00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old woman suddenly experienced complete loss of vision in her right eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman suddenly experienced complete loss of vision in her right eye. Fundoscopy results show a pale retina, and a cherry red spot on the macular region. She also experienced right sided headaches aggravated by chewing. What caused her vision loss?

      Your Answer: CRVO

      Correct Answer: CRAO

      Explanation:

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is a disease of the eye where the flow of blood through the central retinal artery is blocked (occluded). There are several different causes of this occlusion; the most common is carotid artery atherosclerosis. It causes sudden vision loss in one eye. Fundoscopic exam will show a red lesion, called a cherry red spot, with surrounding pale retina (the pale colour is caused by ischemia of the retina)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old female is admitted to the E.D complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female is admitted to the E.D complaining of severe abdominal pain. On examination, she is seen trembling and rolling around the trolley. She has previously been investigated for abdominal pain and no cause has been found. She states that she will commit suicide unless she is given morphine for the pain. Which condition is this is an example of?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Malingering is not considered a mental illness. In the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), malingering receives a V code as one of the other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention. The DSM-5 describes malingering as the intentional production of false or grossly exaggerated physical or psychological problems. Motivation for malingering is usually external (e.g., avoiding military duty or work, obtaining financial compensation, evading criminal prosecution, or obtaining drugs).

      Malingering should be strongly suspected if any combination of the following factors is noted to be present: (1) medicolegal context of presentation; (2) marked discrepancy between the person’s claimed stress or disability and the objective findings; (3) lack of cooperation during the diagnostic evaluation and in complying with the prescribed treatment regimen; and (4) the presence in the patient of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD).

      This patient is be pretending to be sick in order to get morphine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MELD score

      Correct Answer: Alvarado score

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history of palpitations, which are fast and regular. She doesn't complain of any episodes of collapse. On examination she was well, pulse rate was 102 bpm, which was regular and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. Her JVP was not elevated. Heart sounds were normal. ECH showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following can be expected because of the  physiological changes which occur in the boy during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular alterations which occur during pregnancy are for the optimal growth and development of the foetus and help to protect the mother from the risks of delivery, such as haemorrhage. The changes are characterized by an increased vascular volume, cardiac output, and heart rate, with a marked fall in vascular resistance and reduction in blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she has been complaining about seeing ghosts in their house. She no longer wants to enter in the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome. Which of the following risk factors may pre-dispose this woman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant. Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
      Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
      The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
      Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old male presents with behavioural disturbances. He has a history of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents with behavioural disturbances. He has a history of chronic alcohol intake and previous Wernicke's encephalopathy. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 2 years. Which among the following phenomena is he likely to display on further assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      In a patient with chronic alcoholism, one can expect confabulations, which point towards a diagnosis of Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Korsakoff’s is characterized by confabulation and amnesia, typically occurring in alcoholics secondary to chronic vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency.

      Other options:
      Dysthymia refers to mild depression.
      Hydrophobia is a feature of rabies
      Lilliputians may be observed in delirium tremens.
      Perseveration is repetitive speech patterns, commonly seen after traumatic brain injury.

      According to the Caine criteria, the presence of any two among the four following criteria can be used to clinically diagnose Wernicke’s Encephalopathy:
      Dietary deficiency
      Oculomotor abnormalities
      Cerebellar dysfunction
      Either altered mental status or mild memory impairment
      Korsakoff psychosis:
      Altered mental status – disorientation, confabulations
      Oculomotor findings – most often horizontal nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, cranial nerve IV palsy, conjugate gaze
      Ataxia – wide-based gait

      Treatment:
      The mainstay of treatment in an acute presentation is thiamine replacement.
      Electrolyte abnormalities should be corrected and fluids replaced.
      In particular, magnesium requires replacement, as thiamine-dependent enzymes cannot operate in a magnesium-deficient state.
      After the acute phase of vitamin and electrolyte replacement, memory rehabilitation is beneficial in Korsakoff syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level. His recent blood results show: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, Plts: 127 x 10^9/L, ESR: 45 mm/hr, IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL). Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10–15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 41-year-old gentleman underwent kidney transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Now, 2 months...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old gentleman underwent kidney transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Now, 2 months after the operation, he has developed fever and features suggestive of bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia.   What is the most likely aetiological cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      After renal transplantation, cytomegalovirus has been identified to affect 1/4 of the post-op patients. It is the most common viral infection causing morbidity and mortality in post-op patients in the first 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old marketing manager presents with a persistent watery left eye for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old marketing manager presents with a persistent watery left eye for the past 4 days. On examination there is erythema and swelling of the inner canthus of the left eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis

      Explanation:

      Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac, secondary to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct at the junction of lacrimal sac. It causes pain, redness, a watering eye (epiphora), and swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye. Management is with systemic antibiotics. IV antibiotics are indicated if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness of his limbs over 2 months. He noticed that it was particularly difficult for him to get up from the toilet seat and to get out of his car. He also felt some tingling and numbness of his toes at night, which was distressing. He was taking several medications which included Ibuprofen, perindopril, colchicine, vitamin supplements, and indapamide. On examination his pulse was 85/min, blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and fundi revealed arteriovenous nipping. He had proximal lower limb weakness of 4/5 and absent ankle reflexes. Plantar reflexes were upgoing on both sides. His serum creatinine phosphokinase level was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity.
      It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.
      Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.
      Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.
      Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following would suggest an increase risk of suicide in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would suggest an increase risk of suicide in a patient with a history of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of arm cutting

      Explanation:

      Risk factors specific to depression:
      -Family history of mental disorder.
      -History of previous suicide attempts (this includes self-harm).
      -Severe depression.
      -Anxiety.
      -Feelings of hopelessness.
      -Personality disorder.
      -Alcohol abuse and/or drug abuse.
      -Male gender.

      Protective Factors for Suicide.
      Protective factors buffer individuals from suicidal thoughts and behaviour. To date, protective factors have not been studied as extensively or rigorously as risk factors. Identifying and understanding protective factors are, however, equally as important as researching risk factors.

      Protective Factors:
      -Effective clinical care for mental, physical, and substance abuse disorders
      -Easy access to a variety of clinical interventions and support for help seeking
      -Family and community support (connectedness)
      -Support from ongoing medical and mental health care relationships
      -Skills in problem solving, conflict resolution, and nonviolent ways of handling disputes
      -Cultural and religious beliefs that discourage suicide and support instincts for self-preservation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction. His coagulation profile shows: Plts: 173 x 10^9/L, PT: 12.9 secs, APTT: 84 secs. Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.

      Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.

      Management:
      Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
      Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
      Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
      Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Incorrect

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He recently suffered a fracture of his right humerus with minimal trauma. The results of the blood tests, taken on his arrival, prompted the referral: Hb: 8.9 g/dL, WCC: 9.5 x 10^9/L, Plts: 140 x 10^9/L, MCV: 86 fL, ESR: 60mm/1st hour, Na+: 149 mmol/L, K+: 3.6 mmol/L, Urea: 15 mmol/L, Creatinine: 160 mmol/L, Calcium (corrected): 2.89 mmol/L, Albumin: 28g/L, Total protein: 89 g/L. X-ray of right humerus reported a possible pathological fracture. Which of the following investigations would help best in confirming the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis with anaemia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), hypercalcaemia, renal impairment, and raised total protein with low albumin is multiple myeloma (MM). Protein electrophoresis will confirm the presence of monoclonal band of paraprotein. Of note, a radioisotope bone scan is not a good test for picking up the lytic lesions of MM.

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-dysjunction

      Explanation:

      Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is the leading cause of Down syndrome. Two risk factors for maternal nondisjunction of chromosome 21 are increased maternal age and altered recombination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's...

    Incorrect

    • From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's syndrome of an adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation

      Explanation:

      The main cardiovascular manifestations associated with Marfan’s syndrome are aortic dilatation and mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months. She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone). A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal. Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Low body weight. Excessively low body weight — about 10 percent under normal weight — interrupts many hormonal functions in your body, potentially halting ovulation.
      In Polycystic ovaries there is excess weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 21-year-old patient is referred to the tertiary neurology clinic because of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old patient is referred to the tertiary neurology clinic because of a possible diagnosis of Juvenile Parkinson’s disease. His symptoms began predominantly with dystonia affecting the lower limbs, but he now has more classical signs of older onset Parkinson’s including tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity. You map out his family tree and understand that his sister developed Parkinson’s at the age of 16 but that his parents do not have signs of Parkinson’s. Which of the following is the most likely mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Juvenile Onset Parkinson’s is an autosomal recessive condition that usually presents in late childhood to early adulthood, initially with gait disorders caused by lower limb dystonia that later develops to the more classical signs Parkinson’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair. Blood results are shown below: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1–7), Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9–35). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a double-stranded molecule of 16.6 kb (Figure 1, lower panel). The two strands of mtDNA differ in their base composition, with one being rich in guanines, making it possible to separate a heavy (H) and a light (L) strand by density centrifugation in alkaline CsCl2 gradients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed