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  • Question 1 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia

      Correct Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is seen in damage to the frontal eye field of the frontal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is typically a result of damage to the occipital lobe (or of the optic radiation passing through the parietal and temporal lobes). Auditory agnosia may been seen in a lesion of the temporal lobe. Hemispatial neglect may be seen in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Receptive dysphasia is seen in damage to Wernicke’s area, in the temporal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old obese patient goes to the emergency department with a fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old obese patient goes to the emergency department with a fever and significant right upper quadrant pain. The pain radiates to her right shoulder tip.  Murphy's sign is positive and acute cholecystitis is diagnosed. The pain referred to the shoulder tip is caused by one of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Gallbladder inflammation can cause pain in the right upper quadrant and right shoulder, which is caused by irritation of the diaphragmatic peritoneum. Pain from areas supplied by the phrenic nerve is often referred to other somatic regions served by spinal nerves C3-C5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and pain in the ears. Upon physical examination, it was observed that the mastoid area is erythematous and there is a presence of a boggy, tender mass. A diagnosis of acute mastoiditis was made.Which of the following parts of the temporal bone is most likely involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Petrous part

      Explanation:

      Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a portion of the temporal bone referred to as the mastoid air cells. The mastoid air cells are epithelium lined bone septations that are continuous with the middle ear cavity.The temporal bone is composed of four parts: the mastoid process, the petrous pyramid, the squamous, and tympanic portions. The mastoid process and the petrous pyramid are the portions of particular interest because of the prevalence of suppurations within these parts of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A well recognised adverse effect of metoclopramide is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Side effects of metoclopramide are commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects and hyperprolactinemia. Therefore its use must be limited to short-term use. Metoclopramide can induce acute dystonic reactions which involve facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. These dystonic effects are more common in the young girls and young women, and in the very old. These symptoms usually occur shortly after starting treatment with this drug and subside within 24 hours of stopping it. Abortion of dystonic attacks can be carried out by injection of an antiparkinsonian drug like procyclidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral three and a half digits. You suspect carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following clinical features would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to touch the pad of the little finger with the thumb

      Explanation:

      Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel will result in weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles – resulting in weakness of opposition, abduction and flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint and anaesthesia or paraesthesia over the distribution of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve (skin over the palmar surface and fingertips of the lateral three and a half digits). The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and abduction of the fingers is produced by the interossei, also innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is produced by the flexor pollicis longus, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is produced by the flexor digitorum profundus. Median nerve injury at the wrist will not affect the long flexors of the forearm as these are innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve which arises in the proximal forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following nerves provides sensory innervation to the anteromedial and anterosuperior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves provides sensory innervation to the anteromedial and anterosuperior aspects of the external ear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      Sensory innervation to the external ear is supplied by both cranial and spinal nerves. Branches of the trigeminal, facial, and vagus nerves (CN V, VII, X) are the cranial nerve components, while the lesser occipital (C2, C3) and greater auricular (C2, C3) nerves are the spinal nerve components involved. The lateral surface of the tympanic membrane, the external auditory canal, and the external acoustic meatus are all innervated by nervus intermedius (a branch of CN VII), the auriculotemporal nerve (CN V3), and the auricular branch of the vagus nerve. The concha receives split innervation from nervus intermedius, the auricular branch of the vagus nerve, and the greater auricular (spinal) nerve. Beyond the concha, the anteromedial and anterosuperior parts of the pinna are innervated by the auriculotemporal nerve, and a portion of the lateral helix by the lesser occipital nerve. The greater auricular nerve provides innervation to the area of the pinna inferolateral to the lobule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was taken and a neurological examination was performed.Which of the following cranial nerves is correctly paired with its lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The oculomotor nerve: the eye appears to look ‘down and out’

      Explanation:

