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  • Question 1 - What falls under the category of class C according to the Misuse of...

    Incorrect

    • What falls under the category of class C according to the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is cognitive distortion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is cognitive distortion?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Correct Answer: Personalisation

      Explanation:

      Personalisation can be considered a type of cognitive distortion, while the other options are classified as defence mechanisms.

      Cognitive Therapy and Negative Automatic Thoughts

      Cognitive therapy is a present-focused approach that aims to help clients overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinking. This therapy is based on collaboration between the client and therapist and on testing beliefs through collaborative empiricism. One of the techniques used in cognitive therapy is Socratic questioning, which helps elicit false beliefs called negative automatic thoughts.

      Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, can be categorized into different types. Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white rather than shades of grey. Personalization is the incorrect assumption that things happen due to us, while overgeneralization involves coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference is drawing an unjustified conclusion, while selective abstraction involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is expecting disaster from relatively trivial events, while filtering involves selecting out only negative aspects of a situation and leaving out the positive.

      Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness is believing that life is fair, while blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules we believe (often incorrect) which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification is a tendency to exaggerate the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves an undervaluation of positive attributes, while emotional reasoning is believing what we feel must be true.

      The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us, while global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior (e.g. when you fail at something, saying ‘I’m a loser’). Always being right is when the need to be right dominates all other needs, while the heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices will pay off. Finally, magical thinking is incorrectly believing that our actions influence the outcomes.

      Overall, cognitive therapy helps individuals identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts to improve their mental health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the required frequency and duration of bedwetting behavior to meet the...

    Correct

    • What is the required frequency and duration of bedwetting behavior to meet the diagnostic threshold for enuresis?

      Your Answer: Systemic

      Explanation:

      Family Therapy Models

      Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.

      Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.

      Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.

      Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.

      Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.

      Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following conditions is not a recognized cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not a recognized cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A middle-aged patient in a psychiatric hospital is prescribed quetiapine for treatment-resistant aggressive...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient in a psychiatric hospital is prescribed quetiapine for treatment-resistant aggressive behaviour. What potential adverse effects are associated with antipsychotic use in this age group?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Elderly individuals who take antipsychotic medications have a higher likelihood of experiencing a stroke.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following exceeds the weekly alcohol limit recommended for women, which...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following exceeds the weekly alcohol limit recommended for women, which is no more than 21 units per week?

      Your Answer: 6 × large (250 ml) glasses of 12% ABV wine

      Correct Answer: 12 × 500 ml bottles of 4% ABV 'alcopop'

      Explanation:

      – ABV indicates the number of units of alcohol per litre of a liquid.
      – The total number of alcoholic units in any given amount of liquid may be calculated by multiplying the volume of liquid (ml) by the ABV and dividing by 1000.
      – A 1L bottle of 20% ABV port contains 20 units of alcohol.
      – 6 large (250 ml) glasses of 12% ABV wine contain 18 units of alcohol.
      – 12 330ml bottles of 5% ABV lager contain 20 units of alcohol.
      – 12 500 ml bottles of 4% ABV ‘alcopop’ contain 24 units of alcohol.
      – 20 standard (25 ml) measures of 40% ABV whiskey contain 20 units of alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What factor is the most reliable indicator of the success of psychodynamic psychotherapy?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is the most reliable indicator of the success of psychodynamic psychotherapy?

      Your Answer: Intelligence of the client

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic alliance

      Explanation:

      Psychological Therapy – Evidence Based Recommendations

      The Department of Health (DoH) conducted a systematic review of literature on psychological therapies and counselling, which resulted in evidence-based recommendations. The review acknowledged that there are few pure forms of therapy and provided general recommendations.

      The review found that the therapeutic alliance between the therapist and patient is the best predictor of benefit. Therapies with fewer than eight sessions are unlikely to be optimally effective for moderate to severe mental health problems. Symptomatic relief may require 16 of more sessions, and longer therapies may be necessary for lasting change in social and personality functioning.

