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Question 1
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A patient is unable to move the mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?
Your Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle
Explanation:Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:
Your Answer: Loss of satiety
Explanation:The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found to be HIV positive with a CD4 cell count <50/μL. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Based on the history and findings, the most likely causative organism is cryptosporidium. It can cause severe, chronic, and possibly fatal diarrhoea in immunocompromised patients.
In patients with HIV/AIDS, clinical manifestations of cryptosporidiosis vary with the degree of immune compromise. Those with CD4 cell counts above 180–200/μL may be asymptomatic or develop self-limiting diarrhoeal illness. However, patients with advanced AIDS (CD4 cell counts <50/μL) can have severe diarrhoea that can persist for several months, resulting in severe dehydration, weight loss and malnutrition, extended hospitalizations, and mortality. In addition, patients with advanced AIDS are at greater risk of developing extraintestinal infection, particularly of the biliary, pancreatic, and respiratory tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 4
Correct
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A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?
Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 5
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In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: Splenorenal ligament
Explanation:The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.
The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.
The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.
The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.
The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.
The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?
Your Answer: Sternal angle
Explanation:The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused by ischaemia in the lateral part of the medulla oblongata and is commonly associated with numerous neurological symptoms. Which of the following arteries when occluded leads to this condition?
Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar
Explanation:The lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg’s disease is also known as posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome (PICA). This syndrome is a clinical manifestation of the occlusion of the posterior cerebellar artery that results in symptoms of infarction of the lateral medullary oblongata. Other arteries that contribute to blood flow in to this region such are the vertebral artery, superior middle cerebellar and inferior medullary arteries can also result to this syndrome when occluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?
Your Answer: Middle meatus
Explanation:The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Correct
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A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?
Your Answer: Musculocutaneous
Explanation:The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old man underwent CT scan of the whole abdomen. The result showed renal cell carcinoma with a tumour size of 7cm and extension into the regional lymph. What is the clinical stage of his renal cell cancer?
Your Answer: Stage III
Explanation:Renal cell carcinoma is a kidney cancer that originates in the lining of the proximal convoluted tubule. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults, responsible for approximately 90–95% of cases. Renal cell carcinomas can be staged by using the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM (tumour-node-metastasis) classification, as follows: Stage I: tumours that are 7 cm or smaller and confined to the kidney, Stage II: tumours that are larger than 7 cm but still confined to the kidney, Stage III: tumours extending into the renal vein or vena cava, involving the ipsilateral adrenal gland and/or perinephric fat, or which have spread to one local lymph node and Stage IV: tumours extending beyond Gerota’s fascia, to more than one local node, or with distant metastases Recent literature has questioned whether the cut-off in size between stage I and stage II tumours should be 5 cm instead of 7 cm. The patient’s cancer in this case is stage III.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
