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Question 1
Incorrect
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Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas sp.
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus in all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which is a feature of the action of insulin?
Your Answer: Promotes protein synthesis
Explanation:Insulin is produced by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Its actions include:
– promoting uptake of glucose into cells
– glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis)
– protein synthesis
– stimulation of lipogenesis (fat formation).
– driving potassium into cells – used to treat hyperkaelamia.
Parathyroid hormone and activated vitamin D are the principal hormones involved in calcium/phosphate metabolism, rather than insulin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Lingula
Correct Answer: Inferior lobe
Explanation:The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.
The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.
The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.
The middle lobe is only found on the right lung. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the tuberosity on the medial surface of the right navicular bone?
Your Answer: Tibialis anterior
Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The navicular bone is situated at the medial side of the tarsus, between the talus and the cuneiform bones. Its medial surface presents a rounded tuberosity, the lower part of which gives attachment to part of the tendon of the tibialis posterior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?
Your Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules
Explanation:The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?
Your Answer: First heart sound
Correct Answer: Second heart sound
Explanation:The beginning of ventricular systole corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex in the ECG. The beginning of the ventricular systole also corresponds to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, causing the first heart sound (S1). S2, the second heart sound is due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of ventricular systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?
Your Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:
Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone
Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone
Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone
Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?
Your Answer: Chlamydia
Explanation:Non-gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (50% cases). Less common organisms include Mycoplasma genitalium, Urea urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis. Chlamydia is also the commonest cause of non-gonococcal cervicitis in women and proctitis in both sexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 65-year old gentleman presents to the clinic with chronic back pain and weight loss. His blood count shows a white blood cell count of 10 × 109/l, with a differential count of 66 polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 7 bands, 3 metamyelocytes, 3 myelocytes, 14 lymphocytes, 7 monocytes, and 5 nucleated red blood cells. The haemoglobin is 13 g/dl with a haematocrit of 38.1%, a mean corpuscular volume of 82 fl, and a platelet count of 126 × 109/l. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metastatic carcinoma
Explanation:The peripheral blood findings suggest a leucoerythroblastic picture, the common causes of which in a 65-year old gentleman includes prostatic or lung malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally:
Your Answer: 0.40 s
Explanation:QT interval extends from beginning of the QRS complex till the end of he T-wave and normally lasts for 0.40 s. It is important in the diagnosis of long-QT and short-QT syndrome. The QT interval varies on the basis of heart rate and may need to be corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm left lower lobe well-defined round opacity. Which of the following conditions is most probably responsible for this finding?
Your Answer: Large-cell undifferentiated carcinoma
Correct Answer: Pulmonary hamartoma
Explanation:An asymptomatic healthy patient with no history of smoking and a lesion of small size most probably has a benign lung lesion. Hamartomas are one of the most common benign tumours of the lung that accounts for approximately 6% of all solitary pulmonary nodules. Pulmonary hamartomas are usually asymptomatic and therefore are found incidentally when performing an imaging test for other reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 46 year old politician with chronic hepatitis for several years visits the clinic for a review. Recently, his AFP is noted to be increased and an abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a 2.2cm lesion in segment V of the liver. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Liver MRI
Explanation:In patients with liver tumours, it is crucial to detect and stage the tumours at an early stage (to select patients who will benefit from curative liver resection, and avoid unnecessary surgery). Therefore, an optimal preoperative evaluation of the liver is necessary, and a contrast-enhanced MRI is widely considered the state-of-the-art method. Liver MRI without contrast administration is appropriate for cholelithiasis but not sufficient for most liver tumour diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A 40-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident. A FAST scan in the emergency department shows free intrabdominal fluid. A laparotomy is performed during which there is evidence of small liver laceration that has stopped bleeding and a tear to the inferior pole of the spleen. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Attempt measures to conserve the spleen
Explanation:Spleen injuries are among the most frequent trauma-related injuries. At present, they are classified according to the anatomy of the injury. The optimal treatment strategy, however, should take into consideration the hemodynamic status, the anatomic derangement, and the associated injuries. The management of splenic trauma patients aims to restore the homeostasis and the normal physiopathology especially considering the modern tools for bleeding management.
The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. This varies from institution to institution but usually includes patients with stable hemodynamic signs, stable haemoglobin levels over 12-48 hours, minimal transfusion requirements (2 U or less), CT scan injury scale grade of 1 or 2 without a blush, and patients younger than 55 years.
Surgical therapy is usually reserved for patients with signs of ongoing bleeding or hemodynamic instability. In some institutions, CT scan–assessed grade V splenic injuries with stable vitals may be observed closely without operative intervention, but most patients with these injuries will undergo exploratory laparotomy for more precise staging, repair, or removal.A retrospective analysis by Scarborough et al compared the effectiveness of nonoperative management with immediate splenectomy for adult patients with grade IV or V blunt splenic injury. The study found that both approaches had similar rates of in-hospital mortality (11.5% in the splenectomy group vs 10.0%), however, there was a higher incidence of infectious complications in the immediate splenectomy group. The rate of failure in the nonoperative management was 20.1% and symptoms of a bleeding disorder, the need for an early blood transfusion, and grade V injury were all early predictors of nonoperative management failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with an embolus in the brachial artery. A cervical rib is suspected as being the underlying cause. From which of the following vertebral levels does the cervical rib arise?
Your Answer: C7
Explanation:A cervical rib in humans is an extra rib which arises from the C7 vertebra. Its presence is a congenital abnormality located above the normal first rib, and it consists of an anomalous fibrous band that often originates from C7 and may arc towards but rarely reaches the sternum. It is estimated to occur in 0.2% to 0.5% of the population. People may have a cervical rib on the right, left, or both sides.
Most cases of cervical ribs are not clinically relevant and do not have symptoms; cervical ribs are generally discovered incidentally. However, they vary widely in size and shape, and in rare cases, they may cause problems such as contributing to thoracic outlet syndrome due to compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus or subclavian artery.
Compression of the brachial plexus may be identified by weakness of the muscles near the base of the thumb. Compression of the subclavian artery is often diagnosed by finding a positive Adson’s sign on examination, where the radial pulse in the arm is lost during abduction and external rotation of the shoulder.
Treatment is most commonly undertaken when there is evidence of neurovascular compromise. A transaxillary approach is the traditional operative method for excision of the cervical rib.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 15
Correct
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An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:
Your Answer: Middle colic artery
Explanation:The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following changes in the histology of the cell is most likely to be accompanied by disruption of the cell membrane following an injury?
Your Answer: Coagulative necrosis
Explanation:The process of necrosis ends with the rupture of the cell membrane and the consequent release of the cellular components into the surrounding tissue. Apoptosis, pyknosis and karyorrhexis are not reversible events but the cell membrane remains intact. Cloudy swelling and hydropic changes are also reversible but again the cell membrane remains intact and they are therefore different and distinct from necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 17
Correct
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A group of surgeons in the colorectal unit wish to identify if there is a significant difference in their individual leak rates for anterior resection of the rectum. Which investigation would be appropriate?
Your Answer: Kruskall Wallis test
Explanation:Answer: Kruskall Wallis test
Kruskall Wallis test is a non-parametric method for testing whether samples originate from the same distribution. It is used for comparing two or more independent samples of equal or different sample sizes. It extends the Mann–Whitney U test, which is used for comparing only two groups. The parametric equivalent of the Kruskal–Wallis test is the one-way analysis of variance (ANOVA).
T-tests are useful for comparing the means of two samples. There are two types: paired and unpaired.Paired means that both samples consist of the same test subjects. A paired t-test is equivalent to a one-sample t-test.
Unpaired means that both samples consist of distinct test subjects. An unpaired t-test is equivalent to a two-sample t-test.
A chi-squared test, also written as χ2 test, is any statistical hypothesis test where the sampling distribution of the test statistic is a chi-squared distribution when the null hypothesis is true. The chi-squared test is used to determine whether there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in one or more categories.Fisher’s exact test is a statistical test used to determine if there are non-random associations between two categorical variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Management And Legal Issues In Surgery
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 18
Correct
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A 22-year-old male presents with a 10-day history of right-sided abdominal pain. Prior to this, he was well. On examination, he has a low-grade fever and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. The rest of his abdomen is soft. An abdominal USS demonstrates matted bowel loops surrounding a thickened appendix. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Manage conservatively with antibiotics
Explanation:The patient mostly has an appendicular mass.
