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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?
Your Answer: Miosis
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve palsy is an eye condition resulting from damage to the third cranial nerve or a branch thereof. A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. This is because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) and superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II pneumocyte
Explanation:Type I pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in the alveoli. It is a very thin cell stretched over a very large area. This type of cell is susceptible to a large number of toxic insults and cannot replicate itself.
Type II pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant (the molecule that reduces the surface tension of pulmonary fluids and contributes to the elastic properties of the lungs). The type 2 pneumocyte is a smaller cell that can replicate in the alveoli and will replicate to replace damaged type 1 pneumocytes. Alveolar macrophages are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system, clearing the air spaces of infectious, toxic, or allergic particles that have evaded the mechanical defences of the respiratory tract, such as the nasal passages, the glottis, and the mucociliary transport system. The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Sm
Explanation:Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:A couple of papers written by the same authors indicate that children and adolescents taking an SSRI definitely experience discontinuation reactions that can be mild, moderate or severe when the medication is stopped suddenly or high doses are reduced substantially. Among the SSRIs paroxetine seems to be the worst offender and fluoxetine the least while sertraline and fluvoxamine tend to be intermediate. The rate of discontinuation syndrome varies with the particular SSRI involved. It is generally quoted as 25% but is higher for SSRIs with shorter half-lives. Paroxetine has been associated with more frequent discontinuation symptoms than the other SSRIs.
The use of fluoxetine with its long half-life appears safer in this respect than paroxetine and venlafaxine causing the most concerns.
Paroxetine has the shortest half-life with 21 hours of all listed SSRIs and as such it would be expected to have a higher incidence or severity (greater number of symptoms) and fluoxetine would have the least since it has a half life of 96 hours. Citalopram has a half-life of 35 hours while escitalopram has a half-life of 30 hours.
The most common symptoms reported are: dizziness, light-headedness, drowsiness, poor concentration, nausea, headache and fatigue.
Another common symptom in adults is paraesthesia described as burning, tingling, numbness or electric shock feelings usually in the upper half of the body or proximal lower limbs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor
Explanation:Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.
Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:
– Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.
– Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:
Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft.Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.
Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:
– Salivation
– Lacrimation
– Urination
– Diaphoresis
– Gastrointestinal upset
– Emesis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals that he has chronic renal failure, for which he receives haemodialysis three times per week. Since one week prior to consultation, he has been on vacation and has missed two dialysis sessions.
Examination reveals pulmonary oedema. His ECG shows no P waves, broad QRS complexes and peaked T waves.
What should you do?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenously
Explanation:The patient is most likely complaining of the effects of hyperkalaemia, due to missing his dialysis sessions. Additionally, because the patient presents with a risk of cardiac arrest (based on pulmonary oedema and ECG findings), the best intervention is to give calcium gluconate that will address the hyperkalaemia as well as improve the cardiac condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An iv-drug abuser sustains an open head injury and is admitted overnight for observation. The next morning she is ok and is discharged. A week later she is re-admitted with fluctuating hard neurological signs. Blood results show neutrophilia and raised C-reactive protein (CRP).
Which of the following is the best initial treatment step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast
Explanation:Increased WBC count and CRP suggest infection. But with the fluctuating hard neurological signs, there is suspicion of the presence of a cerebral mass, which is an indication for requesting for a CT scan with contrast, to rule out an abscess or haematoma. The lumbar puncture can be considered after the CT scan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.
Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor
Explanation:Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.
Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).
Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.
Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
Renal: Acute renal failureOther options:
Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours.
Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known cause of occupational asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cadmium
Explanation:Occupational asthma (OA) could be divided into a nonimmunological, irritant-induced asthma and an immunological, allergy-induced asthma. In addition, allergy-induced asthma can be caused by two different groups of agents: high molecular weight proteins (>5,000 Da) or low molecular weight agents (<5,000 Da), generally chemicals like the isocyanates.
Isocyanates are very reactive chemicals characterized by one or more isocyanate groups (–N=C=O). The main reactions of this chemical group are addition reactions with ethanol, resulting in urethanes, with amines (resulting in urea derivates) and with water. Here, the product is carbamic acid which is not stable and reacts further to amines, releasing free carbon dioxide.Diisocyanates and polyisocyanates are, together with the largely nontoxic polyol group, the basic building blocks of the polyurethane (PU) chemical industry, where they are used solely or in combination with solvents or additives in the production of adhesives, foams, elastomers, paintings, coatings and other materials.
