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  • Question 1 - A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years...

    Correct

    • A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with worsening dyspnoea, fever and cough. He works at a foundry. Vitals are as follows: Respiratory rate: 28/min Heart rate: 80 bpm Temp: 37.6C Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crepitations throughout the lung fields. Calcified hilar nodules are visible on the chest X-ray. Further evaluation shows an eggshell calcification on HRCT. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis is a common occupational lung disease that is caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust. Silica is the most abundant mineral on earth. Workers that are involved for example in construction, mining, or glass production are among the individuals with the highest risk of developing the condition. Acute silicosis causes severe symptoms (e.g., exertional dyspnoea, cough with sputum) and has a very poor prognosis.
      Chronic silicosis has a very variable prognosis and affected individuals may remain asymptomatic for several decades. However, radiographic signs are usually seen early on. Typical radiographic findings are calcifications of perihilar lymph nodes, diffuse ground glass opacities, large numbers of rounded, solitary nodules or bigger, confluent opacities. Avoiding further exposure to silica is crucial, especially since the only treatment available is symptomatic (e.g., bronchodilators). Silicosis is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis and lung cancer. Berylliosis typically affects individuals who are exposed to aerospace industry. Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis do not form eggshell calcifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old man is referred to the pneumologist with a suspicion of bronchiectasis....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is referred to the pneumologist with a suspicion of bronchiectasis. History reveals he's been having recurrent pulmonary infections his whole life together with difficulties gaining weight. He's a non-smoker with a clear family history and he admits inhalers haven't helped him in the past. He is finally suspected of having cystic fibrosis. What is the normal function of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator?

      Your Answer: Chloride channel

      Explanation:

      Chloride channels are involved in a diverse set of functions in normal physiology and acquired diseases. Additionally, there are genetic diseases caused by mutations in chloride channels (channelopathies) — the most common being cystic fibrosis, which has a prevalence of 1 in 2,000 Caucasians.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance was poor. His blood pressure was 180/100 mmHg. His pulse rate was 85 bpm which was irregularly irregular. On examination there was bibasal crepitation. No murmurs were heard. What is the most likely cause for these findings?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Left ventricular hypertrophy due to long standing hypertension is the most probable cause. The irregularly irregular pulse was suggestive of atrial fibrillation, which is due to diastolic dysfunction. Poor ventricular filling causes pulmonary congestion which manifests as bibasal crepitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic. She is 28 weeks pregnant and her obstetrician wants you to assess her and provide medical advice for the mother and child. Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis C are most accurate in her case?

      Your Answer: A high viral load at delivery increases the risk of transmission

      Correct Answer: Breast-feeding does not increase the risk of transmission

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding has not been shown to increase the risk of transmission of HCV from mother to baby. This is simply a fact to memorize. The other answer choices are not the most accurate as there is no evidence-proven way to decrease the chance that baby will get HCV from the mother during the birth. About 5 out of every 100 infants born to HCV infected mothers become infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in the UK. Degeneration of the central retina (macula) is the key feature with changes usually bilateral. Smoking and genetic factors are risk factors for macular degeneration. The severity is divided into early, intermediate, and late types. The late type is additionally divided into dry and wet forms with the dry form making up 90% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis induced by ethanol

      Correct Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.
      Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.

      Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre.
      Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.

      Management of alcoholism:
      Nutritional support:
      – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.
      Pharmacological management:
      – Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
      – Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.
      – Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      69.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old school teacher is found to have abnormal liver function tests at...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old school teacher is found to have abnormal liver function tests at a health screening. Other than tiredness and occasional gritty eyes that she attributes to age, she is well. She is postmenopausal and takes hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but no other medication. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day but takes no alcohol. There is nothing to find on examination. Some of her blood results are shown below: Albumin 40 g/l (37–49) Alanine aminotransferase(ALT) 14 U/l (5–35) Alkaline Phosphatase 300 U/l (45–105) AMA positive >1:40 Anti-dsDNA weakly positive Bilirubin 12 μmol/l (1–22) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l (>1.55) Liver–kidney microsomal antibody (anti-LKM) negative Liver transaminase (AST) 10 U/l (1–31) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l (<3.36) Plasma thromboplastin (PT) 12 s (11.5–15.5) Smooth muscle antibody (SMA) negative Which of the following would be an appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      The patient is AMA+ and weakly + for anti-dsDNA, suggesting an autoimmune process. She also has gritty eyes, which makes you think Sjogren’s syndrome. She has an elevated ALP and normal AST/ ALT. All of these factors, in addition to her middle age and the fact that she is a woman, make the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) most likely. It is associated with conditions (autoimmune) such as Sjogren’s syndrome. The treatment for this disease initially is ursodeoxycholic acid. Liver transplantation is the definitive treatment for end-stage disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      69.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy for bulimia. He thinks there has been no improvement in his condition and is interested in using pharmacological therapy. Which of the following is most suitable?