      The patient’s age, sex, social class, of ethnic group are not significant factors in choosing therapy and should not determine access to therapies. However, interest in self-exploration and the ability to tolerate frustration in relationships may be crucial for success in interpretative therapies, such as psychoanalytic and psychodynamic therapies, compared to supportive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about Rett syndrome is accurate?

      Your Answer: It almost exclusively occurs in females

      Explanation:

      Females make up the vast majority of Rett syndrome cases.

      Rett Syndrome: A Rare Neurodevelopmental Disorder

      Rett syndrome is a neurodevelopmental disorder that is rare, affecting approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. Although it mostly affects females, there have been cases of males with the disorder. While the exact cause of the disorder is not known, it is believed to have a genetic basis, with mutations in the MECP2 gene (Xq28) being associated with the disorder. Monozygotic twins have been found to have complete concordance in cases of Rett syndrome.

      The disorder has a unique presentation, with affected children experiencing a normal period of development until 6-18 months. After this period, they begin to develop problems with language, losing previously acquired speech. Purposeful hand movements are replaced with stereotypic movements, such as hand wringing, and ataxia and psychomotor retardation may occur. Other stereotypical movements, such as finger licking of biting and tapping of slapping, may also be seen. Head circumference is normal at birth, but growth begins to decelerate between 6-12 months, resulting in microcephaly. All language skills are lost, both receptive and expressive, and social skills plateau at developmental levels between 6-12 months.

      Seizures are associated with Rett syndrome in 75% of those affected, and almost all affected children have abnormal EEG findings. Breathing problems, such as hyperventilation, apnea, and breath holding, are also seen. Children with Rett syndrome may live for well over a decade after the onset of the disorder, but after 10 years, many patients are wheelchair-bound with virtually no language ability. Additional features of the disorder include seizures, breath holding and hyperventilation, sleep difficulties, and issues with locomotion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In DBS therapy, where is the usual location for the implanted pulse generator...

    Correct

    • In DBS therapy, where is the usual location for the implanted pulse generator (IPG) to be placed?

      Your Answer: Subclavicular

      Explanation:

      The typical location for the implanted pulse generator (IPG) in DBS treatment is subcutaneously below the clavicle, which is similar to where cardiac pacemakers are placed. While IPGs are sometimes placed abdominally, it is less common. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) lines are usually located in the antecubital fossa, and external microphones for cochlear implants are implanted in the temporal bone. Cardiac pacemakers may be placed in the axilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - How can you differentiate between a nightmare and a night terror? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can you differentiate between a nightmare and a night terror?

      Your Answer: Complete amnesia following it

      Correct Answer: Occurs in REM sleep

      Explanation:

      Night Terrors: Understanding the Condition

      Night terrors, also known as pavor nocturnus of sleep terrors, are a common occurrence in children aged 3-12, with the majority of cases happening when a child is 3-4 years old. Both boys and girls are equally affected, and the condition usually resolves on its own during adolescence, although it can still occur in adults. These episodes typically last between 1 to 15 minutes and occur 1 to 3 hours after sleep has begun.

      Night terrors are different from nightmares, which occur during REM sleep. Night terrors happen during the transition from stage 3 to stage 4 sleep, and children have no memory of the event the next morning. During a night terror, a child experiences intense crying and distress while asleep, usually around 90 minutes after falling asleep. They are unresponsive to external stimuli during this time.

      Night terrors are distinct from nightmares in several ways. For example, there is no recall of the event with night terrors, while there may be partial recall with nightmares. Night terrors occur early in sleep, while nightmares occur later. Additionally, night terrors are associated with significant autonomic arousal, while nightmares have minimal arousal.

      It is important to note that the information presented here is based on the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification model developed in 1968, which is the classification used in the Royal College questions. However, in 2004, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) reclassified NREM (non-REM) sleep into three stages, the last of which is also called delta sleep of slow-wave sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but...

    Correct

    • If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but abstains on Monday due to a crucial work meeting, and then experiences a seizure during the meeting, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which tricyclic antidepressant should breastfeeding women avoid using? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which tricyclic antidepressant should breastfeeding women avoid using?

