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Question 1
Incorrect
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During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced by the:
Your Answer: Testes
Correct Answer: Placenta
Explanation:The placenta does not have all the necessary enzymes to make oestrogens from cholesterol, or even progesterone. Human trophoblast lack 17-hydroxylase and therefore cannot convert C21-steroids to C19-steroids, the immediate precursors of oestrogen. To bypass this deficit, dehydroisoandrosterone sulphate (DHA) from the fetal adrenal is converted to estradiol-17ί by trophoblasts. In its key location as a way station between mother and foetus, placenta can use precursors from either mother or foetus to circumvent its own deficiencies in enzyme activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to your office with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. She's taking oral contraceptives. Even when she was quite unwell, she did not miss her pills.
Which of the following would be the best piece of contraceptive and pill advise you could give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should continue the pills and use condom for 7 days
Explanation:If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours the patient should use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.
Options to stop pills are incorrect as it increases risk of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a non pregnant state?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:The corpus luteum is formed from the granulosa cells of the mature follicle. The structure functions as a transient endocrine organ which secretes mainly progesterone with additional secretion of oestradiol and inhibin, which serve to suppress FSH levels. In the event of no pregnancy, the corpus luteum stops producing progesterone and degenerates into the corpus albicans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.
Which is the cause for her bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
pain and bleeding during or after sex
pain during or after cervical screening
light discharge of mucus
spotting between periods
Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.
Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clearing of the airway
Explanation:Immediate treatment for infants with suspected meconium aspiration syndrome is to clear/suction the airway. Intubation and tracheal toileting have remained a matter of debate till the most recent times. All neonates at risk of MAS who show respiratory distress should be admitted to a neonatal intensive care unit and monitored closely. The treatment is mainly supportive and aims to correct hypoxemia and acidosis with the maintenance of optimal temperature and blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tubes after ovulation. The zygote moves through the fallopian tube and implants in the endometrium about 7-9 days after fertilisation, or 6-12 days after ovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days
Explanation:The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal.
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.
Explanation:Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.
Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.
It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered.
On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery
Explanation:Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
– In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
– Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.
Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.
In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.
Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.
After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal Iliac
Explanation:The bladder is supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery, including the superior vesical artery, branches of the gluteal and obturator arteries and the inferior vesical artery in males and the vaginal and the uterine arteries in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 26 year old patient currently 9 weeks pregnant. This is her 1st pregnancy. She has been suffering with nausea and vomiting that has failed to respond to conservative measures including ginger, dietary changes and acupuncture. She wants to start medical therapy. Which of the following is 1st line drug treatment according to NICE guidance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Promethazine or Cyclizine are 1st choice options for management of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy according to NICE. Prochlorperazine is also appropriate 1st line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the typical weight of a term uterus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1200g
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy.
Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation
Explanation:Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.
Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.
Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour.
Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries.
Further examination was done and the following are her results:
BMI is 28 kg/m2,
Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg,
Pulse is 120/min.
An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis.
Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical exploration
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.
Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.
Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.
Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia
Explanation:A type II deceleration is due to placental insufficiency which can result in fetal distress and asphyxia. The fetal heart rate is lowest at the start of the contraction and returns to normal after the contraction is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows a large irregular haemorrhagic mass that appears to be invading into the myometrium. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma
Explanation:Choriocarcinoma may arise as a complication of gestation or as spontaneous germ cell tumours. As this scenario depicts that the women has previous abortion points to the fact that these may have been molar pregnancies. As choriocarcinoma can arise from a molar pregnancy it can be differentiated from it by the presence of invasion into the uterus and metastasis to the lungs primarily.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis
Explanation:Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 1 gene is 70% and of ovarian cancer is 40%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal.
What is the next step in management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cone biopsy
Explanation:If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active.
Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The OCP and a condom.
Explanation:This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function
Explanation:These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions
Explanation:Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old G2P1 visits the gynaecologist with complaints of increased hair growth on her face, breast, and belly, but hair loss in the temporal regions of her head. She has also struggled with acne.
On physical examination, the patient's face, chest, and belly are covered in coarse, dark hair. Her clitoris is swollen on pelvic examination. Her left adnexal mass is 7 cm in diameter.
What is the most likely ovarian tumour to be associated with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour
Explanation:Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours constitute less than 0.5 percent of ovarian neoplasms. They may behave in a benign or malignant fashion, which correlates with the degree of differentiation in an individual case. Approximately 75 percent occur in women under the age of 40 years (mean age at diagnosis is 25), but they occur in all age groups. The neoplasms are characterized by the presence of testicular structures that produce androgens. This can result in virilization, although not all of these neoplasms are functionally active.
Pure Sertoli cell tumours are usually estrogenic and may also secrete renin, leading to refractory hypertension and hypokalaemia. In addition, these tumours may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
Pure Leydig cell tumours are androgen secreting; only a few cases have been reported. Virtually all of these rare tumours are unilateral and confined to the ovary at diagnosis.
Granulosa cell tumours typically present as large masses; the mean diameter is 12 cm. Women may present with an asymptomatic mass noted on abdominal or pelvic examination. Granulosa cell tumours often produce oestrogen and/or progesterone; consequently, symptoms related to hyperestrogenism are common at diagnosis.
Krukenberg tumour, also known as carcinoma mucocellulare, refers to the signet ring subtype of metastatic tumour to the ovary. The stomach followed by colon are the two most common primary tumours to result in ovarian metastases, pursued by the breast, lung, and contralateral ovary.
A rare tumour that is made up of more than one type of cell found in the gonads (testicles and ovaries), including germ cells, stromal cells, and granulosa cells. Gonadoblastomas are usually benign (not cancer), but they may sometimes become malignant (cancer) if not treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What percentage of haemoglobin is HbF by 6 months of age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 week old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally. Only 2% of the haemoglobin is HbF.
Embryonic Haemoglobin:
Haemoglobin Gower 1 (HbE Gower-1)
Haemoglobin Gower 2 (HbE Gower-2)
Haemoglobin Portland I (HbE Portland-1)
Haemoglobin Portland II (HbE Portland-2)Fetal Haemoglobin (haemoglobin F, HbF)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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