At present, the treatment of choice for uncomplicated acute appendicitis in adults continues to be surgical. The inflammation in acute appendicitis may sometimes be enclosed by the patient’s own defence mechanisms, by the formation of an inflammatory phlegmon or a circumscribed abscess. The management of these patients is controversial. An immediate appendectomy may be technically demanding. The exploration often ends up in an ileocecal resection or a right-sided hemicolectomy. Recently, the conditions for conservative management of these patients have changed due to the development of computed tomography and ultrasound, which has improved the diagnosis of enclosed inflammation and made drainage of intra-abdominal abscesses easier. New efficient antibiotics have also given new opportunities for nonsurgical treatment of complicated appendicitis. The traditional management of these patients is nonsurgical treatment followed by interval appendectomy to prevent a recurrence. The need for interval appendectomy after successful nonsurgical treatment has recently been questioned because the risk of recurrence is relatively small.
In patients with suspicion of contained appendiceal inflammation, based on a palpable mass or long duration of symptoms, the diagnosis should be confirmed by imaging techniques, especially CT scan. The patient should receive primary nonsurgical treatment with antibiotics and abscess drainage as needed. After successful nonsurgical treatment, no interval appendectomy is indicated in some cases, but the patient should be informed about the risk of recurrence especially in the presence of appendicolith. The risk of missing another underlying condition (cancer or CD) is low, but motivates a follow-up with a colon examination and/or a CT scan or US, especially in patients above the age of 40 years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old ultra marathon runner becomes severely dehydrated and collapses. This patient most likely has:
Your Answer: Decreased baroreceptor firing rate
Explanation:Baroreceptors are sensors located in the blood vessels of all vertebrate animals. They sense the blood pressure and relay the information to the brain, so that a proper blood pressure can be maintained. Acute dehydration results in decreased plasma volume and increased plasma osmolarity, since more water than salt is lost in sweat. The decrease in plasma volume leads to an inhibition of the baroreceptors and a lower firing rate. The increase in plasma osmolarity leads to increased ADH secretion and high plasma ADH levels, which increases water permeability of collecting duct cells. Therefore more water is reabsorbed by the kidneys and renal water excretion is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:
1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
2. LH (luteinizing hormone)
3. Growth hormone
4. Prolactin
5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).
The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:
1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
2. Oxytocin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and an appendicectomy is to be performed.Which of the following incision is the best for this procedure?
Your Answer: Lanz
Explanation:Answer: Lanz
The Lanz and Gridiron incisions are two incisions that can be used to access the appendix, predominantly for appendectomy.
Both incisions are made at McBurney’s point (two-thirds from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine). They involve passing through all of the abdominal muscles, transversalis fascia, and then the peritoneum, before entering the abdominal cavity.
The Lanz incision is a transverse incision, whilst the Gridiron incision is oblique (superolateral to inferomedial). Due to its continuation with Langer’s lines, the Lanz incision produces much more aesthetically pleasing results with reduced scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man underwent CT scan of the whole abdomen. The result showed renal cell carcinoma with a tumour size of 7cm and extension into the regional lymph. What is the clinical stage of his renal cell cancer?
Your Answer: Stage II
Correct Answer: Stage III
Explanation:Renal cell carcinoma is a kidney cancer that originates in the lining of the proximal convoluted tubule. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults, responsible for approximately 90–95% of cases. Renal cell carcinomas can be staged by using the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM (tumour-node-metastasis) classification, as follows: Stage I: tumours that are 7 cm or smaller and confined to the kidney, Stage II: tumours that are larger than 7 cm but still confined to the kidney, Stage III: tumours extending into the renal vein or vena cava, involving the ipsilateral adrenal gland and/or perinephric fat, or which have spread to one local lymph node and Stage IV: tumours extending beyond Gerota’s fascia, to more than one local node, or with distant metastases Recent literature has questioned whether the cut-off in size between stage I and stage II tumours should be 5 cm instead of 7 cm. The patient’s cancer in this case is stage III.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 22 year old male sustains a distal radius fracture during a rugby match. Imaging shows a comminuted fracture with involvement of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Open reduction and internal fixation
Explanation:Fractures of the distal radius account for up to 20% of all fractures treated in the emergency department. Initial assessment includes a history of the mechanism of injury, associated injury and appropriate radiological evaluation
Most of the fractures are caused by a fall on the outstretched hand with the wrist in dorsiflexion. The form and severity of fracture of distal radius as well as the concomitant injury of disco-ligamentary structures of the wrist also depend on the position of the wrist at the moment of hitting the ground. The width of this angle influences the localization of the fracture. Pronation, supination and abduction determine the direction of the force and the compression of the carpus and different appearances of ligament injuries.
The basic principle of fracture treatment is to obtain accurate fracture reduction and then to use a method of immobilization that will maintain and hold that reduction. While the goal of treatment in fracture distal end of the radius is the restoration of normal function, the precise methods to achieve that desired outcome are controversial. Intra-articular fractures of the distal end of the radius can be difficult to treat, at times, with a traditional conservative method. A number of options for treatment are available to prevent the loss of reduction in an unstable fracture of the distal end of the radius.
One of the recent advances in the treatment of distal radius fractures is the more frequent application of open reduction and internal fixation, especially for intra-articular fractures. There are two groups of fractures for which open reduction and internal fixation is advisable.
The first group includes the two-part shear fracture (Barton fracture), which actually is a radio-carpal fracture-dislocation. Although the anatomical reduction is possible by closed means in some cases, these fractures are very unstable and difficult to control in plaster. The second group includes complex intra-articular fractures in which the articular fragments are displaced, rotated or impacted and are not amenable to reduction through limited operative exposure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.
Your Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale
Explanation:The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and
an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old female with a metallic heart valve has just undergone an elective paraumbilical hernia repair. In view of her metallic valve, she is given unfractionated heparin perioperatively. How should the therapeutic efficacy be monitored, assuming her renal function is normal?
Your Answer: Measurement of APTT
Explanation:Because of the substantial risk of thromboembolism early after valve replacement, perioperative initiation of anticoagulation is necessary, despite the increased risk for bleeding. Anticoagulation should be initiated within 24 h after the procedure with unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
Heparin is monitored by checking the activated partial thromboplastin time or anti-Xa activity.
Oral anticoagulants are monitored by INR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 26
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?
Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68 year old man who is scheduled for an amputation suddenly presents to the physician with episodes of vertigo and dysarthria. After a while he collapses and his GCS is recorded to be 3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this presentation?
Your Answer: Cerebral haemorrhage in left temporal parietal area
Correct Answer: Basilar artery occlusion
Explanation:The clinical presentation of basilar artery occlusion (BAO) ranges from mild transient symptoms to devastating strokes with high fatality and morbidity. Often, non-specific prodromal symptoms such as vertigo or headaches are indicative of BAO, and are followed by the hallmarks of BAO, including decreased consciousness, quadriparesis, pupillary and oculomotor abnormalities, dysarthria, and dysphagia. When clinical findings suggest an acute brainstem disorder, BAO has to be confirmed or ruled out as a matter of urgency. If BAO is recognised early and confirmed with multimodal CT or MRI, intravenous thrombolysis or endovascular treatment can be undertaken. The goal of thrombolysis is to restore blood flow in the occluded artery and salvage brain tissue; however, the best treatment approach to improve clinical outcome still needs to be ascertained.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet gun. He hides the injury for over a week before he is taken to his doctor. CT scan shows that the pellet is lodged in his liver's left lobe. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination and he seems well. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Operate and remove the pellet on the next emergency list
Correct Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later
Explanation:Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later
Air weapon injuries in children should be managed in the same way as any low velocity gun shot injury. Subcutaneous pellets are best removed. Urgent specialist referral is indicated for cranial, ocular, chest, abdominal, or vascular injuries as they may require emergency surgery. Cardiac injuries may be rapidly fatal. Penetrating abdominal injuries involving hollow viscera or major blood vessels need prompt exploration and repair. Intracranial air weapon pellets should be removed if possible. A pellet in lung parenchyma or muscle may be safely left in situ but there is a risk of infection. A pellet that has penetrated a joint or is associated with a fracture requires skilled orthopaedic management. A pellet lodged near a major blood vessel or nerve should ideally be removed. The possibility of intravascular embolism must be considered if the pellet is absent from a suspected entry site and there is no exit wound; numerous examples of arterial and venous embolism of an air weapon pellet in children have been described.
In this case, the child seems well so there is no need to operate. He should be reviewed several weeks later.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 63-year old lady presents with pain in multiple bones and renal failure. On enquiry, there is history of recurrent pneumonia in the past. What will be the likely finding on her bone marrow biopsy?
Your Answer: Reed–Sternberg cells
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that produce excessive monoclonal immunoglobulins. The disease presents with bone pains, renal dysfunction, increased calcium, anaemia and recurrent infections. Diagnosis is by demonstrating the presence of M-protein in urine or serum, lytic bone lesions, light chain proteinuria or excessive plasma cells on marrow biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 39 year old female is admitted with biliary colic. Investigations show gallstones. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy is performed and a large stone is impacted in Hartman's pouch. After the operation, she fails to settle and becomes jaundiced. Bile continues to collect from the drain placed at the surgical site. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange an ERCP
Explanation:Advances in endoscopy have suggested wider use of ERCP, which in the past was mostly restricted to the treatment of biliary fistulas and to patients with associated medical disease. Several series in literature demonstrate that ERCP with stenting for major bile duct injuries in the form of incomplete strictures has comparable efficacy with surgery and lower rates of morbidity and mortality, but few give long-term results.
Bile duct injuries (BDI) can occur after many abdominal operations, e.g. liver surgery, gastrectomy, common bile duct (CBD) exploration. However, the majority of postoperative bile duct injuries (POBDI) occur during open or laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Despite increasing experience with laparoscopy, a review of 1.6 million cholecystectomies demonstrated an unchanging 0.5% incidence of bile duct injury, reported after many days post operation, of abdominal pain, bile leak, jaundice or cholangitis. Only 30% of injuries are recognized at the time of operation.
Bile duct injuries, particularly strictures, have traditionally been managed by surgical reconstruction (Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy). The reported occurrence of symptomatic anastomotic strictures after long-term follow-up of surgical reconstruction ranges from 9-25 %. Surgery is definitely associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Endoscopic treatment has demonstrated results comparable to those achieved with surgery, with lower morbidity and mortality. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 31
Correct
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After a severe asthma attack, a 26-year-old woman is left in a markedly hypoxic state. In which of the following organs are the arterial beds most likely to be vasoconstricted due to the hypoxia?
Your Answer: Lungs
Explanation:Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is a local response to hypoxia resulting primarily from constriction of small muscular pulmonary arteries in response to reduced alveolar oxygen tension. This unique response of pulmonary arterioles results in a local adjustment of perfusion to ventilation. This means that if a bronchiole is obstructed, the lack of oxygen causes contraction of the pulmonary vascular smooth muscle in the corresponding area, shunting blood away from the hypoxic region to better-ventilated regions. The purpose of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction is to distribute blood flow regionally to increase the overall efficiency of gas exchange between air and blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 29-year-old man who plays social rugby presents with recurrent anterior dislocation of the right shoulder. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present?
Your Answer: Bankart lesion
Explanation:This patient has a Bankart lesion which is the most common underlying abnormality in recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder.
Bankart lesion is an injury of the anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum of the shoulder due to anterior shoulder dislocation. When this happens, a pocket at the front of the glenoid forms that allows the humeral head to dislocate into it. It is usually visualised by CT and MRI scanning and is often repaired arthroscopically.
Shoulder fractures and dislocations usually result from low-energy falls in predominantly elderly females or from high-energy trauma in young males. They can be associated with nerve injury (commonly axillary), and fracture-dislocation of the humeral head. Anterior shoulder dislocation (glenohumeral dislocation) is the most common type of shoulder dislocation (>90%) and is usually traumatic in nature.
Early assessment of shoulder dislocation:
Careful history, examination, and documentation of neurovascular status of the upper limb, in particular the axillary nerve, is important. This should be re-assessed after manipulation. Early radiographs should also be done to confirm the direction of the dislocation.Initial management of anterior dislocation:
It consists of emergent closed reduction (to prevent lasting chondral damage) under Entonox and analgesia, but often requires conscious sedation. The affected arm should then be immobilised in a polysling. Initial management requires emergent reduction to prevent lasting chondral damage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man who is a known case of hepatitis C presents with pain and swelling in the right groin. On examination, a large, pulsatile swelling is noted in the right groin. There is no cough impulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: False aneurysm of the femoral artery
Explanation:Based on the history and examination findings, the correct diagnosis is false aneurysm of the femoral artery. It may occur following arterial trauma in intravenous drug users.
A false aneurysm, or pseudoaneurysm of the vessels, occurs when a blood vessel wall is injured and the leaking blood collects in the surrounding tissue. It is not an enlargement of any of the layers of the vessel wall. Pseudoaneurysms usually present as a painful, tender, pulsatile mass. Diagnostic options include duplex scan, and CT angiogram or a conventional angiogram.
In a true aneurysm, the artery or vessel weakens and bulges, usually forming a blood-filled sac.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is most likely to be irritated in this patient?
Your Answer: Right phrenic
Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal
Explanation:Tracheobronchial lymph nodes are located at the bifurcation of the trachea and are in three groups i.e. the right superior, left superior and inferior. The aorta arches over the left bronchus near the point of tracheal bifurcation. Thus, the nerves that are closely associated with the aorta might be irritated if these nodes become inflamed. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is such a nerve. The phrenic nerves, both the left and the right, are lateral and thus would not be affected. The right recurrent nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and is distant from this area. The right vagus artery is not associated with the aorta and the sympathetic chain is located in the posterior chest parallel to the vertebra, also not associated with the tracheobronchial tree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 35
Correct
-
A 6 year old girl falls during dance class and fractures the growth plate of her left wrist. Which system can be used to classify the injury?
Your Answer: Salter - Harris system
Explanation:A Salter–Harris fracture is a fracture that involves the epiphyseal plate or growth plate of a bone, specifically the zone of provisional calcification. It is a common injury found in children, occurring in 15% of childhood long bone fractures.
There are nine types of Salter–Harris fractures; types I to V as described by Robert B Salter and W Robert Harris in 1963, and the rarer types VI to IX which have been added subsequently:
Type I – transverse fracture through the growth plate (also referred to as the physis): 6% incidence
Type II – A fracture through the growth plate and the metaphysis, sparing the epiphysis: 75% incidence, takes approximately 12-90 weeks or more in the spine to heal.
Type III – A fracture through growth plate and epiphysis, sparing the metaphysis: 8% incidence
Type IV – A fracture through all three elements of the bone, the growth plate, metaphysis, and epiphysis: 10% incidence
Type V – A compression fracture of the growth plate (resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and metaphysis on x-ray): 1% incidence
Type VI – Injury to the peripheral portion of the physis and a resultant bony bridge formation which may produce an angular deformity (added in 1969 by Mercer Rang)
Type VII – Isolated injury of the epiphyseal plate (VII–IX added in 1982 by JA Ogden)
Type VIII – Isolated injury of the metaphysis with possible impairment of endochondral ossification
Type IX – Injury of the periosteum which may impair intramembranous ossificationThe mnemonic SALTER can be used to help remember the first five types.
N.B.: This mnemonic requires the reader to imagine the bones as long bones, with the epiphyses at the base.I – S = Slip (separated or straight across). Fracture of the cartilage of the physis (growth plate)
II – A = Above. The fracture lies above the physis, or Away from the joint.
III – L = Lower. The fracture is below the physis in the epiphysis.
IV – TE = Through Everything. The fracture is through the metaphysis, physis, and epiphysis.
V – R = Rammed (crushed). The physis has been crushed.
Alternatively, SALTER can be used for the first 6 types, as above but adding Type V — ‘E’ for ‘Everything’ or ‘Epiphysis’ and Type VI — ‘R’ for ‘Ring’. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On examination, a small pneumothorax is found. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: CT scan of the chest
Correct Answer: Insertion of chest drain
Explanation:For a rib fracture to cause pneumothorax, there must also be laceration to the underlying lung parenchyma. This has the risk of developing into a tension pneumothorax. Therefore, a chest drain should be inserted and the patient admitted.
Pneumothorax is a collection of free air in the chest cavity that causes the lung to collapse. The most common cause of pneumothorax is lung laceration with air leakage. In some instances, the lung continues to leak air into the chest cavity and results in compression of the chest structures, including vessels that return blood to the heart. This is known as a tension pneumothorax and can be fatal if not treated immediately. Blunt or penetrating chest trauma that creates a flap-type defect on the surface of the lung can result in this life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 37
Correct
-
An 18-year-old male is admitted with a three-month history of intermittent pain in the right iliac fossa. He suffers from episodic diarrhoea and has lost two kilograms of weight. On examination, he is febrile and has right iliac fossa tenderness.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:A history of weight loss and intermittent diarrhoea makes inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) the most likely diagnosis. Conditions such as appendicitis and infections have a much shorter history. Although Meckel’s diverticulum can bleed and cause inflammation, it seldom causes marked weight loss. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presents with alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhoea along with abdominal pain, bloating, and gas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 38
Correct
-
A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:
Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus
Explanation:Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.
Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.
Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.
Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.
Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.
Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 39
Correct
-
What is the linea aspera:
Your Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh
Explanation:The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Dermis of the skin
Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with a long history of severe perianal Crohn's disease involving multiple fistulae. Her disease is progressive with multiple episodes of rectal bleeding. However, she wants to avoid a stoma.Colonoscopy and small bowel study reveals that the disease does not extend beyond the rectum.What should be the best operative strategy?