The complex salts of platinum are one of the most potent respiratory sensitising agents having caused occupational asthma in more than 50% of exposed workers. Substitution of ammonium hexachlor platinate with platinum tetra amine dichloride in the manufacture of catalyst has controlled the problem in the catalyst industry. Ammonium hexachlorplatinate exposure still occurs in the refining process.
Rosin based solder flux fume is produced when soldering. This fume is a top cause of occupational asthma.
Bakeries, flour mills and kitchens where flour dust and additives in the flour are a common cause of occupational asthma.
Cadmium was not found to cause occupational asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old painter presents with a burning pain in both feet, which has deteriorated over the last six months. He drinks 60 units of alcohol weekly and has a family history of pernicious anaemia.
On examination he has impairment of all modalities of sensation in both feet but particularly pain, temperature and absent ankle jerks.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcoholic peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:Because of the patient’s history of excessive alcohol consumption, there is a strong suspicion of alcoholic peripheral neuropathy. In the UK, alcohol abuse and diabetes are the most common causes of peripheral neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows:
Temp: 38.5
BP: 125/75mmHg
Pulse: 100/min
On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL,
White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L,
Platelets 380 × 109/L,
Sodium 145 mmol/L,
Potassium 4.8 mmol/L,
Creatinine 89 μmol/L,
Rheumatoid factor: Negative,
Antinuclear antibody: Negative,
Anti-dsDNA: Negative,
ASO titre: Not detected.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal
Explanation:Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step.
There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity.
Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.
Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:
Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2.
Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 12 year old girl is taken to the clinic for a review. Despite being normally fit and well and not visiting a doctor for the past four years, her father is concerned about her behaviour in the past week. The girl has expressed plans to run for president, is active with planning all through the night and seems overtly excited. When asked, she admits to smoking cannabis once a few months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year. The last time she had alcohol was a week ago. Prior to her deterioration a few weeks ago her father describes her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable girl. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:Mania is a state of extreme physical and emotional elation. A person experiencing mania or a manic episode may present with the following symptoms:
-Elevated mood. The person feels extremely ‘high’, happy and full of energy; he or she may describe the experience as feeling on top of the world and invincible. The person may shift rapidly from an elevated,
happy mood to being angry and irritable if they perceive they have been obstructed.
-Increased energy and overactivity. The person may have great difficulty remaining still.
-Reduced need for sleep or food. The person may be too active to eat or sleep.
-Irritability. The person may become angry and irritated with those who disagree with or dismiss his or her sometimes unrealistic plans or ideas.
-Rapid thinking and speech. The person’s thoughts and speech are more rapid than usual.
-Grandiose plans and beliefs. It is quite common for a person in a hypomanic or manic state to believe that he or she is unusually talented or gifted or has special friends in power. For example, the person may believe that he or she is on a special mission from God.
-Lack of insight. A person in a hypomanic or manic state may understand that other people see his or her ideas and actions as inappropriate, reckless or irrational. However, he or she is unlikely to personally accept that the behaviour is inappropriate, due to a lack of insight.
– Distractibility. The person has difficulty maintaining attention and may not be able to filter out external stimuli.Careful assessment to rule out organic conditions is an important first step in the management of mania. Often hospitalisation is required for someone who is experiencing acute mania. Both mood-stabilising agents such as lithium carbonate or sodium valproate and an antipsychotic may be needed to treat psychotic symptoms, agitation, thought disorder and sleeping difficulties. Benzodiazepines may be useful to reduce hyperactivity. Treatment with lithium alone may have a relatively slow response rate (up to two weeks after a therapeutic blood level is established), so that adjunctive medication such as sodium valproate is usually required. Regular monitoring of blood levels for lithium and valproate is essential because of the potential for toxicity.
The symptoms of hypomania are similar to those of mania: elevated mood, inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, etc. except that they don’t significantly impact a person’s daily function and never include any psychotic symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion
Explanation:Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.
Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre.
Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.Management of alcoholism:
Nutritional support:
– Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.