      Your Answer: High-dose amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: High-dose fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a serious, potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by a cycle of bingeing and compensatory behaviours such as self-induced vomiting designed to undo or compensate for the effects of binge eating.

      According to the DSM-5, the official diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are:
      Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterized by both of the following:
      Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g. within any 2-hour period), an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances.
      A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g. a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating).
      Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.
      The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, at least once a week for three months.
      Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
      The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.

      Antidepressants as a group – particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) – are the mainstay of pharmacotherapy for bulimia nervosa. These may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments
      Fluoxetine (Prozac): Initial dose 20 mg/d with advance over 1–2 weeks to 60 mg/d in the morning as tolerated. Some patients may need to begin at a lower dose if side effects are intolerable. A maximum dose of 80 mg/d may be used in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42 year old male undergoes a routine cranial nerve examination, which reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male undergoes a routine cranial nerve examination, which reveals the following findings: Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears Weber's test: Localizes to the right side What do these test results imply?

      Your Answer: Right conductive deafness

      Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Weber’s test – if there is a sensorineural problem, the sound is localized to the unaffected side (right), indicating a problem on the left side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 52 yr. old female who was a smoker, with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 52 yr. old female who was a smoker, with a history of asymptomatic atrial septal defect (ASD) presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion and ankle oedema for the past 2 weeks. She has defaulted on her follow up for ASD. On examination she was cyanosed and clubbing was noted. Her pulse rate was 92 and blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. Echocardiography revealed a dilated right ventricle of the heart. The right ventricular pressure was 90 mmHg. Significant tricuspid and pulmonary regurgitation were also noted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eisenmenger’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      According to echocardiography findings pulmonary pressure is closer to systemic blood pressure and it is evidence of pulmonary hypertension. Because of the reversal of shunt due to pulmonary hypertension, cyanosis and clubbing have developed. So the most probable diagnosis is Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      124.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone iv given centrally through a large vein

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following types of renal stones are said to have a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of renal stones are said to have a semi-opaque appearance on x-ray?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxalate

      Correct Answer: Cystine stones

      Explanation:

      Only cystine stones are semi-opaque because they contain sulphur. All the other stones will appear either radio-lucent or radio-opaque.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old female suddenly started seeing a curtain-like shadow in her field of vision with flashes of lights and subsequent loss of vision, which prompted her to visit her ophthalmologist. What do you think is the most appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Flashes of light, presence of floaters and loss of vision (often described as a black curtain closing in on the visual field) are symptoms that strongly indicate retinal detachment. The fundoscopy findings of retinal tears support this diagnosis. Therefore, surgery of retina must be done to treat this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 66 year old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks. On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences. Investigations: BP is 141/72 mmHg Pulse 82 bpm and regular Sp(O2) 92% on room air RR 19 breaths/min Temperature 37.1°C. Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%.   Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax

      Explanation:

      High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).

      HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with Hodgkin disease 8 years ago. She was treated with radiotherapy which led to complete remission. What is the most likely long-term risk of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary cancer

      Explanation:

      The major delayed problem with radiotherapy is the development of secondary cancers. This risk begins to appear ten years after therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

