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  • Question 1 - Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Vagal stimulation

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Gastrin secretion is stimulated by:
      The presence of small peptides and amino acids in chyme
      Gastric distension
      Vagal stimulation directly via acetylcholine and indirectly via gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)
      Raised gastric pH

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It lies on the medial side of abductor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a short and slender muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm, extending from the posterior surface of radius to the proximal phalanx of thumb. It is one of the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis muscles.

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a deep extensor of the thumb that lies deep to extensor digitorum muscle. It sits directly medial to abductor pollicis longus and posterolateral to extensor pollicis longus muscle. Just above the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis obliquely crosses the tendons of extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles.

      Extensor pollicis brevis is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).

      Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply by posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches from the anterior interosseous artery, which are the branches of common interosseous artery. The common interosseous artery arises immediately below the tuberosity of radius from the ulnar artery.

      Together with extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis is in charge of extension of the thumb in the first metacarpophalangeal joint. It also extends the thumb in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. This movement is important in the anatomy of the grip, as it enables letting go of an object. As it crosses the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis also participates in the extension and abduction of this joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that has been going on for 3 days.

      Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be a cause of infectious bloody diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Explanation:

      The following are organisms that are capable of producing acute, bloody diarrhoea:
      – Campylobacter jejuni
      – Escherichia coli O157:H7
      – Salmonella species
      – Shigella species
      – Yersinia species
      – Entamoeba histolytica

      Other E. coli strains, Giardia, Vibrio, and other parasites are associated with watery, but not bloody, diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body.

      In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of gastrin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of gastrin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of insulin release

      Explanation:

      Gastrin acts to:
      Stimulate acid secretion from parietal cells (both directly and indirectly by stimulating release of histamine from ECL cells)
      Stimulate pepsinogen secretion from chief cells
      Increase gastric motility
      Stimulate growth of gastric mucosa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A known epileptic is transported in status epilepticus by ambulance. On the way...

    Incorrect

    • A known epileptic is transported in status epilepticus by ambulance. On the way to the hospital, she took some diazepam.

      Which of the following statements about diazepam is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It crosses into breast milk

      Explanation:

      Diazepam boosts GABA’s effects, giving it sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle-relaxing properties. It can be administered orally, rectally, or intravenously.

      With a half-life of 20-100 hours, it is a long-acting benzodiazepine. Midazolam, oxazepam, and alprazolam are examples of short-acting benzodiazepines with a half-life of less than 12 hours (Xanax).

      If used in the presence of hepatic impairment, benzodiazepines can cause coma. If treatment is necessary, benzodiazepines with shorter half-lives should be used in lower doses. Diazepam is a sedative that crosses into breast milk and should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following has the most potent glucocorticoid effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the most potent glucocorticoid effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Dexamethasone and betamethasone have the most potent glucocorticoid (anti-inflammatory) effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 8 - The pathophysiology of Addison's disease is as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pathophysiology of Addison's disease is as follows:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, occurs when the adrenal glands cannot produce an adequate amount of hormones despite a normal or increased corticotropin (ACTH) level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today she is complaining of epigastric pain. She has blood tests done especially to review her cholecystokinin levels.

      Which of the following is a cholecystokinin (CCK) releasing site? 

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: I-cells in the upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      The I-cells in the duodenum generate and release cholecystokinin (CCK), a peptide hormone. It has a crucial role in the digestion process as a hormonal regulator.

      CCK cells are concentrated in the proximal small intestine, and when food is consumed, the hormone is produced into the bloodstream. The presence of partly digested lipids and proteins in the duodenum is one of the most powerful stimulus for CCK synthesis.

      CCK’s key physiological effects include:

      Encourages the pancreas to release digesting enzymes into the small intestine.
      Stimulates gallbladder contraction and sphincter of Oddi relaxation, resulting in bile delivery into the duodenum.
      Gastric emptying is inhibited, and gastric acid output is reduced.
      Satiety induction is a process that involves inducing a feeling of fullness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.
      Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sternothyroid

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
      Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
      Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
      Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
      Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
      Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerve

      The posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
      Contents:
      Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
      Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 79-year-old male had a humeral shaft fracture during a road traffic accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male had a humeral shaft fracture during a road traffic accident and is being followed up in a fracture clinic. He complains of inability to use the limb 6 months after the injury. X-rays of that arm shows non union of his fracture.

      All the following are responsible for this non-union EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      An imbalance between bone resorption and formation is Osteoporosis. In normal bone, formation and resorption are roughly equal, and the density of bone matrix remains constant but there is more resorption in osteoporosis and the matrix density reduces and bones become weaker. Fractures are more likely to occur but healing is unaffected.

