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  • Question 1 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
    He underwent pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
      He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone.
      On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects.
      From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg.
      Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A post-operative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Troponin T

      Explanation:

      The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age.
      On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
      The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone (ADH), regulates the tonicity of body fluids. It is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.. An incidental consequence of this renal reabsorption of water is concentrated urine and reduced urine volume. In high concentrations may also raise blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 6 - A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatinine

      Explanation:

      People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he claims that his ears are too big in proportion to his face and he seldom leaves the house because of this. His records show that he was treated for anxiety and depression with fluoxetine previously and has been off work with back pain for the past 4 months. On examination, his ears appear to be normal.
      What is the most appropriate term of this behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphophobia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in the given scenario would be body dysmorphic disorder or dysmorphophobia

      It is a mental disorder where patients have a significantly distorted body image.

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV criteria:
      Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. If a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is markedly excessive.
      The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
      The preoccupation is not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g., dissatisfaction with body shape and size in Anorexia Nervosa).

      Treatment:
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the most commonly used and most empirically supported intervention to improve body image.
      Several drugs have been targets of study in anorexia nervosa treatment, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, antidepressants, antipsychotics, nutritional supplementation, and hormonal medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed at endoscopy. He has suffered from bouts of abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea although his weight is stable.

      Some of his investigations results are:
      Basal acid secretion 20 mEq/h (1–5),
      Fasting gastrin 200 pg/ml (<100),

      Secretin test:
      Basal gastrin 200pg/ml,
      Post-secretin 500pg/ml.

      Which of the following are responsible for the elevated gastrin levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrinoma

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. The secretin test is a test that can differentiate gastrinoma from other causes of high gastrin levels. Gastrin will rise after secretin injection if the patient has a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - Choose the correct statement regarding standard polymerase chain reaction: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding standard polymerase chain reaction:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A thermostable DNA polymerase is required

      Explanation:

      In the PCR, DNA amplification is performed by thermostable enzymes; invariably either family A DNA polymerases from thermophilic and hyperthermophilic Bacteria or family B DNA polymerases from hyperthermophilic Archaea. Family Y DNA polymerase from the hyperthermophilic archaeon Sulfolobus solfataricus, Sso-polY, is also an enzyme marketed for PCR, but with specialist applications. Each thermostable DNA polymerases has different characteristics and to achieve optimal results, the choice of a PCR enzyme depends on the application itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 10 - A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum.
       
      Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative.
       
      What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No change in medication

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
      Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 11 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets.

      On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices.
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

      People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

      A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 13 - A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the past 5 years was recently admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. She is currently being managed on Sertraline. In clinic she was observed to be sitting in a fixed position for several hours, awake but unable to move. What would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECT

      Explanation:

      Catatonia is a state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake. Catatonia can be acute and occur in severely ill patients with underlying psychiatric or other medical disorders.

      A history of behavioural responses to others usually includes the presence of the following:
      – Mutism (absence of speech)
      – Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
      – Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
      – Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
      – Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
      – Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment).

      In the presence of a catatonic state, both first and second generation antipsychotics (SGA) may contribute to maintaining or worsening the catatonic state and increase the risk of developing NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome).

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is effective in all forms of catatonia, even after pharmacotherapy with benzodiazepines has failed. Response rate ranges from 80% to 100% and results superior to those of any other therapy in psychiatry. ECT should be considered first-line treatment in patients with malignant catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, delirious mania or severe catatonic excitement, and in general in all catatonic patients that are refractory or partially responsive to benzodiazepines. Early intervention with ECT is encouraged to avoid undue deterioration of the patient’s medical condition.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure, done under general anaesthesia, in which small electric currents are passed through the brain, intentionally triggering a brief seizure. ECT seems to cause changes in brain chemistry that can quickly reverse symptoms of certain mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. He has developed tense ascites again and a plan is made to site an ascitic drain. His renal function after 2 days is as follows:


      Na+ 131 mmol/L,
      K+ 3.8 mmol/L,
      Urea 12.2 mmol/L,
      Creatinine 205 µmol/L,

      Which of the following pathophysiological changes is most likely to be responsible for the declining renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splanchnic vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Hepatorenal syndrome is renal vasoconstriction that cannot overcome the effects of splanchnic vasodilation. Vasoactive mediators cause this splanchnic vasodilation, reducing SVR, which is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, activating the RAAS system, leading to renal vasoconstriction. However, the overall splanchnic vasodilation effect is greater than this renal vasoconstriction effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Pregnant patient in a third world country with hepatitis: The answer is most likely Hepatitis E. The mortality for Hepatitis E in pregnant women is very high. It is transmitted faecal-orally. There is no hepatitis G. Hepatitis C, B, A are less likely to be the correct answer than E given it’s classic association with pregnancy and poor living conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old retired police officer presents to the neurology clinic with double vision and unsteadiness whilst walking. He has a past medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes. On examination, you notice a right partial ptosis and miosis. The patient also has notable right facial loss of pain and temperature sensation with left sided truncal sensory loss contralateral to the face. In the clinic, apraclonidine eye drops are added to the affected eye, which causes a dilatation, whilst in the opposite eye, a pupil constriction occurs. After the eye drops have been eliminated from the body, 1% hydroxyamphetamine eye drops are then instilled. One hour after instillation, both pupils dilate.

      Which order of neurons is most likely affected in the sympathetic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First order

      Explanation:

      Apraclonidine eye drops are initially used to confirm a Horner’s pupil. Apraclonidine stimulates both alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. When added to the affected eye, it causes pupil dilation by >2mm because of the relative super sensitivity of this pupil to alpha-1 receptor activity. In a normal pupil, however, it causes constriction due to the more potent activity at the alpha-2 receptor which triggers re-uptake of noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft.

      Hydroxy amphetamine is then used to distinguish between first/second or third order neurones. In other words, it will distinguish either a lesion in the brainstem, cervical cord, chest or neck and one affecting above the superior cervical ganglion at the carotid bifurcation. In a normal pupil or a first/second order Horner’s, the pupil will dilate secondary to increased levels of noradrenaline released from the post-synaptic neurones. In a third order neurone, this will not occur. There is no fourth or fifth order neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old gentleman presents with a 2 year history of involuntary neck movements. There is no history of trauma. He is on no drugs. There is no relevant family history.
      On examination he has an episodic right torticollis. The rest of his neurological examination is normal. MRI of his cervical spine is normal. The neurologist in the Movement Disorders Clinic has diagnosed cervical dystonia.
      Which of the following treatments will be most beneficial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin

      Explanation:

      Botulinum toxin is a neurotoxic protein from Clostridium botulinum that causes flaccid paralysis as it acts by preventing the release of Ach at the neuromuscular joint. It is the first-line treatment for cervical dystonia (torticollis) because the condition is a neurological disorder characterised by unusual muscle contractions of the neck. With the use of Botulinum toxin, the contractions would be released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Infective causes of hair loss include:
      Dissecting cellulitis
      Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      Folliculitis
      Secondary syphilis
      Demodex folliculorum
      Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).
      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.
       
      What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years.
      On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord.
      Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema.
      A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests.
      Some of these results are shown:
      Na 144 mmol/L,
      K 2.2 mmol/L,
      Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L,
      Glucose 16 mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 53-year-old cashier with a history of chronic back pain presents for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old cashier with a history of chronic back pain presents for a check-up. He is aware of a dragging feeling affecting his left foot when he tries to walk. This has developed since a minor injury to his left knee. On examination, he has weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the left foot. The right is unaffected and plantar flexion and inversion are normal on the left. MRI of the spinal cord shows degenerative disc changes at multiple levels, but no evidence of cord or nerve root impingement. Nerve conduction studies and EMG results are pending. Which of the following sensory loss patterns would you expect to find in association with this motor defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg

      Explanation:

      This patient presentation is unlikely to be an L5 nerve root lesion given the results of the MRI scan. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a mononeuritis affecting the left common peroneal nerve. This would lead to sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg on the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis.

      What is the most likely primary tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not been himself' and has been feeling 'out of sorts' for the past 3 weeks. There is no history of past mental health problems. Which of the following symptoms is highly suggestive of depression in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early morning waking

      Explanation:

      Early morning waking is a highly suggestive feature of depression in this patient.

      NICE use the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression:
      1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
      2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
      3. Significant weight loss or weight gain when not dieting or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
      4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
      5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
      6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
      7. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
      8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day
      9. Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

      Subthreshold depressive symptoms: Fewer than 5 symptoms
      Mild depression: Few, if any, symptoms over the 5 required to make the diagnosis, and symptoms result in only minor functional impairment
      Moderate depression: Symptoms or functional impairment are between ‘mild’ and ‘severe’
      Severe depression: Most symptoms and the symptoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms.

      Treatment of depression:
      Psychotherapy (in the form of cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy) alone or in combination with medications such as:
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
      – Atypical antidepressants
      – Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (SDAMs)
      – Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

      There is also empirical support for the ability of CBT to prevent relapse.

      Electroconvulsive therapy is a useful treatment option for patients with severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindications is raised intracranial pressure.

      Side-effects:
      Headache
      Nausea
      Short term memory impairment
      Memory loss of events before ECT
      Cardiac arrhythmia
      Long-term side-effects: Impaired memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level.

      His recent blood results show:
      Hb: 13.8 g/dL,
      Plts: 127 x 10^9/L,
      ESR: 45 mm/hr,
      IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL).

      Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10–15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night.

      Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen

      Explanation:

      As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at...

    Incorrect

    • A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      DIAGNOSIS:
      A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
      A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
      A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
      Bounding pulses
      Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
      Hepatomegaly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity.
      Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:
      • Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis
      • Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).
      • Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.
      • Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy
      • GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication
      • Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.
      • Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.
      • Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemia
      Management of these patients should be done in the following manner:
      • Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
      • Supportive therapy
      • GI decontamination
      • Urinary excretion and alkalization
      • Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands.
      On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves.
      What is the underlying pathological process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axonal degeneration

      Explanation:

      This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade lymphoma. He is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS).

      What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Converts uric acid to allantoin

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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