      Common lithium side effects may include:
      – dizziness, drowsiness;
      – tremors in your hands;
      – trouble walking;
      – dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;
      – nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;
      – cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;
      – rash; or.
      – blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing while running to the bus. Symptoms disappeared after resting. But the symptoms reappeared whilst he was climbing the stairs. On examination he was not dyspnoeic at rest. BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. His heart sounds were normal. There was an additional clicking noise in the fourth left intercostal space which is heard with each heart beat. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      The given history is more compatible with spontaneous pneumothorax. Left-sided pneumothoraxes may be associated with a clicking noise, which is heard with each heart-beat and can sometimes be heard by the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old obese woman presents to casualty. She has rigors and reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old obese woman presents to casualty. She has rigors and reports a fever. On examination there is jaundice and tenderness over the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. She has an elevated white blood cell count and a markedly raised alkaline phosphatase level; transaminases and bilirubin are also abnormal. Which of these diagnoses best fits the clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      This question describes Charcot’s triad– fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice, which is seen in ascending cholangitis. Reynold’s pentad is a worsened version of this, where you have RUQ pain, fever, jaundice, hypotension, and altered mental status. Risk factors for gallstones are the 4F’s- female, fat, forty, and fertile. You would not have the elevated bilirubin, ALP, transaminases with a kidney stone or in peptic ulcer disease. Hepatitis would not cause elevation of bilirubin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepato-splenomegaly. Investigations reveal: Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22), Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 – 105), ALT 198 iu/l (5 – 35), AST 158 iu/l (1 – 31), Albumin 25 g/L (37 – 49), Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative, Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She was found, lying on the floor having consumed an unidentified quantity of her mother's prescription pills with alcohol. The patient's mother is a known hypertensive under treatment. On examination, the patient was found to be lethargic, hypotensive with a BP of 70/50 mmHg, and bradycardic with a pulse rate of 38 bpm. A finger prick glucose is 3.2 mmol/L. Which TWO among the following are the most appropriate steps for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon and isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate steps of initial management include iv glucagon and iv isoprenaline.

      The most likely diagnosis in the above scenario (decreased conscious level, profound hypertension, and bradycardia) is β-blocker toxicity/overdose.
      Bronchospasm rarely occurs in an overdose of β-blockers, except where there is a history of asthma.

      Immediate management is to give iv glucagons (50–150μg/kg) followed by infusion to treat hypotension and isoprenaline or atropine to treat bradycardia.
      Where patients fail to respond to these measures, temporary pacing may be required.
      If the patient is seen within the first 4 hours of the overdose, gastric lavage may be of value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.

      Symptoms of IAD may include:
      -Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
      -Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
      -High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
      -Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
      -Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
      -Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at three o’clock one morning with severe neck pain radiating down into her left shoulder and down to her forearm. The next day it spread to the dorsal aspect of the forearm. She was otherwise well. Her symptoms resolved after 24 hours. She noticed that after a week she was unable to wind down the car window with her left arm. On examination of the left arm there was wasting of brachioradialis, shoulder, biceps and winging of left scapula. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyotrophic neuralgia

      Explanation:

      This patient present with the classical symptoms of Amyotrophic neuralgia, characterised by sudden onset of pain in the shoulders that radiate down to the forearms and later resolve spontaneously but is followed by muscle wasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old female presents with polyuria and is passing 4 litres of urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with polyuria and is passing 4 litres of urine per day. She was recently started on a new medication.   Results show: Serum sodium 144 mmol/L (137-144) Plasma osmolality 299 mosmol/L (275-290) Urine osmolality 210 mosmol/L (350-1000)   Which of the following drugs was prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with diabetes insipidus: eunatreaemia, high serum osmolality, and inappropriately dilute urine, which leads to the suspicion of lithium-induced diabetes insipidus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the palmar aspect of her hands and interdigital spaces. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tinea manum is a superficial fungal infection of the hands characterised by dry scaly rash and also involves the interdigital spaces of the hands. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of feet, whereas onychomycosis represents a fungal infection of the nails, characterised by nail dystrophy, hyperkeratosis. Kerion is the name given to secondarily infected tinea capitis leading to a soft boggy swelling over the scalp. Psoriasis presents as silvery scales over the extensors of the body and it may involve the nails, scalp and joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following is true regarding Escherichia coli infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding Escherichia coli infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E coli is an important cause of neonatal meningitis

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli (also known as E. coli) is a gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Most E. coli strains are harmless, but some serotypes can cause serious food poisoning in their hosts, and are occasionally responsible for product recalls due to food contamination. The harmless strains are part of the normal flora of the gut, and can benefit their hosts by producing vitamin K2, and preventing colonization of the intestine with pathogenic bacteria. Virulent strains can cause gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, and neonatal meningitis.
      The most common causes of neonatal meningitis is bacterial infection of the blood, known as bacteremia (specifically Group B Streptococci (GBS; Streptococcus agalactiae), Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes). Although there is a low mortality rate in developed countries, there is a 50% prevalence rate of neurodevelopmental disabilities in E. coli and GBS meningitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding restless leg syndrome is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is three times as common in females

      Explanation:

      In restless leg syndrome (RLS), males and females are thought to be equally affected. RLS is a syndrome of spontaneous, continuous lower limb movements that may be associated with paraesthesia. It is extremely common, affecting between 2-10% of the general population and a family history may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
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