      Non-union of a fracture occurs when the two sides of a fracture fail to unite after 6 months. Causes include: infection, movement at the fracture site, avascular necrosis, tissue interposed between the fracture and gross misalignment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Forceful expiration is primarily produced by the deeper thoracic muscles (internal and innermost intercostal muscles, subcostals and transversus thoracis) aided by contraction of the abdominal wall muscles which increase intra-abdominal pressure thus further reducing the volume of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
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  • Question 14 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding nominal variables, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding nominal variables, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The central tendency of a nominal variable is given by its median

      Explanation:

      A nominal variable is a type of variable that is used to name, label or categorize particular attributes that are being measured. It takes qualitative values representing different categories, and there is no intrinsic ordering of these categories.
      A nominal variable is one of the 2 types of categorical variables and is the simplest among all the measurement variables. Some examples of nominal variables include gender, name, phone, etc.

      A nominal variable is qualitative, which means numbers are used here only to categorize or identify objects. They can also take quantitative values. However, these quantitative values do not have numeric properties. That is, arithmetic operations cannot be performed on them. If the variable is nominal, the mode is the only measure of central tendency to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
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  • Question 15 - What is the main mechanism of action of dobutamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of dobutamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta1-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine directly stimulates the beta1-adrenergic receptors in the heart and increases contractility and cardiac output with little effect on the rate. In addition action on beta2-receptors causes vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:...

    Incorrect

    • For an action potential to occur, which of the following must be true:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depolarisation of the membrane must reach threshold potential

      Explanation:

      For an action potential to occur, the membrane must become more permeable to Na+and the Na+influx must be greater than the K+efflux. An action potential occurs when depolarisation of the membrane reaches threshold potential. The membrane must be out of the absolute refractory period, however an action potential can still occur in a relative refractory period but only in response to a larger than normal stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a function of bile: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a function of bile:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digestion of fats into monoglycerides and fatty acids.

      Explanation:

      Bile functions to eliminate endogenous and exogenous substances from the liver (including bilirubin), to neutralise gastric acid in the small intestine, and to emulsify fats in the small intestine and facilitate their digestion and absorption. Bile salts also act as bactericides, destroying many of the microbes that may be present in the food. Bile doesn’t contain digestive enzymes for digestion of lipids into monoglycerides and fatty acids; this is performed mainly by pancreatic lipase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A thyroid function test is done for a 55-year-old woman with non-specific symptoms, the results are shown below:
      TSH = 5.2
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      The most likely diagnosis in this patient is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed using the results of thyroid function tests (TFTs).

      In the early stages of the disease, the earliest biochemical change noticed is a rise in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. Free triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are usually normal.

      In primary hypothyroidism, the serum TSH level is usually greater than 10 mU/L, and free T4 levels are below the reference range.

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when the serum TSH level is above the reference range, and the free T4 levels are within the reference range. The test should, however, be repeated after 3-6 months to exclude transient causes of raised TSH.

      In summary, how to interpret TFTs in cases of suspected hypothyroidism is shown below:

      Subclinical hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is normal
      Free T3 is normal

      Primary hypothyroidism
      TSH is raised
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

      Secondary hypothyroidism
      TSH is lowered or normal
      Free T4 is lowered
      Free T3 is lowered or normal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 19 - You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. She suffers from COPD and is currently prescribed salbutamol and Seretide inhalers, and Phyllocontin continus. Since starting the antibiotics, she has been experiencing nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Which of the following antibiotics is she MOST LIKELY to have been prescribed for her UTI? Select ONE answer only .

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continus contains aminophylline (a mixture of theophylline and ethylenediamine), a bronchodilator used in the management of COPD and asthma.
      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the prescription of the antibiotic. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, and macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, increase the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.
      The drugs that commonly affect the half-life and the plasma concentration of theophylline are summarised in the table below:
      Drugs increasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Drugs decreasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Calcium channel blockers, e.g. Verapamil
      Cimetidine
      Fluconazole
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbitol
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal ectopic pregnancies occur most commonly in which part of the uterine tube:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the ampulla (70% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 21 - Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are: ...

    Incorrect

    • Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multinucleated cells formed from fusion of epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      A granuloma is a collection of five or more epithelioid macrophages, with or without attendant lymphocytes and fibroblasts; epithelioid macrophages are altered macrophages which have turned themselves over to becoming giant phagocytosing and killing machines, they often fuse to become multinucleate (Langhans) giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
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  • Question 22 - Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites: ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of infective encephalitis and has a predilection for the temporal lobes. Herpes simplex is transmitted through direct contact. It invades skin locally producing skin vesicles by its cytolytic activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
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  • Question 23 - At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, all...

