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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old male is under treatment with azathioprine after a renal transplant. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is under treatment with azathioprine after a renal transplant. During his review, he complains of pain and swelling over his left great toe. Investigations reveal hyperuricemia. Suspecting gout, he was started on allopurinol. Subsequently, he develops aplastic anaemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for his bone marrow failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mercaptopurine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The cause for bone marrow suppression in this patient is most probably mercaptopurine toxicity.
      Azathioprine is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP), which itself is metabolized by xanthine oxidase.
      Xanthine oxidase inhibition by allopurinol leads to the accumulation of 6-MP which then precipitates bone marrow failure.
      This may be potentially fatal if unrecognized.
      Clinical presentation:
      Toxicity symptoms include gastrointestinal symptoms, bradycardia, hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed:


      Na+ 141 mmol/L,
      K+ 2.9 mmol/L,
      Chloride 114 mmol/L,
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L,
      Urea 5.2 mmol/L,
      Creatinine 75 µmol/L,

      Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 3 - A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year-old university graduate presented with progressive unsteadiness during walking over the last year. She had been otherwise healthy apart from recent difficulty hearing her lecturer in classes. She took no prescription medication but had occasionally taken cocaine during her first year of college. She also admits to drinking up to 30 units of alcohol per week and smoked 10 cigarettes per day. Her parents were both well, but her father's sister had problems with walking before she died. Examination reveals normal tone and power throughout all four limbs. Reflexes were normal in the upper limbs but decreased at the knees and absent at the ankles. Coordination was normal in all four limbs but her gait was ataxic. Sensation in the upper limbs was normal but decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception was noted to the ankles bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive disorder that usually begins before the end of the teens. It has an estimated prevalence in Europe of 1 in 50,000 and life expectancy is around 40–50 years. Neurological features include a progressive ataxia, cerebellar dysarthria, lower limb areflexia, decreased vibratory sensation and proprioception, and pyramidal weakness. Pes cavus and scoliosis are also both seen. Cardiomyopathy occurs in over 70% of cases. Less common features include optic atrophic, diabetes mellitus, and deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast, with metastases detectable in the lower thoracic vertebrae and the left lung. Before the initiation of treatment of this patient with trastuzumab, which is the most important investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echo

      Explanation:

      Before the initiation of trastuzumab, an echocardiography is a must to rule out any pre-existing cardiac abnormalities as trastuzumab is cardiotoxic.

      Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor. It is used mainly in metastatic breast cancer although some patients with early disease are now also given trastuzumab.

      Adverse effects include:
      Flu-like symptoms and diarrhoea are common.
      Cardiotoxicity:
      – Risk increases when anthracyclines are used concomitantly.
      – Trastuzumab-induced cardiac dysfunctions are regarded as less severe and largely reversible because primary cardiomyocyte do not show ultrastructure changes unlike those associated with anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity.
      – Primary myocyte injury does not occur in patients who were treated with trastuzumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 5 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 6 - A 18-year-old gentleman is referred to dermatology. He has around 10 hyperpigmented macules...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old gentleman is referred to dermatology. He has around 10 hyperpigmented macules on his torso which vary in size from 1.5-5 cm in size. His GP also noted some freckles in the groin region. He is also currently under orthopaedic review due to a worsening scoliosis of the spine. His father suffered from similar problems before having a fatal myocardial infarction two years ago. Which chromosome is most likely to have a gene defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 17

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history and presentation and familial history, meets the diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type I, presenting with neurofibromas noted in this patient as hyperpigmented macules and freckles, musculoskeletal disorders like the scoliosis in this case, and a familial history. Neurofibromatosis type I is caused by a mutation on Chromosome 17.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 7 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show:
      Hb: 130g/l
      Platelets: 359*109/L,
      WBC: 10*109/L,
      CRP: 89mg/l
      Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 40 year old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette per day complains of a cough and fever for the last three days. He also has right-sided chest pain when he inhales. On examination he is slightly cyanosed, has a temperature of 38.1°C, a respiratory rate of 39/min, a BP of 104/71 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 132/min. He has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the right lung base.
      What could be a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Bronchopneumonia presents as a patchy consolidation involving one or more lobes, usually the dependent lung zones, a pattern attributable to aspiration of oropharyngeal contents.

      Symptoms of bronchopneumonia may be like other types of pneumonia. This condition often begins with flu-like symptoms that can become more severe over a few days. The symptoms include:
      – fever
      – a cough that brings up mucus
      – shortness of breath
      – chest pain
      – rapid breathing
      – sweating
      – chills
      – headaches
      – muscle aches
      – pleurisy, or chest pain that results from inflammation due to excessive coughing
      – fatigue
      – confusion or delirium, especially in older people

      There are several factors that can increase your risk of developing bronchopneumonia. These include:
      – Age: People who are 65 years of age or older, and children who are 2 years or younger, have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia and complications from the condition.
      – Environmental: People who work in, or often visit, hospital or nursing home facilities have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia.
      – Lifestyle: Smoking, poor nutrition, and a history of heavy alcohol use can increase your risk for bronchopneumonia.
      – Medical conditions: Having certain medical conditions can increase your risk for developing this type of pneumonia. These include: chronic lung disease, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), HIV/AIDS, having a weakened immune system due to chemotherapy or the use of immunosuppressive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 9 - A 51 year-old teacher presents complaining of numerous falls. He states he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year-old teacher presents complaining of numerous falls. He states he has difficulty walking up stairs, and he thinks it is because of his weak legs rather than blackouts. He is hypertensive and has suffered chronic back pain for many years. He has smoked for many years as well and has a chronic smokers cough. Upon examination, he has weakness of hip flexion and particularly knee extension. He is unable to keep his fingers flexed against force, with the right being weaker than the left. There are no sensory abnormalities and reflexes are preserved bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inclusion body myositis

      Explanation:

      The pattern of muscle involvement seen with quadriceps and long-finger flexors is characteristic of inclusion body myositis, an inflammatory myopathy. Polymyositis is likely to cause a predominantly proximal weakness, associated with muscle pain. The signs and symptoms are not consistent with upper cord compression, as there would likely be sensory signs, reflex changes, and possible urinary symptoms. Motor neuron disease cannot be ruled out, but there are no findings of upper motor neuron or bulbar features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old right-handed migraineur is admitted to hospital having developed paraesthesia affecting her left arm. This came on suddenly during a migrainous attack while out shopping. The paraesthesia appeared to effect the entire left arm and in the last few hours, has spread to involve the left side of the face. She had had a similar episode several months ago whereby she developed some right-sided leg and arm weakness while at work. The weakness lasted several minutes and subsequently abated. At the time, she was also having one of her migraines. She has a long-standing history of migraines, which typically start with a prolonged aura and fortification spectra. Other then migraines, for which she has been taking pizotifen, she has no other past medical history. Her sister also suffers from migraines, and her mother has a history of dementia in her 50s. She is a non-smoker and drinks minimal alcohol.
      On examination she was orientated but apathetic. Her blood pressure was 130/65 mmHg, pulse 62/min, and temperature 36.2ºC. There were no carotid bruits and heart sounds were entirely normal. There was reduced sensation to all modalities over the left side of the face extending to the vertex and the entire left arm. Tone and reflexes appeared intact; however, handgrip was reduced on the left due to numbness. The lower limb appeared entirely normal.
      Magnetic resonance (MR) scan showed bilateral, multifocal, T2/FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery ) hyperintensities in the deep white matter. MR Spinal cord was normal.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leucoencephalopathy)

      Explanation:

      CADASIL is the most common form of hereditary stroke disorder. This case has a strong history of migraine with aura with stroke-like episodes, characteristic of CADASIL. Additionally, there is positive family history of migraine and early dementia but no other vascular risk factors like hypertension, diabetes, or hypercholesterolaemia, which all confirm the suspicion of CADASIL, an arteriopathy where there is thickening of the smooth muscle cells in the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain.

      Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.

      The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily.
       
      Routine investigations show:

      Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 100 μmol/L (60-110)

       
      Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.
       
      Which of these is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 13 - An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl.

      On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure.

      Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 15 - In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
      Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 51 year old obese female, with a history of smoking, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year old obese female, with a history of smoking, presents to the clinic with worsening dyspnoea. She is currently on oestrogen therapy for menopausal symptoms.
      Clinical examination, ECG and radiological findings correspond to right sided heart failure. There are no signs of left ventricular dysfunction.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of cor pulmonale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent small pulmonary embolisms

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal oestrogen therapy and hormone therapy are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism. The relative risk seems to be even greater if the treated population has pre-existing risk factors for thromboembolism, such as obesity, immobilization, and fracture. Cor pulmonale can occur secondary to small recurrent pulmonary embolisms. Pneumonias and bronchiectasis usually present with purulent sputum, and in case of carcinoma there may be other associated symptoms like weight loss, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 17 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
      The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications.
      Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show:

      Na+: 133 mmol/L,
      K+: 3.3 mmol/L,
      Urea: 4.5 mmol/L,
      Creatinine: 90 μmol/L,

      Which among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy

      Explanation:

      The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances.
      Note:
      – Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.
      – Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.
      – Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem.
      The following vitals are recorded on examination:
      BP: 101/74 mmHg
      RR: 22 breaths/min
      PR: 87 beats/min
      Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs.
      Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 22 - Which one of the following paraneoplastic features is less likely to be seen...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following paraneoplastic features is less likely to be seen in patients with squamous cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a rare presynaptic disorder of neuromuscular transmission in which release of acetylcholine (ACh) is impaired, causing a unique set of clinical characteristics, which include proximal muscle weakness, depressed tendon reflexes, post-tetanic potentiation, and autonomic changes.

      In 40% of patients with LEMS, cancer is present when the weakness begins or is found later. This is usually a small cell lung cancer (SCLC). However, LEMS has also been associated with non-SCLC, lymphosarcoma, malignant thymoma, or carcinoma of the breast, stomach, colon, prostate, bladder, kidney, or gallbladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 23 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.
       
      What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 24 - A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:

      Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/L,
      Na+: 136 mmol/L,
      K+: 4.6 mmol/L,
      Urea: 8.1 mmol/L,
      Creatinine: 99 µmol/L,
      Bicarbonate: 18 mmol/L,

      What is the most appropriate management for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.
      ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.
      Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:
      Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.
      The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:
      Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)
      Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.
      Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.
      The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:
      • Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L
      • Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels
      • Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hours
      As post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:
    ...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:

      Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)
      Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)
      Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)
      White cell count 60 per ml (<5)
      Lymphocytes 90%
      Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old retired store owner presents with severe pain around his right eye and vomiting. On examination, the right eye is red and decreased visual acuity is noted.

      Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical pilocarpine + intravenous acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      In acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) there is a rise in IOP secondary to an impairment of aqueous outflow. Management options include reducing aqueous secretions with acetazolamide and inducing pupillary constriction with topical pilocarpine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.

      Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.

      This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANCA

      Explanation:

      Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
      The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 30 - A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets.

      On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices.
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

      People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

      A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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