Pharmacological management:
– Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
– Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
– Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic complaining of muscle pain. He describes severe bilateral cramping calf pain on minimal exercise. This has been present since his late teens and as such he has avoided exercise. Recently, he has attended the local gym to try and lose weight, but attempts at exercise have been dampened by the pain. He does note that if he perseveres with exercise, the pain settles. He has noticed passing dark urine in the evenings following a prolonged bout of exercise. Which of the following clinical tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:The differential diagnosis of bilateral exercise-induced pain would include metabolic muscle disease, lumbar canal stenosis and intermittent claudication. The patient’s age, history and lack of other risk factors make the latter two options unlikely.
The syndrome described is in fact McArdle’s disease (myophosphorylase deficiency). This is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. Clinical features of pain and fatigue are precipitated in early exercise, as carbohydrates cannot be mobilized to provide an energy substrate to the muscle. With prolonged exercise, fatty acid metabolism provides energy, and symptoms lessen. The dark urine described is likely to represent myoglobinuria following rhabdomyolysis. Definitive diagnosis of most metabolic muscle diseases relies on muscle biopsy and enzyme analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is most likely to be associated with the intake of this class of antidepressants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Blurring of vision and dry mouth are antimuscarinic side-effects that are more common with imipramine than other types of tricyclic antidepressants.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used less commonly now for depression due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose. They are however used widely in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required.
Mechanism of action: Tricyclic antidepressants impose their therapeutic effects by inhibiting presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system (this, may give rise to seizures).
Common side-effects:
Drowsiness
Dry mouth
Blurred vision
Constipation
Urinary retentionLow-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headaches (both tension and migraine).
Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following physical findings is least typical on a patient with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased tone
Explanation:Attacks or exacerbations of multiple sclerosis (MS) are characterized by symptoms that reflect central nervous system (CNS) involvement, hence upper motor neuron symptoms are seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68 year old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On examination, there is evidence of cor pulmonale with a significant degree of pedal oedema. His FEV1 is 44%. During a recent hospital stay his pO2 on room air was 7.4 kPa.
Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation:Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
– very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
– cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
– polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema (swelling)
– a raised jugular venous pressure
– oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30–49% predicted).
Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
– secondary polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema
– pulmonary hypertension. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility
Explanation:The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which is the most severe form among the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
class I: normal kidney
class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritisClass IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands.
On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves.
What is the underlying pathological process?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration
Explanation:This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with worsening dyspnoea, fever and cough. He works at a foundry. Vitals are as follows:
Respiratory rate: 28/min
Heart rate: 80 bpm
Temp: 37.6C
Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crepitations throughout the lung fields.
Calcified hilar nodules are visible on the chest X-ray. Further evaluation shows an eggshell calcification on HRCT.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Silicosis
Explanation:Silicosis is a common occupational lung disease that is caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust. Silica is the most abundant mineral on earth. Workers that are involved for example in construction, mining, or glass production are among the individuals with the highest risk of developing the condition. Acute silicosis causes severe symptoms (e.g., exertional dyspnoea, cough with sputum) and has a very poor prognosis.
Chronic silicosis has a very variable prognosis and affected individuals may remain asymptomatic for several decades. However, radiographic signs are usually seen early on. Typical radiographic findings are calcifications of perihilar lymph nodes, diffuse ground glass opacities, large numbers of rounded, solitary nodules or bigger, confluent opacities. Avoiding further exposure to silica is crucial, especially since the only treatment available is symptomatic (e.g., bronchodilators). Silicosis is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis and lung cancer. Berylliosis typically affects individuals who are exposed to aerospace industry. Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis do not form eggshell calcifications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) asks how likely it is that any future children will have the disease. What is the most accurate answer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Because Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) is an autosomal dominant condition; therefore, there is a 50% chance that the children of this patient will be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows:
Temp: 38.8
BP: 90/60 mmHg
Pulse: 110/min.
Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently
Explanation:Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.
Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.
Management:
Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman has had progressive reduction of visual acuity over the past 3 years. She has now almost lost all of her vision. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa
Explanation:Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder of the eyes that causes loss of vision. Symptoms include trouble seeing at night and decreased peripheral vision. Onset of symptoms is generally gradual.
– In keratitis, there will be pain, redness and photophobia but vision is not affected
– In macular degeneration, near blindness does not occur rather the inability to identify faces or read small print
– Cataracts are more common in elderly
– It is not angle closure glaucoma as angle closure glaucoma occurs usually after the age of 50; In open angle glaucoma visual loss is not gradual but rather occurs suddenly following progression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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