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Question 1
Incorrect
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If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the tunica albuginea and involves the tunica vaginalis, with retroperitoneal lymph nodes greater than 5cm, LDH 1.4 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4250 mIU/ml and AFP 780 ng/ml, what's the clinical stage in this case?
Your Answer: Stage IIIA
Correct Answer: Stage IIC
Explanation:According to the AJCC, the clinical staging for testicular seminoma is:
Stage IA: T1 N0 M0 S0
Stage IB: T2/3/4 N0 M0 S0
Stage IC: any T N0 M0 S1/2/3
Stage IIA: any T N1 M0 S0/1
Stage IIB: any T N2 M0 S0/1
Stage IIC: any T N3 M0 S0/1
Stage IIIA: any T any N M1a S0/1
Stage IIIB: any T any N M0/1a S2
Stage IIIC: any T any N M1a/1b S3.
The patient in this case has IIC stage -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with pain in the testis and scrotum. It began 10 hours previously and has worsened during that time. On examination, he has pyrexia, the testis is swollen and tender and there is an associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:The following history findings are associated with acute epididymitis and orchitis:
– Gradual onset of scrotal pain and swelling, usually unilateral, often developing over several days (as opposed to hours for testicular torsion)
– Dysuria, frequency, or urgency
– Fever and chills (in only 25% of adults with acute epididymitis but in up to 71% of children with the condition)
Usually, no nausea or vomiting (in contrast to testicular torsion)
– Urethral discharge preceding the onset of acute epididymitis (in some cases)Physical examination findings may fail to distinguish acute epididymitis from testicular torsion. Physical findings associated with acute epididymitis may include the following:
– Tenderness and induration occurring first in the epididymal tail and then spreading
– Elevation of the affected hemiscrotum
– Normal cremasteric reflex
– Erythema and mild scrotal cellulitis
– Reactive hydrocele (in patients with advanced epididymo-orchitis)
– Bacterial prostatitis or seminal vesiculitis (in post pubertal individuals)
– With tuberculosis, focal epididymitis, a draining sinus, or beading of the vas deferens
– In children, an underlying congenital anomaly of the urogenital tract
Findings associated with orchitis may include the following:
– Testicular enlargement, induration, and a reactive hydrocele (common)
– Non-tender epididymis
In 20-40% of cases, association with acute epididymitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules?
Your Answer: Actinomycosis
Explanation:Actinomycosis is primarily caused by any of the several members of the bacterial genus Actinomyces. These bacteria are generally anaerobes. And can cause multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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A correct statement about the RECTUM:
Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems
Explanation:The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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After being admitted to the hospital, a 60-year-old man is administered sodium nitroprusside. Which class of drugs does nitroprusside belong to?
Your Answer: Vasodilators
Explanation:Sodium nitroprusside is a potent peripheral vasodilator that affects both arterioles and venules. It is often administered intravenously to patients who are experiencing a hypertensive emergency. It reduces both total peripheral resistance as well as venous return, so decreasing both preload and afterload. For this reason it can be used in severe cardiogenic heart failure where this combination of effects can act to increase cardiac output. It is administered by intravenous infusion. Onset is typically immediate and effects last for up to ten minutes. The duration of treatment should not exceed 72 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?
Your Answer: Iliohypogastric
Correct Answer: Anterior labial
Explanation:Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.
The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.
The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Correct
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Investigations in a 40-year old gentleman with splenomegaly reveal the following: haemoglobin 21.5 g/dl, haematocrit 66%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 86 fl, mean cell haemoglobin concentration 34 g/dl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin 34.5 pg, platelet count 450 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 12 × 109/l, with 81% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 4% bands, 3% monocytes, and 7% lymphocytes. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera
Explanation:The markedly increased haematocrit, along with thrombocytosis and the leucocytosis suggest a myeloproliferative disorder.