Your Answer: Abdominoperineal excision of the colon and rectum
Correct Answer: Proctectomy and end stoma
Explanation:Proctectomy with end stoma is the best operative strategy in severe perianal and/or rectal Crohn’s disease.
Surgical resection of Crohn’s disease does not provide a complete cure but it may produce substantial symptomatic improvement. Indications for surgery include complications such as fistulae, abscess formation, and strictures.
Colonoscopy and a small bowel study (e.g. MR enteroclysis imaging) are used to stage Crohn’s disease to facilitate decision-making regarding surgery.
Complex perianal fistulae are best managed with long-term draining seton sutures. Severe perianal and/or rectal Crohn’s disease usually require proctectomy with formation of end stoma. Ileoanal pouch reconstruction carries a high risk of fistula formation and pouch failure and is, therefore, not recommended. Terminal ileal Crohn’s remains one of the most common form of the disease, and it may be treated with limited ileocaecal resections. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 42
Correct
-
Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 43
Correct
-
A 33 year old woman, with invasive ductal carcinoma, presents with a lesion suspicious for metastatic disease in the left lobe of her liver. Past history includes wide local excision and axillary node clearance (5 nodes present) of the tumour. It is oestrogen receptor negative and HER 2 positive with vascular invasion. Which of the following agents will be the most beneficial in this setting?
Your Answer: Trastuzumab
Explanation:The treatment approach primarily depends on the histopathologic classification and the disease stage and involves a combination of surgical management, radiation therapy, and systemic therapy. Surgical management is either breast-conserving therapy (BCT) or mastectomy. Systemic therapy has significantly improved in recent years with the development of hormone therapy (tamoxifen) and targeted therapy (trastuzumab). The most important prognostic factors are lymph node status, tumour size, patient’s age, and tumour receptor status (hormone receptors and HER2).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 44
Correct
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A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?
Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics
Explanation:Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ‘potassium-sparing diuretics’, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 45
Correct
-
The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Middle meatus
Explanation:The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 46
Correct
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A 39 year old male is identified as having gallstones after presenting with colicky right upper quadrant pain. An abdominal ultrasound scan was done. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Liver function tests
Explanation:In patients with suspected gallstone complications, blood tests should include a complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential, liver function panel, and amylase and lipase. Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis.
Acute cholecystitis is associated with polymorphonuclear leucocytosis. However, up to one third of the patients with cholecystitis may not manifest leucocytosis. In severe cases, mild elevations of liver enzymes may be caused by inflammatory injury of the adjacent liver.
Patients with cholangitis and pancreatitis have abnormal laboratory test values. Importantly, a single abnormal laboratory value does not confirm the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis, cholangitis, or pancreatitis; rather, a coherent set of laboratory studies leads to the correct diagnosis.
Choledocholithiasis with acute common bile duct (CBD) obstruction initially produces an acute increase in the level of liver transaminases (alanine and aspartate aminotransferases), followed within hours by a rising serum bilirubin level. The higher the bilirubin level, the greater the predictive value for CBD obstruction. CBD stones are present in approximately 60% of patients with serum bilirubin levels greater than 3 mg/dL.
If obstruction persists, a progressive decline in the level of transaminases with rising alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels may be noted over several days. Prothrombin time may be elevated in patients with prolonged CBD obstruction, secondary to depletion of vitamin K (the absorption of which is bile-dependent). Concurrent obstruction of the pancreatic duct by a stone in the ampulla of Vater may be accompanied by increases in serum lipase and amylase levels.
Repeated testing over hours to days may be useful in evaluating patients with gallstone complications. Improvement of the levels of bilirubin and liver enzymes may indicate spontaneous passage of an obstructing stone. Conversely, rising levels of bilirubin and transaminases with progression of leucocytosis in the face of antibiotic therapy may indicate ascending cholangitis with the need for urgent intervention. Blood culture results are positive in 30%-60% of patients with cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 47
Correct
-
Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?
Your Answer: Anasarca
Explanation:Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 48
Correct
-
A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect:
Your Answer: Regulation of circadian rhythm
Explanation:The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus is responsible for controlling endogenous circadian rhythms and destruction of the SCN leads to a loss of circadian rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 49
Correct
-
A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:
Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?
Your Answer: Antithrombin III
Explanation:Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.
Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?
Your Answer: Abducent
Explanation:The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 52
Correct
-
Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?
Your Answer: Intrinsic factor
Explanation:Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who has noticed a swelling in the right hemiscrotum. On examination, there is a firm mass affecting the right spermatic cord distally, the testis is felt separately from it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inguino scrotal hernia
Correct Answer: Rhabdomyosarcoma
Explanation:Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS) is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children.
Rhabdomyosarcoma usually manifests as an expanding mass. Tumours in superficial locations may be palpable and detected relatively early, but those in deep locations (e.g., retroperitoneum) may grow large before causing symptoms.
Symptoms depend on the location of the tumour, and pain may be present. Typical presentations of nonmetastatic disease, by location, are as follows:
Orbit: Proptosis or dysconjugate gaze
Paratesticular: Painless scrotal mass, testes are felt separately
Prostate: Bladder or bowel difficulties
Uterus, cervix, bladder: Menorrhagia or metrorrhagia
Vagina: Protruding polypoid mass (botryoid, meaning a grapelike cluster)
Extremity: Painless mass
Parameningeal (ear, mastoid, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, infratemporal fossa, pterygopalatine fossa): Upper respiratory symptoms or painIn the international classification of rhabdomyosarcoma, there are 5 recognized variants: embryonal, alveolar, botryoid embryonal, spindle cell embryonal and anaplastic. The most common variant is embryonal, most associated with tumours of the genitourinary tract and the head and neck. Histologically, the embryonal subtype resembles that of a 6- to an 8-week old embryo.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis, arthralgia without joint deformity and episodes of myalgia for the past 12 months. Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia. Which of the following tests should be performed to investigate this condition further?
Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy
Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody test
Explanation:These non specific findings are suggestive of autoimmune disease. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) is the first test that should be performed when autoimmune diseases are suspected and later on more specific tests should be performed. This tests aids in the diagnosis of SLE, scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome etc. To confirm the disease a history, physical examination along with specific tests are required.
CPK is more specific for acute conditions.
ESR is a non specific test for inflammation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
Which of the following veins is prostate cancer most likely to metastasize through?
Your Answer: Testicular vein
Correct Answer: Internal vertebral venous plexus
Explanation:The internal vertebral veins are the most likely route of metastasis as they are valveless. They serve an important clinical role as they are the route of free travel for cancerous cells to other body structures. The other veins on the list have valves and would be the least likely routes for metastasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 56
Correct
-
A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?
Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
Explanation:The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.
The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)
The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):
G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone
F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids
R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.
Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old waiter is stabbed in the right upper quadrant during a fight at the restaurant and is haemodynamically unstable. He is rushed to the hospital where a laparotomy is performed and the liver has some extensive superficial lacerations and is bleeding profusely. He becomes progressively more haemodynamically unstable. What is the best management option?
Your Answer: Perform a portosystemic shunt procedure
Correct Answer: Pack the liver and close the abdomen
Explanation:Perihepatic packing is a surgical procedure used in connection with surgery to the liver. In this procedure the liver is packed to stop non arterial bleeding, most often caused by liver injury.
During this surgery laparotomy pads are placed around the site of the bleeding. The main purpose of hepatic packing is to prevent the person from succumbing to the trauma triad of death. Under- or over-packing of the liver can cause adverse outcomes, and if the bleeding cannot be controlled through this surgical method, the Pringle manoeuvre is an alternate technique that can be utilized.
Rebleeding, constant decline of haemoglobin and increased transfusion requirement, as well as the failure of angioembolization of actively bleeding vessels are a few factors which indicate the need for laparotomy.
The operative approach has also evolved over the last two decades. Direct suture ligation of the parenchymal bleeding vessel, perihepatic packing, repair of venous injury under total vascular isolation and damage control surgery with utilization of preoperative and/or postoperative angioembolization are the preferred methods, compared to anatomical resection of the liver and use of the atriocaval shunt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Infectious arthritis
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
A middle aged man who is reported to have a penicillin allergy is given a dose of intravenous co-amoxiclav before undergoing an inguinal hernia repair. His vital signs a few minutes after are: pulse 131bpm and blood pressure 61/42mmHg. Which of the following is the first line treatment?
Your Answer: Chlorpheniramine 10mg IV
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 IM
Explanation:Answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 IM
Early treatment with intramuscular adrenaline is the treatment of choice for patients having an anaphylactic reaction. IM Injection:
Adults: The usual dose is 500 micrograms (0.5ml of adrenaline 1/1000). If necessary, this dose may be repeated several times at 5-minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.
