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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of primary syphilis?

      Your Answer: Cytological smear

      Correct Answer: Dark-field microscopy

      Explanation:

      Primary syphilis is transmitted via sexual contact. Lesions on genitalia, called a chancre occur after an asymptomatic incubation period of 10-90 days (average 21 days) after exposure. This chancre is a typically solitary (can be multiple), firm, painless, ulceration over the skin at the point of exposure to spirochete, seen on penis, vagina or rectum. It heals spontaneously after 4-6 weeks. Local lymphadenopathy can be seen.
      Diagnosis is made by microscopy of fluid from lesion using dark-field illumination, taking care to not confuse with other treponemal disease. Screening tests include rapid plasma regain (RPR) and Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests. False positives are known to occur with these tests and can be seen in viral infections like hepatitis, varicella, Epstein-Barr virus, tuberculosis, lymphoma, pregnancy and IV drug use. More specific tests should therefore be carried out in case these screening tests are positive. The Treponema pallidum hemagglutination assay (TPHA) and the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTAABS) test are based on monoclonal antibodies and immunofluorescence and are more specific. However, they can too show false positives with other treponemal diseases like yaws or pinta. Other confirmatory tests include those based on enzyme-linked immunoassays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify...

    Correct

    • You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?

      Your Answer: Cardiac notch

      Explanation:

      Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)
      The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.
      Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.
      Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.
      Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34 year old man is suffering from septic shock and receives an...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old man is suffering from septic shock and receives an infusion of Dextran 70. Which of the following complications may potentially ensue?

      Your Answer: Digital necrosis

      Correct Answer: Anaphylaxis

      Explanation:

      Dextran 40 and 70 have a higher rate of causing anaphylaxis than either gelatins or starches.

      Dextrans are branched polysaccharide molecules, with dextran 40 and 70 available. The high-molecular-weight dextran 70 may persist for up to eight hours. They inhibit platelet aggregation and leucocyte plugging in the microcirculation, thereby, improving flow through the microcirculation. They are primarily used in sepsis.
      Unlike many other intravenous fluids, dextrans are a recognised cause of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Incorrect

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Incorrect

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:...

    Incorrect

    • Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced active transport of sodium

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henlé leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. Its primary function uses a counter current multiplier mechanism in the medulla to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. It can be divided into four parts:
      1. Descending limb of loop of Henlé – low permeability to ions and urea, while being highly permeable to water 2. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henlé – not permeable to water, but it is permeable to ions
      3. Medullary thick ascending limb of loop of Henlé – sodium (Na+), potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–) ions are reabsorbed by active transport. K+ is passively transported along its concentration gradient through a K+ channel in the basolateral aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of the ascending limb.
      4. The cortical thick ascending limb – the site of action where loop diuretics such as furosemide block the K+/Na+/2Cl− co-transporters = reduced active transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Oculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy and post-operatively, he develops stridor and is unable to speak. What is the best explanation for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      This patient has aphonia due to bilateral damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) injury is rare for benign thyroid lesions (0.2%). After extubation-stridor, respiratory distress, aphonia occurs due to the closure of the glottic aperture necessitating immediate intervention and emergency intubation or tracheostomy. Intra-operative identification and preservation of the RLN minimizes the risk of injury.
      The recurrent laryngeal nerves control all intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle. These muscles act to open, close, and adjust the tension of the vocal cords, and include the posterior cricoarytenoid muscles, the only muscle to open the vocal cords. The nerves supply muscles on the same side of the body, with the exception of the interarytenoid muscle, which is innervated from both sides.

      The nerves also carry sensory information from the mucous membranes of the larynx below the lower surface of the vocal fold, as well as sensory, secretory and motor fibres to the cervical segments of the oesophagus and the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old builder presents with a reducible swelling in the right groin, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old builder presents with a reducible swelling in the right groin, it is increasing in size and has not been operated on previously. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Open Lichtenstein repair

      Explanation:

      The patient has a right groin hernia since he has a reducible lump and a history of carrying heavy objects.
      Inguinal hernias present with a reducible lump in the groin.
      A third of patients scheduled for surgery have no pain, and severe pain is uncommon (1.5% at rest and 10.2% on movement).
      Inguinal hernias are at risk of irreducibility or incarceration, which may result in strangulation and obstruction; however, unlike with femoral hernias, strangulation is rare.
      Inguinal hernias are often classified as direct or indirect, depending on whether the hernia sac bulges directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal (direct hernia) or passes through the internal inguinal ring alongside the spermatic cord, following the coursing of the inguinal canal (indirect hernia).

      Surgery is the only curative treatment.
      If patients with asymptomatic inguinal hernia are medically fit, they should be offered repair
      Mesh repair is associated with the lowest recurrence rates of hernia
      Laparoscopic repair is suggested for recurrent and bilateral inguinal hernias, though it may also be offered for primary inguinal hernia repair
      The EuraHS recommendations:
      – For Primary unilateral Hernia: Mesh repair, Lichtenstein or endoscopic repair are recommended. Endoscopic repair only if expertise is available.
      – Primary bilateral: Mesh repair, Lichtenstein or endoscopic.
      – Recurrent inguinal hernia: Mesh repair, modifying the technique with respect to the previous technique.
      – If previously anterior: Consider open preperitoneal mesh or endoscopic approach (if expertise is present).
      – If previously posterior: Consider an anterior mesh

      In inguinal hernia tension-free repair, synthetic non-absorbable flat meshes (or composite meshes with a non-absorbable component) should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (1/2) 50%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Peri-operative Care (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (0/1) 0%
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