Polycythaemia vera is the commonest myeloproliferative disorders occurring more often in males (about 1.4 to 1). The mean age at diagnosis is 60 years (range 15–90 years) with 5% of patients below 40 years at onset. It involves increased production of all cell lines, including red blood cells (independent of erythropoietin), white blood cells and platelets. If confined only to red blood cells, it is known as ‘primary erythrocytosis’. There is an increase in blood volume and hyperviscosity occurs, predisposing to thrombosis. Increased bleeding occurs due to abnormal functioning of platelets. Patients become hypermetabolic, and increased cell turnover leads to hyperuricaemia.
Usually asymptomatic, occasionally symptoms include weakness, pruritus, headache, light-headedness, visual disturbances, fatigue and dyspnoea. Face appears red with engorged retinal veins. Lower extremities appear red and painful, along with digital ischaemia (erythromelalgia). Hepatomegaly is common and massive splenomegaly is seen in 75% patients. Thrombosis can lead to stroke, deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, retinal artery or vein occlusion, splenic infarction (often with a friction rub) or Budd–Chiari syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding is seen in 10-20% patients. Hypermetabolism can lead to low-grade fevers and weight loss. Late features include complications of hyperuricaemia (e.g. gout, renal calculi). 1.5% to 10% cases transform to acute leukaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old female is found to have a thyroglossal cyst that has been recently infected and the patient requests treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Surgical treatment with resection of cyst, associated track, central portion of the hyoid and wedge of tongue muscle behind the hyoid
Explanation:A thyroglossal duct cyst (TGDC) is the most common mass found in the midline of the neck. The mass is usually located at or below the level of the hyoid bone, although a TGDC can be located anywhere from the foramen cecum to the level of the thyroid gland.
Most patients with a TGDC present with asymptomatic masses in the midline of the neck.
Recurrent inflammation associated with infection of a TGDC is not uncommon. When an infection is present, the cyst often enlarges and an abscess may form. Spontaneous rupture with secondary sinus tract formation can also occur.The surgical treatment of choice for thyroglossal cysts is the Sistrunk operation, in which an en block resection of the sinus tract and above (including the midportion of the hyoid bone) is performed. Recurrence is approximately 3-5% and is increased by incomplete excision and a history of recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Correct
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A 46-year old lady presents with chief complaints of a large mass in the left breast. Histopathology of the mass revealed a stromal component with an epithelial component. What is the likely lesion?
Your Answer: Phyllodes tumour
Explanation:Phyllodes tumours are large, quickly growing tumours which arise from the periductal stroma of the breast. These are fibroepithelial tumours and account for less than 1% of breast cancers. These tumours can be benign, borderline or malignant based on the histology. The tumour usually affects adult women, mostly between the age of 40 to 50 years. It can be confused with fibroadenoma, which however affects much younger patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30 year old carpenter falls off the roof of a house and lands on his right arm. X-ray and clinical examination show that he has fractured the proximal ulna and associated radial dislocation. Which of the following names would be used to describe this injury?
Your Answer: Galeazzi
Correct Answer: Monteggia's
Explanation:The Monteggia fracture refers to a dislocation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint (PRUJ) in association with a forearm fracture, most commonly a fracture of the ulna. Depending on the type of fracture and severity, they may experience elbow swelling, deformity, crepitus, and paraesthesia or numbness. Some patients may not have severe pain at rest, but elbow flexion and forearm rotation are limited and painful.
The dislocated radial head may be palpable in the anterior, posterior, or anterolateral position. In Bado type I and IV lesions, the radial head can be palpated in the antecubital fossa. The radial head can be palpated posteriorly in type II lesions and laterally in type III lesions.Colles’ fractures have the following 3 features:
– Transverse fracture of the radius
– 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
– Dorsal displacement and angulationSmith’s fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture)
– Volar angulation of distal radius fragment (Garden spade deformity)
– Caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexedBennett’s fracture
– Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint
– Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights
– X-ray: triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpalGaleazzi fracture
– Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar jointPott’s fracture
– Bimalleolar ankle fracture
– Forced foot eversionBarton’s fracture
– Distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation
– Fall onto extended and pronated wrist
– Involvement of the joint is a defining feature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56 year old man is scheduled for flexible sigmoidoscopy to investigate bright red rectal bleeding. Which of the following would be the most appropriate preparation for this procedure?