      Your Answer: Dosulepin

      Correct Answer: Doxepin

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.7
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  • Question 13 - What is the difference in the percentage of participants who reported using non-prescription...

    Incorrect

    • What is the difference in the percentage of participants who reported using non-prescription opioids at six months between the treatment group and the control group, and how much of this difference can be attributed to the use of buprenorphine?

      Your Answer: 0.45

      Correct Answer: 0.15

      Explanation:

      Absolute Rate Reduction (ARR)

      The Absolute Rate Reduction (ARR) is a measure of the difference in risk between the rates of adverse outcomes in the control and experimental groups. It is calculated by subtracting the experimental event rate (EER) from the control event rate (CER). For example, if the CER is 33% and the EER is 18%, the ARR would be 15% of 0.15. This measure is useful in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions of treatments in reducing the risk of adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      20.5
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  • Question 14 - Which antipsychotic is known to have the most significant impact on the seizure...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic is known to have the most significant impact on the seizure threshold?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the ICD-11 diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern be identified?

      Your Answer: Need for others to assume responsibility for major areas of their life

      Correct Answer: Transient, psychotic-like features

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that the question is asking for the option that is the most suggestive of a diagnosis of personality disorder with borderline pattern in the ICD-11. The correct answer is ‘transient, psychotic-like features’ as this is a qualifying element of the diagnosis. While the other options may also be present in individuals with this condition, they are not defining features.

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      40.4
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man is referred for an opinion having been persuaded to see...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is referred for an opinion having been persuaded to see his GP by his girlfriend. He explains that he struggles to concentrate at work and has been criticised for being disorganised. His girlfriend tells you that her boyfriend never seems to listen and always seems distracted. A further inquiry into his personal history reveals that he was often in trouble at school for interrupting and fidgeting and that one teacher called him the 'Red Devil'. Which of the following would be the most appropriate option based on the above description?:

      Your Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Based on the description, it appears that the individual may have adult ADHD.

      ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the approximate occurrence rate of autistic spectrum disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate occurrence rate of autistic spectrum disorder?

      Your Answer: 3%

      Correct Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the most useful tool for evaluating mild cognitive impairment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most useful tool for evaluating mild cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer: MMSE

      Correct Answer: CAMCog

      Explanation:

      Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease

      Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.

      When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.

      Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.

      Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man who recently retired and lives in a residential home reports...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man who recently retired and lives in a residential home reports seeing ghosts. He has decreased vision in both eyes and a slit lamp exam shows cataracts in both eyes. There is no evidence of any secondary gain related to his complaints. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition where mentally healthy individuals experience vivid and recurring visual hallucinations, also known as fictive visual percepts. These hallucinations are typically small in size, known as lilliputian hallucinations. CBS is commonly found in individuals who have visual impairments due to old age of damage to the eyes of optic pathways. However, not all individuals with such deficits develop CBS. In some cases, CBS may be triggered by a combination of central vision loss due to conditions like macular degeneration and peripheral vision loss from glaucoma. In this context, bilateral lenticular opacities refer to cataracts. For more information on CBS, please refer to the Royal National Institute of Blind People (RNIB).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What term replaced 'key worker' after the modernisation of the CPA process? ...

    Correct

    • What term replaced 'key worker' after the modernisation of the CPA process?

      Your Answer: Care coordinator

      Explanation:

      The Care Program Approach (CPA) was implemented in 1991 to enhance community care for individuals with severe mental illness. The CPA comprises four primary components, including assessment, a care plan, a Care Coordinator (formerly known as a Key Worker), and regular review. There are two levels of CPA, namely standard and enhanced. Standard care plans are suitable for individuals who require minimal input from a single agency and pose minimal risk to themselves of others. Enhanced care plans are designed for individuals with complex needs who require collaboration among multiple agencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      9.9
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  • Question 21 - A 21 year old gentleman with bulimia visits the clinic accompanied by his...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old gentleman with bulimia visits the clinic accompanied by his father who is extremely worried that the self-help techniques you recommended have not yielded positive results. Which of the following therapies offered by your facility would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Self-help is the initial treatment option for bulimia nervosa, with subsequent therapy involving cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) that is specifically tailored to address eating disorders (CBT-ED) on an individual basis.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Opiate withdrawal typically results in diarrhea instead of constipation.