    Incorrect

    • At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The semilunar valves are open.

      Explanation:

      At the start of the cardiac cycle, towards the end of diastole, the whole of the heart is relaxed. The atrioventricular (AV) valves are open because the atrial pressure is still slightly greater than the ventricular pressure. The semilunar valves are closed, as the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta is greater than the ventricular pressures. The cycle starts when the sinoatrial node (SAN) initiates atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 24 - The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It...

    Incorrect

    • The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of lymphocyte clonal proliferation.

      Which of the following statements about CLL is NOT correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is most commonly discovered as an incidental finding

      Explanation:

      CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukaemia) is the most common type of chronic lymphoid leukaemia, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60 and 80. It is the most common type of leukaemia in Europe and the United States, but it is less common elsewhere.

      The CLL tumour cell is a mature B-cell with low immunoglobulin surface expression (IgM or IgD). The average age at diagnosis is 72 years, with only 15% of cases occurring before the age of 50.

      The male-to-female ratio is about 2:1. Over 80% of cases are identified by the results of a routine blood test, which is usually performed for another reason.

      Lymphocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and normochromic normocytic anaemia are common laboratory findings. Aspiration of bone marrow reveals up to 95% lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow elements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 25 - Campylobacter jejuni is primarily spread via which of the following routes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Campylobacter jejuni is primarily spread via which of the following routes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal-oral route

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter spp. are a common cause of acute infective gastroenteritis, particularly in children, with Campylobacter jejuni responsible for 90% of Campylobacter gastroenteritis. Infection typically follows ingestion of contaminated meat (most frequently undercooked poultry), unpasteurised milk or contaminated water, following which the microorganism invades and colonises the mucosa of the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
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  • Question 26 - A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular nerve was previously referred to as the anterior tibial nerve.

      It starts at the common fibular nerve bifurcation, between the fibula and the proximal part of the fibularis longus. Damage to this nerve can cause foot drop or loss of dorsiflexion since this nerve controls the anterior leg muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 27 - Regarding Campylobacter gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Campylobacter gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection usually requires antibiotic treatment.

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter jejuni is the primary human pathogen, typically causing dysentery (bloody diarrhoea illness) following ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. Infection is typically self-limiting and does not require antibiotic therapy. Campylobacter gastroenteritis is associated with the immune-mediated complications of Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis and Reiter’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
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  • Question 28 - The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a clonal disorder of a pluripotent stem cell. The disease accounts for around 15% of leukaemias and may occur at any age. The diagnosis of CML is rarely difficult and is assisted by the characteristic presence of the Philadelphia (ph) chromosome. This disease occurs in either sex, most frequently between the ages of 40 and 60 years. In up to 50% of cases the diagnosis is made incidentally from a routine blood count. Leucocytosis is the main feature, with a complete spectrum of myeloid cells seen in the peripheral blood. The levels of neutrophils and myelocytes exceed those of blast cells and promyelocytes.Increased circulating basophils are a characteristic feature. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is usual. Platelet count may be increased (most frequently), normal or decreased. The clinical outlook is very good and 90% of patients can expect long-term control of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. The attending physician is considering appendicitis. Inside the operating room, the surgeon asks the medical student to locate the McBurney's point prior to the first incision.

      Which of the following is the surface anatomy of the McBurney's point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the appendix is a significant public health problem with a lifetime incidence of 8.6% in men and 6.7% in women, with the highest incidence occurring in the second and third decade of life. While the rate of appendectomy in developed countries has decreased over the last several decades, it remains one of the most frequent emergent abdominal operations. Appendicitis can often result in anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

      McBurney’s point, which is found one-third of the distance between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus, is often the point of maximal tenderness in a patient with an anatomically normal appendix. A McBurney’s incision is chiefly used for cecostomy and appendectomy. It gives a limited exposure only, and should any doubt arise about the diagnosis, an infraumbilical right paramedian incision should be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 30 - Regarding the UK routine childhood immunisation schedule which of the following vaccines is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the UK routine childhood immunisation schedule which of the following vaccines is NOT given at 12 months:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polio

      Explanation:

      At 12 months the following vaccines are given:
      Hib (4th dose) and Meningococcal group CPneumococcal (13 serotypes) (2nd dose)
      Measles, mumps and rubella
      Meningococcal group B (3rd dose)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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