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  • Question 1 - A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and admits to a dislike of high fibre foods. The pain has been grumbling for the past couple of weeks and is partially relieved by defecation. He has suffered intermittent diarrhoea.   Blood testing reveals a neutrophilia, and there is also a microcytic anaemia. Barium enema shows multiple diverticula, more marked on the left-hand side of the colon.   Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Given that he has diverticula in the clinical scenario combined with his presenting symptoms, it is likely that he has diverticular disease. A low fibre diet would support this diagnosis. Acute diverticulitis would require treatment with antibiotics. Depending on the severity (Hinchey classification) would determine if he needs oral or IV antibiotics, hospital admission or outpatient treatment. Sometimes abscesses or micro perforations occur, which typical require drainage and possibly surgical intervention. Diverticular disease is clearly a better answer than other possible answer choices, simply based on the symptoms presented in the prompt (and mention of low fibre).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8 BP: 90/60 mmHg Pulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange MRI of right ankle

      Correct Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor. You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions. On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm. Blood investigations reveal: Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5) WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11) Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400) C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis

      Explanation:

      Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.

      In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.

      Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.
      During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common.
      Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms.

      Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship. What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
      Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
      Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis. What is the most likely primary tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old librarian presents for review. She has recently been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for developing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness in the UK. Degeneration of the central retina (macula) is the key feature with changes usually bilateral. Smoking and genetic factors are risk factors for macular degeneration. The severity is divided into early, intermediate, and late types. The late type is additionally divided into dry and wet forms with the dry form making up 90% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Where is secretin secreted from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is secretin secreted from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
      Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
      1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
      (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
      G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
      I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
      D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
      K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea....

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin. On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation. Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus Arterial blood gas on air: pH 7.34 pCO2 5.4 kPa pO2 9.0 kPa Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
      – Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      – Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      – Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      – Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
      Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
      Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
      Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)

      If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)

      For ICU patients:
      IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
      IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinolone

      If the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.

      The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a...

    Incorrect

    • 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for those who've had a stroke. Out of 170 patients, 120 received the aspirin in addition to the new drug with the remaining 50 patients receiving just aspirin. After 5 years, 18 out of the 120 patients receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and 10 out of the 50 patients receiving just aspirin, had had a stroke. What is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options. Control event rate = 10 / 50 = 0.2
      Experimental event rate = 18 / 120 = 0.15

      Absolute risk reduction = 0.2 – 0.15 = 0.05
      Number needed to treat = 1 / 0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 11 - A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which was not properly followed up, presented with right sided hemiparesis. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg. His ECG revealed right bundle branch block with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Ostium secundum atrial septal defects are known to cause stroke due to the passage of emboli from the right sided circulation to the left sided circulation. ECG shows tall, peaked P waves (usually best seen in leads II and V2) and prolongation of the PR interval, rSR pattern in leads V3 R and V1 as well as right axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 15 - Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, cognitive-behavioural therapy is the most likely to benefit a patient with schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: exfoliative skin rash

      Explanation:

      Clostridium species do not present with an exfoliative skin rash. C. perfringens is a common aetiology in necrotizing infections (gas gangrene) as well as food poisoning, which often also includes diarrhoea. C. difficle causes diarrhoea. C. tetany and C. botulinum have neurotoxins that can lead to paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infection causes; jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechia, microcephaly, hearing loss and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70 year old female presented with throbbing and continuous headache and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old female presented with throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Favus

      Explanation:

      Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family. The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic. Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies

      Explanation:

      CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:

      DVT likely: 2 points or more
      DVT unlikely: 1 point or less

      This system of points is based on the following clinical features:
      1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
      2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
      3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
      4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
      5. Entire leg swollen—1
      6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
      7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
      8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
      9. Previously documented DVT—1
      10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2

      If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
      If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’

      Management

      1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
      2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
      3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
      4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
      5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
      6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.

      As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
      1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
      2. Chest X-ray
      3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
      4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
      5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups of patients are randomly chosen. The first group takes an established anti-hypertensive drug for 3 months and the second group receives the new drug, again for 3 months. To assess the efficacy of the new drug, blood pressure is measured before and after taking the drug in both groups of patients. After a period of 1 month off medication, the groups swap medication and blood pressure is measured again, finally the difference in blood pressure after receiving each drug is calculated. Which of the following significance tests would you apply to assess the results of the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's paired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, and they belong to the same patients, so a paired t test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and an associated limp. She has a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for which she completed treatment for last six months.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head is a pathological process that results from disruption of the blood supply to the bone and occurs most commonly in the femoral epiphysis. Patients usually present with pain and limited joint motion. The mechanism involves impaired circulation to a specific area that ultimately becomes necrotic. AVN is most frequently associated with high doses of oral and intravenous corticosteroids and prolonged duration of therapy. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy are usually also treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l. Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 25 - A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
      of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

      The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease.
      Chickenpox: 7-21 days.
      Whooping cough: 10-14 days.
      Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days. German measles: 14-21 days.
      Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic...

    Incorrect

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Acromegaly.
      Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.

      Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.

      Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
      One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphedema

      Explanation:

      Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
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