Your Answer: Rectal lavage with saline 1 hour pre procedure
Correct Answer: Single phosphate enema 30 minutes pre procedure
Explanation:Bowel preparation is a significant aspect of the flexible sigmoidoscopy procedure. Clear visibility of the bowel mucosa is critical for a thorough examination. The combination of a light breakfast in the morning and the application of 1 or 2 phosphate enemas a few hours before the examination is a safe and commonly used method of preparing a patient for a flexible sigmoidoscopy procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 62 year old retired teacher is diagnosed as having a malignant lesion in the inferior aspect of her left breast. On examination, there is palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Mastectomy and axillary node clearance
Correct Answer: Image guided fine needle aspiration of the axillary nodes
Explanation:Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) cytology of axillary lymph nodes is a simple, minimally invasive technique that can be used to improve preoperative determination of the status of the axillary lymph nodes in patients with breast cancer, thereby serving as a tool with which to triage patients for sentinel versus full lymph node dissection procedures. FNA of axillary lymph nodes is a sensitive and very specific method with which to detect metastasis in breast cancer patients. Because of its excellent positive predictive value, full axillary lymph node dissection can be planned safely instead of a sentinel lymph node dissection when a preoperative positive FNA result is rendered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day. He has undergone an open extended right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the colonic-splenic flexure. What is the least likely cause?
Your Answer: Atelectasis
Correct Answer: Ileus
Explanation:Pyrexia is a very common post operative finding and can most likely result from an infection. However, it is highly unlikely to occur as a result of ileus. Anastomotic leaks are uncommon after right sided colonic surgery. In this scenario atelectasis would be the most likely underlying cause, as open extended right hemicolectomies will necessitate a long midline incision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 17
Correct
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In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Nerve to vastus medialis
Explanation:The adductor canal (sub sartorial canal) is situated in the middle third of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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The neurotransmitters adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine are derived from which amino acid?
Your Answer: Tyrosine
Explanation:Tyrosine is the precursor to adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine to DOPA, which is in turn converted to dopamine, then to noradrenaline and finally adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and apparent iron deficiency anaemia. What will be the most likely finding on his colonic biopsy?
Your Answer: Pseudopolyps
Explanation:Sclerosing cholangitis along with the passage of blood in stools suggests ulcerative colitis affecting the mucosa and submucosa of rectum and colon, with a sharp demarcation with the normal tissue. The musclaris layer is involved in severe cases. Initially, the mucosa is erythematous, friable with scattered haemorrhagic areas and loss of normal vascular pattern. Severe disease is indicated by presence of large mucosal ulcers with purulent exudate. There can be islands of normal mucosa between the ulcerated mucosa, along with few hyperplastic inflammatory mucosal lesions (pseudopolyps). Ulcerative colitis does not lead to development of fistulas or abscesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT true regarding malignant hyperpyrexia
Your Answer: It can be caused by nitrous oxide
Explanation:Malignant hyerpyrexia occurs in 1 in 150,000. All inhalational anaesthetic agents and suxamethonium, except nitrous oxide can cause malignant hyperpyrexia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?
Your Answer: Terminal bronchiole of the right lung, lower lobe
Correct Answer: Right main bronchus
Explanation:Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presented with a metabolic acidosis and increased anion gap. What is the most likely cause of the changes of the anion gap in this patient?
Your Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:High anion gap in metabolic acidosis is caused generally by the elevation of the levels of acids like ketones, lactate, sulphates in the body, which consume the bicarbonate ions. Other causes of a high anion gap include overdosing on salicylates, uraemia, rhabdomyolysis, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, or ingestion of toxins such as ethylene glycol, methanol, propyl alcohol, cyanide and iron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which best describes the suprascapular nerve?
Your Answer: It contains nerve fibres from C5 and C6 spinal cord segments
Explanation:The suprascapular nerve arises from the cervical spinal nerves 5 and 6 after coming together to form common trunk. This nerve supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles giving off branches to the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?
Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein
Explanation:The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 36 year old woman who smokes heavily arrives at the clinic complaining of frequent stools and crampy abdominal pain that has been occurring for some time. She undergoes colonoscopy (which is macroscopically normal) and several pan colonic biopsies are taken. Histologic analysis reveals a thickened sub apical collagen layer and increased lymphocytes in the lamina propria. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Microscopic colitis
Explanation:Microscopic colitis is an inflammation of the large intestine (colon) that causes persistent watery diarrhoea. The disorder gets its name from the fact that it’s necessary to examine the colon tissue under a microscope to identify it, since the tissue may appear normal with a colonoscopy or flexible sigmoidoscopy. It is characterised by normal endoscopic appearances, microscopic features of colonic inflammation and thickening of the sub epithelial collagen layer. Features such as granulomas are absent. It is the normal endoscopic appearance that makes the other options less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?
Your Answer: Left temporal lobe
Correct Answer: Right occipital lobe
Explanation:The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is admitted overnight, following a road traffic accident. He has an open tibial fracture with a 20 cm wound and extensive periosteal stripping. He is neurovascularly intact; IV antibiotics and wound dressing have been administered in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Immediate skeletal stabilisation and application of negative pressure dressing
Correct Answer: Combined skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction on a scheduled operating list
Explanation:The patient has Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIb.
Options for wound closure in the treatment of open fractures include primary closure of the skin, split-thickness skin grafting, and the use of either free or local muscle flaps. The timing of open wound closure has proponents in the immediate, early, and delayed categories
Gustilo-Anderson classification
Type I – Open fracture with a wound less than 1 cm in length, and clean
Type II – Open fracture with a laceration more than 1 cm in length, without extensive soft-tissue damage, flaps, or avulsions
Type III – Either an open segmental fracture, an open fracture with extensive soft-tissue damage, or a traumatic amputation
The description of type III fractures was subsequently further refined and described by Gustilo et al in 1984, [6] as follows:
Type IIIa – Severe comminution or segmental fractures, but with adequate coverage of bone and a wound that is closable by simple means
Type IIIb – Extensive soft-tissue damage in association with the open fracture, with significant bone exposure and periosteal stripping, typically requiring tissue rotation or free tissue transfer for closure
Type IIIc – Any open fracture with an arterial injury that requires repair -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following is found to be elevated in a case of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer: AFP
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a glycoprotein that is normally produced by the yolk sac of the embryo, and then the fetal liver. It is elevated in the new-born and thus, also in the pregnant women. Eventually, it decreases in the first year of life to reach the adult normal value of < 20 ng/ml by 1 year of age. Markedly elevated levels (>500 ng/ml) in a high-risk patient is considered diagnostic for primary hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Moreover, due to smaller tumours secreting less quantities of AFP, rising levels can be a better indication. However, not all hepatocellular carcinomas produce AFP. Also, the level of AFP is not a prognostic factor. Populations where hepatitis B and HCC are common (e.g.: sub-Saharan Africans, ethnic Chinese) can see AFP levels as high as 100,000 ng/ml, whereas levels are low (about 3000 ng/ml) in regions with lesser incidences of HCC.
AFP can also be elevated up to 500 ng/ml in conditions like embryonic teratocarcinomas, hepatoblastomas, fulminant hepatitis, hepatic metastases from gastrointestinal tract cancers, some cholangiocarcinomas). Lesser values are seen in acute and chronic hepatitis.
Overall, the sensitivity of AFP value ≥20 ng/ml is 39-64% and the specificity is 76%–91%. Value of 500 ng/ml is considered as the diagnostic cut-off level for HCC. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed spindle shaped cells with high nuclear/cytoplasm ratio on immunohisto chemical staining. These pleomorphic cells were vimentin positive, cytokeratin negative and cd45 negative. This type of neoplasm is most commonly found in which patient?
Your Answer: A 45-year-old woman with massive ascites and peritoneal metastases
Correct Answer: A 15-year-old boy with a mass in the left femur and lung metastases
Explanation:A histology report that describes spindle shaped cells which are vimentin positive suggests osteosarcoma and hematogenous spread to the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?
Your Answer: Sternoclavicular joint
Explanation:The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.
The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.
The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.
The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.
The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