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.

      NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.

      The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.

      In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The percentage of victims of the most severe sexual offenses in the previous...

    Correct

    • The percentage of victims of the most severe sexual offenses in the previous year who were acquainted with the perpetrator, as per data from England and Wales, is what?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings

      According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.

      In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.

      The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - NICE recommends a certain treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder. ...

    Correct

    • NICE recommends a certain treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder.

      Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing

      Explanation:

      EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD

      EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.7
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  • Question 26 - You are part of a team creating a community program for adolescents with...

    Correct

    • You are part of a team creating a community program for adolescents with Conduct Disorder, aimed at reducing their likelihood of re-offending. The program will offer both individual and group-based psychological interventions.
      Which psychological treatment would be most suitable to provide?

      Your Answer: Mentalisation based therapy

      Explanation:

      Mentalisation based therapy (MBT) has shown effectiveness in treating patients with Personality Disorders by helping them understand their own and others’ actions based on intentional mental states such as desires, feelings, and beliefs. While psychoanalytically oriented, it is fully manualised and may be a helpful underlying theory for the service. However, individual psychoanalytic therapy may not be the first line of treatment due to its long delivery time and patient tolerance issues. Individual behavioural therapy and accredited group programmes are easier to run but may not address the complexities of this client group. Other evidence-based psychological treatments for personality disorders include CBT, DBT, schema therapy, CAT, transference-focused psychotherapy, and therapeutic communities (non-forensic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for...

    Correct

    • Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for seizures?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Individuals with epilepsy are at a low risk when taking sertraline.

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - What is the appropriate significance test to use when analyzing the data of...

    Correct

    • What is the appropriate significance test to use when analyzing the data of patients' serum cholesterol levels before and after receiving a new lipid-lowering therapy?

      Your Answer: Paired t-test

      Explanation:

      Since the serum cholesterol level is continuous data and assumed to be normally distributed, and the data is paired from the same individuals, the most suitable statistical test is the paired t-test.

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?

      Your Answer: It collects combined data from all countries in the world

      Correct Answer: It includes information on severity

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that England is not involved in the WMH Survey Initiative, which may limit the generalizability of the study’s findings to our own communities.

      World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries

      The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.

      As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A team of scientists conduct a case control study to investigate the association...

    Incorrect

    • A team of scientists conduct a case control study to investigate the association between birth complications and attempted suicide in individuals aged 18-35 years. They enroll 296 cases of attempted suicide and recruit an equal number of controls who are matched for age, gender, and geographical location. Upon analyzing the birth history, they discover that 67 cases of attempted suicide and 61 controls had experienced birth difficulties. What is the unadjusted odds ratio for attempted suicide in individuals with a history of birth complications?

      Your Answer: 0.33

      Correct Answer: 1.13

      Explanation:

      Odds Ratio Calculation for Birth Difficulties in Case and Control Groups

      The odds ratio is a statistical measure that compares the likelihood of an event occurring in one group to that of another group. In this case, we are interested in the odds of birth difficulties in a case group compared to a control group.

      To calculate the odds ratio, we need to determine the number of individuals in each group who had birth difficulties and those who did not. In the case group, 67 individuals had birth difficulties, while 229 did not. In the control group, 61 individuals had birth difficulties, while 235 did not.

      Using these numbers, we can calculate the odds ratio as follows:

      Odds ratio = (67/229) / (61/235) = 1.13

      This means that the odds of birth difficulties are 1.13 times higher in the case group compared to the control group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      45.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Substance Misuse/Addictions (2/4) 50%
Psychotherapy (2/4) 50%
Old Age Psychiatry (1/4) 25%
Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (2/3) 67%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
General Adult Psychiatry (5/8) 63%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/3) 33%
Forensic Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed