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  • Question 1 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer: Weakness of forearm supination

      Correct Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What kind of function loss do you anticipate in a 22-year-old guy who...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of function loss do you anticipate in a 22-year-old guy who had a laceration to his arm, resulting in nerve damage in the antecubital fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opposition of thumb

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of median nerve injury include tingling or numbness in the forearm, thumb, and three adjacent fingers, as well as gripping weakness and the inability to move the thumb across the palm.

      Because the thenar muscles and the flexor pollicis longus are paralyzed, flexion, abduction, and opposition of the thumb at the MCPJ and IPJ are gone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35 year old man presents with a deep laceration to the proximal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man presents with a deep laceration to the proximal part of the forearm. On further assessment, the patient is unable to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and interphalangeal joints of the index, middle finger and the thumb.

      The ring and little fingers are intact but there is weakness at the proximal interphalangeal joint.

      There is also loss of sensation over the lateral palm and the palmar surface of the lateral three and a half fingers.

      Which of these nerve(s) has most likely been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      A median nerve injury affecting the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the hand will present with:

      Loss of sensation to the lateral palm and the lateral three and a half fingers.

      Weakness of flexion at the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle finger. This is because of paralysis of the lateral two lumbricals.

      Weakness of flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of all four fingers due to paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis

      Weakness of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle finger following paralysis of the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
      Weakness of thumb flexion, abduction and opposition due to paralysis of the flexor pollicis longus and thenar muscles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency department. You notice weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination during your assessment. Which of these nerves has been affected:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve is relatively protected in the axilla, hence injury to it is uncommon. A stab wound in the axilla is the most prevalent source of damage. Because of the activities of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis, and the supinator muscles, arm flexion and forearm flexion and supination are diminished but not completely lost. Over the lateral part of the forearm, there is a lack of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29 year old man presents to ED followed an alleged assault whilst...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old man presents to ED followed an alleged assault whilst out drinking. He received blunt trauma to his right axilla. He is complaining of difficulty abducting his right arm above the level of his shoulder, and on inspection, the inferior angle of his right scapula protrudes more than that of his left scapula. Which of the following nerves has most likely been affected:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      Damage to the long thoracic nerve results in weakness/paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle causing difficulty abducting the upper limb above 90 degrees and giving a ‘winged ‘ scapula appearance where the medial border, particularly the inferior angle, of the scapula moves laterally and posteriorly away from the thoracic wall (this becomes more pronounced if the patient presses the upper limb against a wall).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to her right hand whilst playing cricket. She is unable to fully straighten her right middle finger as the distal phalanx remains flexed. A picture of her hand is shown below. Which of the following structures within the digit was most likely injured:





      By Howcheng (Own work) [CC BY-SA 3.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0), via Wikimedia Commons

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of terminal extensor digitorum tendon

      Explanation:

      Damage to the insertion of the terminal extensor digitorum tendon would result in loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal joint causing a fixed flexion deformity, called the Mallet deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30 year old man stabbed in the upper arm presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man stabbed in the upper arm presents to the Emergency Department and you perform a vascular examination.

      The brachial pulse can be best palpated at ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the antecubital fossa, medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery can be palpated in the antecubital fossa, medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the hand. On examination Tinel's test is positive and you diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Regarding the carpal tunnel, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus lie within a single synovial sheath.

      Explanation:

      Free movement of the tendons in the carpal tunnel is facilitated by synovial sheaths, which surround the tendons. All of the tendons of the FDP and FDS are contained within a single synovial sheath with a separate sheath enclosing the tendon of the FPL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient sustains an injury to the proximal median nerve after falling through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustains an injury to the proximal median nerve after falling through a glass door. Which of the following muscles would you not expect to be affected:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles in the anterior forearm are innervated by the median nerve, except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus which are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

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