but her jugular venous pressure was elevated. She didn't have ankle oedema. Her ECG showed sinus tachycardia and her CXR showed clear lung fields with a slightly enlarged heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent transthoracic echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Acute breathlessness in SLE can be due to a pericardial effusion or a pulmonary embolism. Normal peripheral oxygen saturation and normal ECG, make the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism less likely. To exclude pericardial effusion, an urgent transthoracic echocardiogram is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 60 year old male patient with a history of heavy smoking was...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male patient with a history of heavy smoking was admitted complaining of acute severe central chest pain for the past one hour. His blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His peripheral oxygen saturation was 93%. ECG showed ST elevation > 2mm in lead II, III and aVF. He was given loading doses of aspirin, clopidogrel and atorvastatin and face mask oxygen was given. Which one of the following investigations should be done and then depending on result, definitive treatment can be initiated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      The history and ECG findings are adequate to begin cardiac revascularization of this patient. There is no need for cardiac markers to confirm the diagnosis. Further delay in starting definite treatment is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not associated with atrial myxoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with atrial myxoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: J wave on ECG

      Explanation:

      J waves in an ECG is associated with hypothermia, hypercalcemia, the Brugada syndrome, and idiopathic ventricular fibrillation. The other responses are all associated with atrial myxoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 50 yr. old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a non ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) was diagnosed. He was threated with aspirin 300mg and 2 puffs of glyceral trin (GTN) spray. According to NICE guidelines, which of the following categories of patients should receive clopidogrel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), a beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 50 yr. old male presented with episodes of collapse during the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male presented with episodes of collapse during the last month. Each episode persisted for about 2-3 minutes. They were self-limiting and associated with twitching of the limbs. There was no associated tonic-clonic movements, tongue biting, urinary or faecal incontinence. On examination he had reversed splitting of S2 and an ejection systolic murmur at the right sternal border. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed left ventricular hypertrophy with strain pattern. CXR showed an area of calcification over the cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      The classic triad of symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis is chest pain, heart failure and syncope. Pulsus parvus et tardus, pulsus alternans, hyperdynamic left ventricle, reversed splitting of the S2, prominent S4 and systolic murmur are some of the common findings of aortic stenosis. A calcified aortic valve is found in almost all adults with hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 65 yr. old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and thrombolysis was planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intracerebral Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of a B-blocker reduces the time spent in hospital

      Explanation:

      It is proven that spironolactone has survival benefits and loop diuretics only give symptomatic relief. Beta blockers are however, known to improve exercise tolerance, left ventricular function and reduce symptoms. They also reduce the mortality associated with heart failure. So administration of beta blockers will reduce the time spent in hospital by improving symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 45 yr. old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 yr. old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic ulcers. 3 days after discharge he was readmitted complaining of acute severe chest pain for the past 1 hour. His ECG showed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. His FBC, blood urea, serum electrolytes and serum creatinine were within normal ranges. Faecal occult blood was negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      The patient has a recent history of bleeding peptic ulcer disease, which is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis. So he should be offered primary angioplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 32 yr. old primigravida in her 37th week of pregnancy was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old primigravida in her 37th week of pregnancy was admitted for the management of pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure was 180/110 mmHg and urine protein was +++. Magnesium sulphate was started. Which of the following are important parameters that should be monitored during the administration of magnesium sulphate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reflexes + respiratory rate

      Explanation:

      The clinical effect and toxicity of MgSO4 can be linked to its concentration in plasma. A concentration of 1.8 to 3.0 mmol/L has been suggested for treatment of eclamptic convulsions. Maternal toxicity is rare when MgSO4 is carefully administered and monitored. The first warning of impending toxicity in the mother is loss of the patellar reflex at plasma concentrations between 3.5 and 5 mmol/L. Respiratory paralysis occurs at 5 to 6.5 mmol/L. Cardiac conduction is altered at greater than 7.5 mmol/L, and cardiac arrest can be expected when concentrations of magnesium exceed 12.5 mmol/L. Careful attention to the monitoring guidelines can prevent toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, urine output and serum concentrations are the most commonly monitored parameters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not an indication for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an indication for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Class I indications (i.e., the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered): -Structural heart disease, sustained VT
      -Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
      -Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ā‰¤35% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI, NYHA class II or III
      -LVEF ā‰¤35%, NYHA class II or III
      -LVEF ā‰¤30% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI
      -LVEF ā‰¤40% due to prior MI, inducible VT or VF at EPS

      Class IIa indications (i.e., the benefit outweighs the risk and it is reasonable to administer the treatment):
      -Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, nonischaemic cardiomyopathy
      -Sustained VT, normal or near-normal ventricular function
      -Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with 1 or more major risk factors
      -Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy (ARVD/C) with 1 or more risk factors for sudden cardiac death (SCD)
      -Long QT syndrome, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
      -Nonhospitalized patients awaiting heart transplant
      -Brugada syndrome, syncope or VT
      -Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
      -Cardiac sarcoidosis, giant cell myocarditis, or Chagas disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which radiated backwards between his scapulae. He didn't have difficulty in breathing and the pain wasn't exacerbated by deep inspiration or a change in position. His father had died due to a heart disease when he was small. He also has a cardiac murmur which was never properly investigated. On examination he was tachycardic with a BP of 165/60 mmHg. There was a diastolic murmur at lower left sternal border which is best heard with the patient sitting forward. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Marfan’s syndrome because of a family history of cardiac death and heart murmurs. A characteristic feature is pain which radiates to the back. A wide pulse pressure and a diastolic heart murmur is suggestive of aortic dissection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ā‰„ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was admitted with an ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was obese and lives a sedentary lifestyle. What is the non-pharmacological intervention which will be most helpful to reduce future ischaemic events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Stopping smoking is the single most effective non-pharmacological intervention which will reduce future ischaemic events. But the rest of the responses are also important interventions with regards to reducing future ischaemic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 60 yr. old man with previous history of myocardial infarction and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man with previous history of myocardial infarction and hypertension presented with severe retrosternal chest pain for the past 2 hours. During initial management he collapsed and pulseless ventricular tachycardia was detected. The external defibrillator arrived in 3 minutes. From the following answers, what is the most appropriate immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be given a precordial thump

      Explanation:

      A precordial thumb is not routinely recommended because of its very low success rate for cardioversion of a shockable rhythm. It’s only recommended when there is a delay in getting the defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He has no significant past medical history or cardiac risk factors except a total cholesterol of 5.8 mmol/L. He has been already started on aspirin. Which of the following is the most suitable drug combination for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B-blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers have proven prognostic benefits. Nitrates don’t have any proven prognostic benefits. A statin is indicated for a patient with angina and cholesterol level of 5.5 to 8.5 to prevent risk of myocardial infarction. So the preferred combination from the given answers is beta blocker + statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination his lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. There was a left sided parasternal heave. His electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed atrial fibrillation with right axis deviation. Echocardiography showed dilated right heart chambers. Left and right heart catheterisation study revealed the following:

      Inferior vena cava Oxygen saturations 63 %,
      Superior vena cava Oxygen saturations 59 %,
      Right atrium Oxygen saturations 77 %,
      Right ventricle Oxygen saturations 78 %,
      Pulmonary artery Oxygen saturations 82 %,
      Arterial saturation Oxygen saturations 98 %.

      What is the most likely diagnosis from the following answers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 42 yr. old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented with generalized body weakness. Investigations revealed hyperkalaemia. Which of the following can be expected in his ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Explanation:

      In hyperkalaemia the ECG will show tall, tented T waves as well as small P waves and widened QRS complexes.Ā 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of atrial fibrillation. He was warfarinised and discharged. Later he was reviewed and found to be in sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin

      Explanation:

      CHAā‚‚DSā‚‚-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
      Congestive heart failure – 1 point
      Hypertension – 1 point
      Age ā‰„75 years – 2 points
      Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
      Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
      Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
      Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
      Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
      A score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 3, so he needs life long warfarin to prevent stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 31 - A 70 yr. old man underwent temporary transvenous pacing. While in the coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old man underwent temporary transvenous pacing. While in the coronary care unit he developed pre-syncope. His pulse rate was 30 bpm. His ECG showed pacing spikes which were not related to QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate action that can be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the pacing voltage to a maximum

      Explanation:

      Pacemaker spikes on the ECG indicate that pacemaker is functioning. The most probable cause for this presentation is the change of the position of the tip of the pacing wire. Increasing the voltage will solve the problem. If it works, repositioning of the pacing wire should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 32 - A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 33 - A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 34 - A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy came to the antenatal clinic for a routine review. Her blood pressure was 152/90 mmHg. On her last clinic visit 4 weeks ago her blood pressure was 148/86 mmHg. She was put on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring and her mean blood pressure was 148/88 mmHg. Her urine examination was negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is excluded from negative proteinuria. White coat hypertension is excluded with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Pregnancy induced hypertension develops after 20 weeks of gestation. So the most likely answer is pre-existing hypertension. She should be investigated for a secondary cause for hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 35 - A 40 yr. old female presented with palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 yr. old female presented with palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas on her elbows and knees. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III hyperlipoproteinaemia

      Explanation:

      Palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia (dysbetalipoproteinemia,broad-beta disease, remnant removal disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 36 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for the routine follow up. She was asymptomatic at the time of examination. Her blood pressure was 152/92 mmHg and pulse rate was 90 bpm. Her blood pressure at the booking visit had been 132/80 mmHg. Her other examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the best method to use to treat her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Methyldopa is the drug of first choice for the control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is also considered as a first line drug for hypertension in pregnancy. Calcium channel blockers and hydralazine are considered as second line drugs. Beta-blockers (except labetalol), angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and thiazides are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 37 - Which of the following is the site where B-type natriuretic peptide is mainly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the site where B-type natriuretic peptide is mainly secreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular myocardium

      Explanation:

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted mainly from the left ventricle and it is secreted as a response to stretching caused by increased ventricular blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 38 - A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old female presented with a history of sudden collapse. She had been playing netball and had suddenly collapsed. This collapse had been accompanied by a brief period of loss of consciousness. She experienced palpitations for a brief period prior to losing consciousness. On examination her BP was 120/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm, which was regular. The rest of the examination was also normal.
      She had similar experience of collapse, about two years ago. She was well except for these two incidents and she has not been on any medication. All the investigations done at the first presentation (2 years ago), including FBC, ECG and echocardiography were normal. Her ECG done at this presentation revealed QT prolongation of 0.50 s. FBC, CXR and other investigations were normal. Which of the following is the best way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start on a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are drugs of choice for patients with LQTS. The protective effect of beta-blockers is related to their adrenergic blockade, which diminishes the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. They may also reduce the QT interval in some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 39 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history of palpitations, which are fast and regular. She doesn't complain of any episodes of collapse. On examination she was well, pulse rate was 102 bpm, which was regular and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. Her JVP was not elevated. Heart sounds were normal. ECH showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following can be expected because of theĀ  physiological changes which occur in the boy during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular alterations which occur during pregnancy are for the optimal growth and development of the foetus and help to protect the mother from the risks of delivery, such as haemorrhage. The changes are characterized by an increased vascular volume, cardiac output, and heart rate, with a marked fall in vascular resistance and reduction in blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 40 - A 60 yr. old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain for 3 hours. On examination his pulse rate was 68 bpm, BP was 100/60 mmHg and JVP was seen 3mm from the sternal notch. Respiratory examination was normal. His ECG showed narrow QRS complexes, ST segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and aVF and a complete heart block. What is the most immediate treatment from the following answers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chewable aspirin 300 mg

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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