Additional measures
Beta2-agonists for bronchospasm: administer salbutamol or terbutaline by aerosol or nebuliser.
Antihistamines: administer both H1and H2receptor blockers slowly intravenously:
promethazine 0.5-1 mg/kg
and
ranitidine 1 mg/kg or famotidine 0.4 mg/kg or cimetidine 4 mg/kg
Corticosteroids: administer intravenously: hydrocortisone 2-6 mg/kg or dexamethasone 0.1-0.4 mg/kg
Nebulised adrenaline (5 mL of 1:1000) may be tried in laryngeal oedema and often will ease upper airways obstruction. However, do not delay intubation if upper airways obstruction is progressive.Anaphylaxis is an acute, potentially fatal, multiorgan system reaction caused by the release of chemical mediators from mast cells and basophils. The classic form involves prior sensitization to an allergen with later reexposure, producing symptoms via an immunologic mechanism.
Anaphylaxis most commonly affects the cutaneous, respiratory, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal systems. The skin or mucous membranes are involved in 80-90% of cases. A majority of adult patients have some combination of urticaria, erythema, pruritus, or angioedema. However, for poorly understood reasons, children may present more commonly with respiratory symptoms followed by cutaneous symptoms. It is also important to note that some of the most severe cases of anaphylaxis present in the absence of skin findings.
Initially, patients often experience pruritus and flushing. Other symptoms can evolve rapidly, such as the following:
Dermatologic/ocular: Flushing, urticaria, angioedema, cutaneous and/or conjunctival injection or pruritus, warmth, and swelling
Respiratory: Nasal congestion, coryza, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, throat tightness, wheezing, shortness of breath, cough, hoarseness, dyspnoea
Cardiovascular: Dizziness, weakness, syncope, chest pain, palpitations
Gastrointestinal: Dysphagia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, bloating, cramps
Neurologic: Headache, dizziness, blurred vision, and seizure (very rare and often associated with hypotension)
Other: Metallic taste, feeling of impending doom
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 60
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck:
Your Answer: Superficial fascia
Correct Answer: Prevertebral fascia
Explanation:The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck which has the following boundaries:
Apex: Union of the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone
Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius
Base: Middle one third of the clavicle
Roof: Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
Floor: The anterolateral portion of prevertebral fascia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old chef presents to the hospital with profuse bloody diarrhoea. He also complains of frequent urge to defecate and pain before and during defecation. A sigmoidoscopy is arranged which reveals necrosis and ulceration of the descending colon mucosa. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Correct Answer: Infection with enteroinvasive E. coli
Explanation:Necrosis and ulcers of the colon are a feature of infection with enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC). It presents with a dysentery-type illness similar to shigellosis.
E. coli have different strains that cause a wide range of conditions. The four main types are:
1. Enteropathogenic E. coli—cause watery diarrhoea, vomiting, and low-grade fever
2. Enteroinvasive E. coli—cause dysentery, large bowel necrosis, and ulcers
3. Enterotoxigenic E. coli—cause traveller’s diarrhoea
4. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7—cause haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uremic syndrome, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 62
Correct
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A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?
Your Answer: Middle meatus
Explanation:The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head will be performed. In which layer of the scalp are the nerves and blood vessels located?
Your Answer: Aponeurosis
Correct Answer: Connective tissue
Explanation:The scalp is the anatomical area bordered by the face at the front, and by the neck at the sides and back. The scalp is usually described as having five layers:
1. The skin which contains numerous sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
2. The connective tissue, a dense subcutaneous layer of fat and fibrous tissue that lies beneath the skin, containing the nerves and vessels of the scalp.
3. The aponeurosis or galea aponeurotica, a tough layer of dense fibrous tissue which runs from the frontalis muscle anteriorly to the occipitalis posteriorly.
4. The loose areolar connective tissue layer provides an easy plane of separation between the upper three layers and the pericranium.
5. The pericranium is the periosteum of the skull bones and provides nutrition to the bone and the capacity for repair. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is:
Your Answer: Histotoxic hypoxia
Correct Answer: Hypoxic hypoxia
Explanation:Hypoxia is when the whole body or a region is deprived of adequate oxygen supply. Different types of hypoxia include the following:
– Hypoxic hypoxia, which occurs due to poor oxygen supply, as a result of low partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood. This could be due to low partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen (e.g., at high altitude), sleep apnoea, poor ventilation because of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or respiratory arrest, or shunts. The other types of hypoxia have a normal partial pressure of oxygen.
– Anaemic hypoxia occurs due to low total oxygen content of the blood, with a normal arterial oxygen pressure.
– Hyperaemic hypoxia occurs due to poor delivery of oxygen to target tissues, such as in carbon monoxide poisoning or methemoglobinemia.
– Histotoxic hypoxia results due to inability of the cells to use the delivered oxygen due to disabled oxidative phosphorylation enzymes.
– Ischaemic (or stagnant) hypoxia occurs due to local flow restriction of well-oxygenated blood, seen in cases like cerebral ischaemia, ischaemic heart disease and intrauterine hypoxia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old male injured his ankle playing football. On examination, he has tenderness over both medial and lateral malleoli. X-ray demonstrates a bimalleolar fracture with a displaced distal fibula fracture, at the level of the syndesmosis and fracture of the medial malleolus with talar shift. The ankle has been provisionally reduced and splinted in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Below knee amputation
Correct Answer: Surgical fixation
Explanation:The patient has Denis B fracture, unstable fracture requiring open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
open reduction internal fixation indications:
– any talar displacement
– displaced isolated medial malleolar fracture
– displaced isolated lateral malleolar fracture
– bimalleolar fracture and bimalleolar-equivalent fracture
– posterior malleolar fracture with > 25% or > 2mm step-off
– Bosworth fracture-dislocations
– open fractures
– malleolar non-unionDanis-Weber classification:
type A
below the level of the talar dome
usually transverse
tibiofibular syndesmosis intact
deltoid ligament intact
medial malleolus occasionally fractured
usually stable if medial malleolus intact
type B
the distal extent at the level of the talar dome; may extend some distance proximally
usually spiral
tibiofibular syndesmosis usually intact, but a widening of the distal tibiofibular joint (especially on stressed views) indicates syndesmotic injury
medial malleolus may be fractured
the deltoid ligament may be torn, indicated by a widening of the space between the medial malleolus and talar dome
variable stability, dependent on the status of medial structures (malleolus/deltoid ligament) and syndesmosis; may require ORIF
Weber B fractures could be further subclassified as 9
B1: isolated
B2: associated with a medial lesion (malleolus or ligament)
B3: associated with a medial lesion and fracture of the posterolateral tibia
type C
above the level of the ankle joint
tibiofibular syndesmosis disruption with a widening of the distal tibiofibular articulation
medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament injury often present
a fracture may arise as proximally as the level of the fibular neck and not visualized on ankle films, requiring knee or full-length tibia-fibula radiographs (Maisonneuve fracture)
unstable: usually requires ORIF
Weber C fractures can be further subclassified as 6
C1: diaphyseal fracture of the fibula, simple
C2: diaphyseal fracture of the fibula, complex
C3: proximal fracture of the fibula
a fracture above the syndesmosis results from external rotation or abduction forces that also disrupt the joint
usually associated with an injury to the medial side -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 66
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?
Your Answer: The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery
Explanation:The thyrocervical trunk is one of the three branches of the first part of the subclavian artery and gives numerous branches which supply viscera of the neck, the brachial plexus, neck muscles and scapular anastomoses. The vertebral arteries are major arteries of the neck. They arise as branches from the subclavian arteries and merge to form the single midline basilar artery. The carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery just superior to the bifurcation of the internal carotid and external carotid at the level of the superior border of thyroid cartilage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which is it?
Your Answer: Peroneus brevis muscle
Correct Answer: Extensor hallucis muscle
Explanation:The lower leg is made up of four fascial compartments separated from one another by septa that contain the muscles of the lower leg. The four compartments are ; anterior, lateral, deep posterior and superficial posterior compartments.
These are the compartments and there contents:
i) Anterior compartment: Tibialis anterior muscle, extensor hallucis longus muscle, extensor digitorum longus muscle, peroneus tertius muscles, deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial blood vessels
ii) Lateral compartment: Fibularis longus muscle, brevis muscles and superficial fibular nerve
iii) Deep posterior compartment: Tibialis posterior m., flexor hallucis longus m., flexor digitorum longus m. ,popliteus m. , tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and posterior tibial vessels such as the fibular artery.
iv) Superficial posterior compartment: Gastrocnemius m., soleus m., plantaris m., medial sural cutaneous nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 68
Correct
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A 58 year old man presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of diarrhoea over the past week that has resulted in marked exhaustion and fatigue. He underwent a successful cadaveric renal transplant last year and was able to return to his job as a swimming instructor. Stool microscopy is carried out and it shows evidence of cysts. Which of the following is the most likely source of infection?
Your Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Cryptosporidium infection occurs through the faecal-oral route of transmission. It usually lasts for 5–7 days. In immunocompetent patients it is self-limiting (nitazoxanide may be used to shorten the duration). In immunocompromised patients: Antiretroviral therapy to elevate the CD4 cell count/restore the immune system is essential prior to eradication with antiparasitic drugs. Diarrhoea is the main disease. The cysts are typically identified on stool microscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 69
Correct
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Which of the following substances will enhance the activity of antithrombin III?
Your Answer: Heparin
Explanation:Antithrombin III is a glycoprotein that inactivates multiple enzymes involved in the coagulation system. It inactivates factor X, factor IX, factor II, factor VII, factor XI and factor XII. Its activity is greatly increased by the action of heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 70
Correct
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The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:
Your Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Correct Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 72
Correct
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Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?
Your Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:
Your Answer: Linea aspera
Correct Answer: Linea alba
Explanation:The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.
The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.
The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.
The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.
The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient is undergoing an open appendicectomy. The surgeons extend the incision medially and suddenly encounter troublesome bleeding. What should be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Apply topical haemostatic agents to the vessel
Correct Answer: Ligate the bleeding vessel
Explanation:Medial extension of an appendicectomy incision carries a risk of injury to the inferior epigastric artery which can bleed briskly. It is best managed by ligation.
Bleeding is a complication encountered in all branches of surgery. The decision as to how best to manage the bleed, depends upon its site, vessel, and circumstances.
1. Superficial dermal bleeding:
This will usually cease spontaneously. If not, then direct use of a monopolar or a bipolar cautery device will usually control the situation. Scalp wounds are a notable exception and bleeding from them may be brisk. In this situation, use of a mattress suture as a wound closure method will usually address the problem.2. Superficial arterial bleeding:
If the vessel can be safely identified in superficial arterial bleeding, then the easiest method is to apply a haemostatic clip and ligate the vessel.3. Major arterial bleeding:
If the vessel can be clearly identified and is accessible, then it may be possible to apply a clip and ligate the vessel. If the vessel is located in a pool of blood, then blind application of haemostatic clips is highly dangerous and may result in collateral injury. In this situation, evacuating the clot and packing the area is often safer. The pack can then be carefully removed when the required instruments are available. Some vessels may retract and bleeding may then be controlled by dissection of surrounding structures or underrunning the bleeding point.4. Major venous bleeding:
The safest initial course of action is to apply digital pressure to the bleeding point. To control the bleeding, thereafter, the surgeon will need a working suction device. Divided veins may require ligation.5. Bleeding from raw surfaces:
This may be mixed bleeding and can be troublesome. Spray diathermy and argon plasma coagulation are both useful agents. Certain topical haemostatic agents, such as surgicel, are useful in encouraging clot formation and may be used in conjunction with, or instead of, the above agents. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of penis
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?
Your Answer: Foramen of Luschka
Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation:The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the:
Your Answer: Meninges
Correct Answer: Vagus nerve
Explanation:Structures passing through the foramen magnum include the medulla, meninges, tectorial membrane, anterior spinal artery, vertebral artery and spinal branches of the accessory nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 47 year old female undergoes a kidney transplant which comes from a cadaver. She has an uncomplicated surgery but on removal of the vascular clamps, the transplanted kidney immediately turns dusky and over the next few hours appears non viable. Which of the following best explains this event?
Your Answer: Acute rejection
Correct Answer: Hyper acute rejection
Explanation:Hyperacute rejection occurs almost immediately following organ implantation and necessitates immediate explant of the organ. Hyperacute rejection is uncommon with pre-transplantation cross-matches and screening. Hyperacute rejection (HAR) of the kidney was first recognized 20 years ago in cases of donor-recipient incompatibility for the major blood group and tissue antigen systems. Classic pathological changes described include early accumulation of PMNs in glomeruli and peritubular capillaries, progressive glomerular thrombosis, tubular necrosis, and eventual cortical necrosis. Reaction of host humoral antibodies with antigens on donor cells serves as one trigger of the clotting mechanism, which then proceeds in a nonspecific fashion.
Antigen systems other than the ABO groups that contribute to HAR reactions are leukocyte antigens, endothelial and monocyte antigens, and B cell antigens. It is also documented that glomerular thrombosis identical to HAR may occur secondary to endothelial damage after pulsatile perfusion. However, in such cases no specific deposition of immunoglobulins and complement is detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the following movements will be affected?
Your Answer: Flexion of the leg
Correct Answer: Extension of the leg
Explanation:The quadriceps muscle is a great extensor of the thigh. Therefore, following nerve injury or cutting nerve supply to the quadriceps will affect extension of the thigh
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 80
Correct
-
Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell membrane. One cell in the middle was bleached with a light that destroys the dye, but the cell soon recovers its stain. The presence of which structures best explains this?
Your Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:Gap junctions are attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication e.g. they permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells. They allow direct electrical transmission among cells and also permit certain substance to pass through as well. They are either homotypic, formed by two identical hemichannels or heterotypic, formed by different hemichannels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old aid worker becomes unwell whilst helping at the scene of a recent earthquake. He develops vomiting and soon afterwards, profuse watery diarrhoea. What is the most likely infective organism?
Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: Vibrio cholera
Explanation:The passage of extremely loose and watery stools is characteristic of Vibrio cholera infection. Most of the other gastroenteric infections do not produce such watery motions.
Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium. It’s natural habitat is brackish or saltwater. Some strains of V. cholerae cause the disease cholera.
Transmission occurs through the ingestion of contaminated water or food. Sudden large outbreaks are usually caused by a contaminated water supply. Outbreaks and endemic and sporadic cases are often attributed to raw or undercooked seafood.
Symptoms of the disease include sudden onset of effortless vomiting and profuse watery diarrhoea. Correction of fluid and electrolyte losses are the mainstay of treatment. Most cases resolve shortly afterwards, and therefore, antibiotics are not generally indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 82
Incorrect
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The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?
Your Answer: Foramen spinosum
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 83
Correct
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Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.
Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
Explanation:The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
Which of the following has the least malignant potential?
Your Answer: Tubulovillous adenoma
Correct Answer: Hyperplastic polyp
Explanation:Non-neoplastic (non-adenomatous) colonic polyps include hyperplastic polyps, hamartomas, juvenile polyps, pseudopolyps, lipomas, leiomyomas and others.
An autosomal dominant condition, Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is a disease that is characterized by multiple hamartomatous polyps in the stomach, small bowel and colon. Symptoms of this syndrome include hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes, especially of the lips and gums.
Juvenile polyps develop in children, and once they outgrow their blood supply, they autoamputate around puberty. In cases of uncontrolled bleeding or intussusception, treatment is needed.
Inflammatory polyps and pseudopolyps occur in chronic ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. There is an increased risk of cancer with multiple juvenile polyps (not with sporadic polyps). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man with gunshot to the abdomen is transferred to the operating theatre, following his arrival in the A&E department. He is unstable and his FAST scan is positive. During the operation, extensive laceration to the right lobe of the liver and involvement of the IVC are found, along with massive haemorrhage. What should be the most appropriate approach to blood component therapy?
Your Answer: Use Factor VIII concentrates early
Correct Answer:
Explanation:There is strong evidence to support haemostatic resuscitation in the setting of massive haemorrhage due to trauma. This advocates the use of 1:1:1 ratio.
Uncontrolled haemorrhage accounts for up to 39% of all trauma-related deaths. In the UK, approximately 2% of all trauma patients need massive transfusion. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of a patient’s total blood volume in less than 24 hours or the acute administration of more than half the patient’s estimated blood volume per hour. During acute bleeding, the practice of haemostatic resuscitation has been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is based on the principle of transfusion of blood components in fixed ratios. For example, packed red cells, FFP, and platelets are administered in a ratio of 1:1:1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department having been trapped in a burning house for 20 minutes before rescue. He has sustained burns to his entire back, and left arm, anteriorly and posteriorly and they are red and painful. He does not appear to have airway compromise, in particular, no singing of nasal hairs. His blood pressure and pulse are acceptable. His estimated weight is 80 kg. What is the most appropriate resuscitation plan?
Your Answer: Bolus resuscitation with colloid until urinary output established
Correct Answer: 4.5 L compound crystalloid over 8 hours, and the same again over the next 16 hours
Explanation:Patients with burns of more than 20% – 25% of their body surface should be managed with aggressive IV fluid resuscitation to prevent “burn shock.
Rule of 9’s for Adults: 9% for each arm, 18% for each leg, 9% for head,18% for front torso, 18% for back torso.
A variety of formulas exist, like Brooke, Galveston, Rule of Ten, but the most common formula is the Parkland Formula. This formula estimates the amount of fluid given in the first 24 hours, starting from the time of the burn.
Four mL lactated ringers solution × percentage total body surface area (%TBSA) burned × patient’s weight in kilograms = total amount of fluid given in the first 24 hours.
One-half of this fluid should be given in the first eight hours.
For example, a 75 kg patient with 55% total body surface area burn would need; 4 mL LR × 75kg × 55% TBSA = 16,500 mL in the first 24 hours, with 8,250 mL in the first eight hours or approximately 1 litre/hr for the first eight hours.
For paediatric patients, the Parkland Formula can be used plus the addition of normal maintenance fluids added to the total.
Whichever formula is used, the important point to remember is the fluid amount calculated is just a guideline. Patient’s vital signs, mental status, capillary refill and urine output must be monitored and fluid rates adjusted accordingly. Urine output of 0.5 mL/kg or about 30 – 50 mL/hr in adults and 0.5-1.0 mL/kg/hr in children less than 30kg is a good target for adequate fluid resuscitation.
Other management for severe burns includes nasal gastric tube placement as most patients will develop ileus. Foley catheters should be placed to monitor urine output. Cardiac and pulse oximetry monitoring is indicated. Pain control is best managed with IV medication. Finally, burns are considered tetanus-prone wounds and tetanus prophylaxis are indicated if not given in the past five years. In any severe flame burn, you should always consider possible associated inhalation injury, carbon monoxide or cyanide poisoning. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 34 year old man arrives at the clinic due to a painless lump in his left teste. His blood tests and US point towards a teratoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Incisional biopsy of the lesion
Correct Answer: Orchidectomy via an inguinal approach
Explanation:Unlike other cancers for which a biopsy is performed, when testicular cancer is suspected the entire testicle is removed in a procedure called an orchiectomy through an incision in the groin and pulling the testicle up from the scrotum. A biopsy through the scrotum for testicular cancer runs the risk of spreading the cancer, and can complicate future treatment options. Removing the entire testicle out of the scrotum is the only safe way to diagnose for testicular cancer. Only the cancer-containing testicle is removed, and it is important to do so promptly.
If there is any uncertainty, the urologists can examine the testicle by pulling the testicle out of the scrotum; if a condition other than testis cancer is found, the testicle is placed back into the scrotum.Testicular cancer is the most common malignancy in men aged 20-30 years. Around 95% of cases of testicular cancer are germ-cell tumours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 24 year old man hits his head during a fall whilst he is intoxicated. He is taken to the doctor and is disorientated despite opening his eyes in response to speech and being able to talk. He is also able to obey motor commands. What would be his Glasgow coma score?
Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:Answer: 13
Eye Opening Response
Spontaneous–open with blinking at baseline – 4 points
Opens to verbal command, speech, or shout – 3 points
Opens to pain, not applied to face – 2 point
None – 1 pointVerbal Response
Oriented – 5 points
Confused conversation, but able to answer questions – 4 points
Inappropriate responses, words discernible – 3 points
Incomprehensible speech – 2 points
None – 1 pointMotor Response
Obeys commands for movement – 6 points
Purposeful movement to painful stimulus – 5 points
Withdraws from pain – 4 points
Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture – 3 points
Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture – 2 points
None – 1 pointHe is seen to be disorientated despite opening his eyes in response to speech and being able to talk. He is also able to obey motor commands. His score is therefore 13: 3 for eye opening response, 4 for verbal response and 6 for motor response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 89
Correct
-
Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles?
Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an important landmark in the neck as it divides the neck into two; anterior and posterior triangles. These triangles help in the location of the structures of the neck including the carotid artery, head and neck lymph nodes, accessory nerve and the brachial plexus. It originates from the manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line. The sternocleidomastoid receives blood supply from the occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery. It is innervated by the accessory nerve (motor)
and cervical plexus (sensory). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 90
Correct
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Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Your Answer: Viral pneumonia
Explanation:Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On enquiry, there was found to be a history of recurrent pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas and raised plasma triglyceride levels associated with chylomicrons. Which of the following will be found deficient in this patient?
Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase
Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase
Explanation:The clinical features mentioned here suggest the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency. LPL aids in hydrolysing the lipids in lipoproteins into free fatty acids and glycerol. Apo-CII acts as a co-factor. Deficiency of this enzyme leads to hypertriglyceridemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?
Your Answer: Reticulocytes
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 93
Correct
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Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?
Your Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Explanation:Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?
Your Answer: Increased capillary permeability
Correct Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation:Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old female was advised to undergo genetic testing of BRCA1 and BRCA2. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumour markers specifically for which organ?
Your Answer: Rectum
Correct Answer: Breast
Explanation:Women with harmful mutations in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 have a risk of breast cancer that is about five times the normal risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with a breast lump. She has previously undergone a breast augmentation with an implant. What is the imaging technique of choice?
Your Answer: PET CT
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Patients with breast implants present the radiologist with specific challenges, such as the identification and distinction of implant and breast tissue, diagnosis of implant defects and implant-related complications as well as diagnosis and follow-up of unrelated breast diseases such as mastitis or breast cancer.
Whereas mammography is the first-line method before surgery, ultrasound is the mainstay of post-procedural imaging, unless there is concern about rupture.
Although mammography and ultrasonography are the standard first steps in the diagnostic workup, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most useful imaging modality for the characterisation of breast implants because of its high spatial resolution and contrast between implants and soft tissues and absence of ionising radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast And Endocrine Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?
Your Answer: Jugular foramen
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 30 year old man is diagnosed on oesophageal biopsies to have loss of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus. Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sclerosis
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is an oesophageal motor disorder characterized by aperistalsis of the oesophageal body and lack of relaxation of the lower sphincter in response to swallows.
Achalasia cardia is one of the common causes of motor dysphagia. Pathophysiologically, achalasia cardia is caused by loss of inhibitory ganglion in the myenteric plexus of the oesophagus. In the initial stage, degeneration of inhibitory nerves in the oesophagus results in unopposed action of excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine, resulting in high amplitude non-peristaltic contractions (vigorous achalasia); progressive loss of cholinergic neurons over time results in dilation and low amplitude simultaneous contractions in the oesophageal body (classic achalasia). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 99
Incorrect
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the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee
Explanation:the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker should be requested to aid in the confirmation of the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Explanation:Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker. CEA test measures the amount of this protein that may appear in the blood of some people who have certain types of cancers especially cancer of the colon and rectal cancer. It may also be present in the pancreas, breast, ovary or lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Outer membrane
Explanation:The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 60-year old gentleman visited his general practitioner complaining of high grade fever for 7 days and a dull, aching pain in his left lumbar region. On enquiry, he admitted to having a burning sensation while passing urine. His blood results showed an elevated white blood cell count with a left shift. In his condition, which is the most characteristic finding on urine examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: White blood cell casts
Explanation:Tubulointerstitial nephritis is the term given to primary injury to renal tubules and the renal interstitium, which ultimately results in a decline in renal function. Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis (acute pyelonephritis) is often seen as a result of infection or drug reactions. The most characteristic feature of this condition on urine analysis is the presence of white blood cell casts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic aneurysm. Her blood pressure was low throughout the intra-operative and the post-operative period, along with increasing serum creatinine and urea. Microscopic examination of her urine showed multiple granular and hyaline casts. What is the likely condition the patient is suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:The most common predisposing factor leading to acute tubular necrosis is ischemia, typically seen in hospitalized patients with low blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman is in the surgical intensive care unit. She suffered a flail chest injury several hours ago and was, subsequently, intubated and ventilated. However, for the past few minutes, she has become increasingly hypoxic and now requires increased ventilation pressures. What is the most likely cause of such deterioration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:A flail chest segment may lacerate the underlying lung and create a flap valve. Tension pneumothorax can, therefore, occur by intubation and ventilation in this situation.
Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that develops when air is trapped in the pleural cavity under positive pressure, displacing mediastinal structures and compromising cardiopulmonary function. The development of a tension pneumothorax can be life-threatening during mechanical ventilation, since with each breath, the pressure within the pneumothorax becomes greater, compromising both ventilatory and cardiovascular function.
Signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax include:
1. Chest pain that usually has a sudden onset, is sharp, and may lead to feeling of tightness in the chest
2. Dyspnoea and progressive hypoxia
3. Tachycardia
4. Hyperventilation
5. Cough
6. FatigueOn examination, hyper-resonant percussion note and tracheal deviation are typically found.
CXR shows:
1. Lung collapse towards the hilum
2. Contralateral mediastinal deviation
3. Diaphragmatic depression and increased rib separation
4. Increased thoracic volume
5. Ipsilateral flattening of the heart borderManagement options for tension pneumothorax include
immediate needle decompression followed by definitive wide-bore chest drain insertion (without waiting for CXR results). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance
Explanation:Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 63 year old man presents with recurrent colicky abdominal pain. A CT scan demonstrates a hernia lateral to the rectus muscle at the level of the arcuate line. What type of hernia would this be classified as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spigelian
Explanation:A Spigelian hernia (or lateral ventral hernia) is a hernia through the Spigelian fascia, which is the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the semilunar line laterally. These are generally interparietal hernias, meaning that they do not lie below the subcutaneous fat but penetrate between the muscles of the abdominal wall; therefore, there is often no notable swelling.
Spigelian hernias are usually small and therefore risk of strangulation is high. Most occur on the right side. (4th–7th decade of life.) Compared to other types of hernias they are rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with severe retrosternal chest pain and recurrent episodes of dysphagia. She states that these occur at irregular intervals and often resolve spontaneously. There are no physical abnormalities on examination and she seems well. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Answer: Achalasia
Achalasia is a primary oesophageal motility disorder characterized by the absence of oesophageal peristalsis and impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) in response to swallowing. The LES is hypertensive in about 50% of patients. These abnormalities cause a functional obstruction at the gastroesophageal junction (GEJ).
Symptoms of achalasia include the following:Dysphagia (most common)
Regurgitation
Chest pain (behind the sternum)
Heartburn
Weight loss
Physical examination is non-contributory.
Treatment recommendations are as follows:
Initial therapy should be either graded pneumatic dilation (PD) or laparoscopic surgical myotomy with a partial fundoplication in patients fit to undergo surgery
Procedures should be performed in high-volume centres of excellence
Initial therapy choice should be based on patient age, sex, preference, and local institutional expertise
Botulinum toxin therapy is recommended for patients not suited to PD or surgery
Pharmacologic therapy can be used for patients not undergoing PD or myotomy and who have failed botulinum toxin therapy (nitrates and calcium channel blockers most common).
The invasion of the oesophageal neural plexus by the tumour can cause nonrelaxation of the LES, thus mimicking achalasia. This condition is known as malignant pseudo achalasia. Since contrast radiography and endoscopy frequently fail to differentiate these 2 entities, patients with a presumed diagnosis of achalasia but who have a shorter duration of symptoms, greater weight loss, and a more advanced age and who are referred for minimally invasive surgery should undergo additional imaging studies, including endoscopic ultrasound and computed tomography with fine cuts of the gastroesophageal junction, to rule out cancer.
Effort rupture of the oesophagus, or Boerhaave syndrome, is a spontaneous perforation of the oesophagus that results from a sudden increase in intraoesophageally pressure combined with negative intrathoracic pressure (e.g., severe straining or vomiting). The classic clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome usually consists of repeated episodes of retching and vomiting, typically in a middle-aged man with recent excessive dietary and alcohol intake.
These repeated episodes of retching and vomiting are followed by a sudden onset of severe chest pain in the lower thorax and the upper abdomen. The pain may radiate to the back or to the left shoulder. Swallowing often aggravates the pain.
Typically, hematemesis is not seen after oesophageal rupture, which helps to distinguish it from the more common Mallory-Weiss tear.
Swallowing may precipitate coughing because of the communication between the oesophagus and the pleural cavity. Shortness of breath is a common complaint and is due to pleuritic pain or pleural effusion.
A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that occurs in the lungs.
It can damage part of the lung due to restricted blood flow, decrease oxygen levels in the blood, and affect other organs as well. Large or multiple blood clots can be fatal.
The most common symptom of a pulmonary embolism is shortness of breath. This may be gradual or sudden.Other symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include:
anxiety
clammy or bluish skin
chest pain that may extend into your arm, jaw, neck, and shoulder
fainting
irregular heartbeat
light-headedness
rapid breathing
rapid heartbeat
restlessness
spitting up blood
weak pulse -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 109
Incorrect
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The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male who has smoked since his teens complains of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in his pulmonary function tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased residual volume
Explanation:Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by long-term poor airflow. The main symptoms include shortness of breath and cough with sputum production. The best diagnostic test for evaluating patients with suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is lung function measured with spirometry. Key spirometrical measures may be obtained with a portable office spirometer and should include forced vital capacity (FVC) and the normal forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration (FEV1). The ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) normally exceeds 0.75. Patients with COPD typically present with obstructive airflow. Complete pulmonary function testing may show increased total lung capacity, functional residual capacity and residual volume. A substantial loss of lung surface area available for effective oxygen exchange causes diminished carbon monoxide diffusion in the lung (DLco) in patients with emphysema. Tobacco smoking is the most common cause of COPD, with factors such as air pollution and genetics playing a smaller role.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreases which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The splenic vein runs behind the pancreas, receives the inferior mesenteric vein and joins the superior mesenteric vein to form the portal vein behind the pancreatic neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has had persistent diarrhoea for a week. A stool test reveals an infection by Clostridium difficile. Which of the following antibiotics could be used to treat the infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin
Explanation:Three antibiotics are effective against Clostridium difficile:
Metronidazole 500 mg orally three times daily is the drug of choice, because of superior tolerability, lower price and comparable efficacy.
Oral vancomycin 125 mg four times daily is second-line therapy in particular cases of relapse or where the infection is unresponsive to metronidazole treatment.
Thirdly, the use of linezolid might also be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old builder presents with a reducible swelling in the right groin, it is increasing in size and has not been operated on previously. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Open Lichtenstein repair
Explanation:The patient has a right groin hernia since he has a reducible lump and a history of carrying heavy objects.
Inguinal hernias present with a reducible lump in the groin.
A third of patients scheduled for surgery have no pain, and severe pain is uncommon (1.5% at rest and 10.2% on movement).
Inguinal hernias are at risk of irreducibility or incarceration, which may result in strangulation and obstruction; however, unlike with femoral hernias, strangulation is rare.
Inguinal hernias are often classified as direct or indirect, depending on whether the hernia sac bulges directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal (direct hernia) or passes through the internal inguinal ring alongside the spermatic cord, following the coursing of the inguinal canal (indirect hernia).Surgery is the only curative treatment.
If patients with asymptomatic inguinal hernia are medically fit, they should be offered repair
Mesh repair is associated with the lowest recurrence rates of hernia
Laparoscopic repair is suggested for recurrent and bilateral inguinal hernias, though it may also be offered for primary inguinal hernia repair
The EuraHS recommendations:
– For Primary unilateral Hernia: Mesh repair, Lichtenstein or endoscopic repair are recommended. Endoscopic repair only if expertise is available.
– Primary bilateral: Mesh repair, Lichtenstein or endoscopic.
– Recurrent inguinal hernia: Mesh repair, modifying the technique with respect to the previous technique.
– If previously anterior: Consider open preperitoneal mesh or endoscopic approach (if expertise is present).
– If previously posterior: Consider an anterior meshIn inguinal hernia tension-free repair, synthetic non-absorbable flat meshes (or composite meshes with a non-absorbable component) should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and visits his family doctor. A left sided varicocele was noticed when he was examined. The ipsilateral testis is normal on palpation. Which of the following would be the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation:Abdominal Ultrasound is the imaging method of choice for varicocele.
A varicocele is abnormal dilation and enlargement of the scrotal venous pampiniform plexus which drains blood from each testicle. While usually painless, varicoceles are clinically significant because they are the most commonly identified cause of abnormal semen analysis, low sperm count, decreased sperm motility, and abnormal sperm morphology. Varicoceles are far more common (80% to 90%) in the left testicle. If a left varicocele is identified, there is a 30% to 40% probability it is a bilateral condition.There are three theories as to the anatomical cause:
– The Nutcracker effect which occurs when the left internal spermatic vein gets caught between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This entrapment causes venous compression and spermatic vein obstruction.
– Failure of the anti-reflux valve where the internal spermatic vein joins the left renal vein. This failure causes reflux and retrograde flow in the testicular vein.
– Angulation at the juncture of the left internal spermatic vein and the left renal vein.Varicoceles are usually asymptomatic. The patient may describe a bag of worms if the varicocele is large enough. Varicoceles present as soft lumps above the testicle, usually on the left side of the scrotum. Patients may sometimes complain of pain or heaviness in the scrotum.
A sudden onset of varicocele in a man over the age of 30 years requires the exclusion of renal tumours, particularly in elderly patients. In such cases it is necessary to extend diagnostic ultrasonography with abdominal examination. The diagnosis of varicocele is based on medical history and physical examination, which involves palpation and observation of the scrotum at rest and during the Valsalva manoeuvre. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa
Explanation:The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:
– The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.
– The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.
– The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old rugby player falls directly on his right shoulder. He presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of the shoulder joint. The right clavicle is prominent and there appears to be a step deformity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
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