      The following are the lesions of the cranial nerves:1. Olfactory nerve (I)Reduced taste and smell, but not to ammonia which stimulates the pain fibres carried in the trigeminal nerve2. Optic nerve (II)Manifested by visual field defects, pupillary abnormalities, optic neuritis, optic atrophy, papilledema3. Oculomotor nerve (III)A fixed, dilated pupil which doesn’t accommodate, ptosis, complete internal ophthalmoplegia (masked by ptosis), unopposed lateral rectus causes outward deviation of the eye. If the ocular sympathetic fibres are also affected behind the orbit, the pupil will be fixed but not dilated.4. Trochlear nerve (IV)Diplopia due to weakness of downward and inward eye movement. The most common cause of a pure vertical diplopia. The patient tends to compensate by tilting the head away from the affected side.5. Trigeminal nerve (V)Reduced sensation or dysesthesia over the affected area. Weakness of jaw clenching and side-to-side movement. If there is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion, the jaw deviates to the weak side when the mouth is opened. There may be fasciculation of temporalis and masseter.6. Abducens nerve (VI)Inability to look laterally. The eye is deviated medially because of unopposed action of the medial rectus muscle.7. Facial nerve (VII)Facial weakness. In an LMN lesion the forehead is paralysed – the final common pathway to the muscles is destroyed; whereas the upper facial muscles are partially spared in an upper motor neurone (UMN) lesion because of alternative pathways in the brainstem. There appear to be different pathways for voluntary and emotional movement. CVAs usually weaken voluntary movement, often sparing involuntary movements (e.g., spontaneous smiling). The much rarer selective loss of emotional movement is called mimic paralysis and is usually due to a frontal or thalamic lesion.8. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)Unilateral sensorineural deafness, tinnitus. Slow-growing lesions seldom present with vestibular symptoms as compensation has time to occur.9. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)Unilateral lesions do not cause any deficit because of bilateral corticobulbar connections. Bilateral lesions result in pseudobulbar palsy. These nerves are closely interlinked.10. Vagus nerve (X)Palatal weakness can cause ‘nasal speech’ and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.11. Accessory nerve (XI)Weakness and wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles12.Hypoglossal nerve (XII)An LMN lesion produces wasting of the ipsilateral side of the tongue, with fasciculation; and on attempted protrusion the tongue deviates towards the affected side, but the tongue deviates away from the side of a central lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves has been damaged when a patient presents with a foot drop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve often referred to as the common fibular nerve, is a major nerve that innervates the lower extremity. It is one of the two major branches off the sciatic nerve and receives fibres from the posterior divisions of L4 through S2 nerve roots. The common peroneal nerve separates from the sciatic nerve in the distal posterior thigh proximal to the popliteal fossa. After branching off of the sciatic nerve, it continues down the thigh, running posteroinferior to the biceps femoris muscle, and crosses laterally to the head of the lateral gastrocnemius muscle through the posterior intermuscular septum. The nerve then curves around the fibular neck before dividing into two branches, the superficial peroneal nerve (SPN) and the deep peroneal nerve (DPN). The common peroneal nerve does not have any motor innervation before dividing; however, it provides sensory innervation to the lateral leg via the lateral sural nerve.The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg and the dorsum of the foot. These two nerves are essential in the eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the foot, respectively. The superficial and deep peroneal nerves provide both motor and sensory innervation.The most common presentation with common peroneal nerve injury or palsy is acute foot drop, although symptoms may be progressive and can include sensory loss or pain. Weakness in foot eversion may occur if the superficial peroneal nerve component is involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman presents with retrosternal central chest pain that she has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with retrosternal central chest pain that she has been complaining about for the past two days. Upon deep inspiration and while lying flat, the pain worsens but relieved by sitting forwards. The pain radiates to both of her shoulders. The result of her ECG shows widespread concave ST-elevation and PR depression. A diagnosis of pericarditis is suspected. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the pattern of her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardial sac and is the most common pathologic process involving the pericardium. Frequently, pericardial inflammation can be accompanied by increased fluid accumulation within the pericardial sac forming a pericardial effusion, which may be serous, hemorrhagic or purulent depending on aetiology.The classic presentation is with chest pain that is central, severe, pleuritic (worse on deep inspiration) and positional (improved by sitting up and leaning forward). The pain may also be radiating and may involve the ridges of the trapezius muscle if the phrenic nerve is inflamed as it traverses the pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man has sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of the humerus after falling from his bike. Examination suggests an axillary nerve injury. The clinical features expected to be seen in this patient are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of shoulder abduction

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve injury results in:1. weakness of arm abduction (paralysis of deltoid), 2. weakness of lateral rotation of the arm (paralysis of teres minor) 3. loss of sensation over the regimental badge area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - After a work-related accident, a 33-year old male is taken to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • After a work-related accident, a 33-year old male is taken to the emergency room with difficulty in adduction and flexion of his left arm at the glenohumeral joint. The attending physician is suspects involvement of the coracobrachialis muscle.The nerve injured in the case above is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The coracobrachialis muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7) a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is situated on the radial border of abductor digiti minimi

      Explanation:

      Flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is located on the ulnar side of the palm, lying on the radial border of the abductor digiti minimi. Together with the abductor digiti minimi and opponens digiti minimi muscles, it forms the hypothenar eminence. The muscle is situated inferior and lateral to adductor digiti minimi muscle and superior and medial to opponens digiti minimi muscle. The proximal parts of flexor digiti minimi brevis and abductor digiti minimi muscles form a gap through which deep branches of the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech,...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a 28-year-old woman complains of wobbly and slurred speech, is unable to do the heel-shin test, and has nystagmus. The following signs are most likely related to damage to which of the following areas:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar injury causes delayed and disorganized motions. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities sway and stagger. Damage to the cerebellum can cause asynergia, the inability to judge distance and when to stop, dysmetria, the inability to perform rapid alternating movements or adiadochokinesia, movement tremors, staggering, wide-based walking or ataxic gait, a proclivity to fall, weak muscles or hypotonia, slurred speech or ataxic dysarthria, and abnormal eye movements or nystagmus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular nerve was previously referred to as the anterior tibial nerve. It starts at the common fibular nerve bifurcation, between the fibula and the proximal part of the fibularis longus. Damage to this nerve can cause foot drop or loss of dorsiflexion since this nerve controls the anterior leg muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following nerves is most likely associated with an anterior shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is most likely associated with an anterior shoulder dislocation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      In an anterior dislocation, the arm is an abducted and externally rotated position. In the externally rotated position, the posterosuperior aspect of the humeral head abuts and drives through the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid rim. This can damage the humeral head, glenoid labrum, or both. An associated humeral head compression fracture is described as a Hill Sach’s lesion. If large enough, it can lead to locked dislocations that may require open reduction. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous structure that rings the circumference of the glenoid fossa. Bankart lesions are injuries to the anteroinferior glenoid labrum complex and the most common capsulolabral injury. A bony Bankart lesion refers to an associated fracture of the glenoid rim. These capsulolabral lesions are risk factors for recurrent dislocation.Axillary nerve injury is identified in about 42% of acute anterior shoulder dislocations. Nerve transection is rare, and traction injuries are more common. Arterial injury has also been described. The subclavian artery becomes the axillary artery after passing the first rib. The distal portion of the axillary artery is anatomically fixed and, therefore, susceptible to injury in anterior dislocations. Ischemic injury, including pseudoaneurysm and arterial laceration, is rare but carries marked morbidity if not quickly identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and facial numbness. Upon further investigation, an acoustic neuroma is given as the final diagnosis.Which of the following nerves is least likely to be affected in acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma is also called vestibular schwannoma (VS), acoustic neuroma, vestibular neuroma or acoustic neurofibroma. These are tumours that evolve from the Schwann cell sheath and can be either intracranial or extra-axial. They usually occur adjacent to the cochlear and vestibular nerves and most often arise from the inferior division of the latter. Anatomically, acoustic neuroma tends to occupy the cerebellopontine angle. About 5-10% of cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumours are meningiomas and may occur elsewhere in the brain. Bilateral acoustic neuromas tend to be exclusively found in individuals with type 2 neurofibromatosis.The following nerves may be affected due to nerve compression:Facial nerve: usually minimal with late presentation except for very large tumours. Depending on the degree of engagement of the nerve, the symptoms may include twitching, increased lacrimation and facial weakness.Trigeminal Nerve: paraesthesia in the trigeminal distribution, tingling of the tongue, impairment of the corneal reflex, and less commonly pain which may mimic typical trigeminal neuralgia.Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves: palatal paresis, hoarseness of voice and dysphagia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are...

    Incorrect

    • The muscles of the soft palate (other than the tensor veli palatini) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the soft palate are innervated by the vagus nerve (from the pharyngeal plexus), except for the tensor veli palatini, which is innervated by a branch of the mandibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The quadriceps femoris complex

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps femoris muscle translates to “four-headed muscle” from Latin. It bears this name because it consists of four individual muscles; rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius. Out of all four muscles, only the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee joints. The others cross only the knee joint. These muscles differ in their origin, but share a common quadriceps femoris tendon which inserts into the patella. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to extend the leg at the knee joint and to flex the thigh at the hip joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient with diplopia is found to have eye deviation downwards and outwards....

    Incorrect

    • A patient with diplopia is found to have eye deviation downwards and outwards. The likely nerves that are affected are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The results of an oculomotor (CN III) nerve palsy are a depressed and abducted (down and out) eye, ptosis, diplopia, and a fixed and dilated pupil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel4. It is about 2 inches long, 5. It occurs in about 2% of the population, 6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic). 7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he had bilaterally enlarged tonsils that are covered in large amounts of exudate. A diagnosis of tonsillitis was made. The lymph from the tonsils will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep cervical lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissue located within the pharynx. They collectively form a ringed arrangement, known as Waldeyer’s ring: pharyngeal tonsil, 2 tubal tonsils, 2 palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsil. Lymphatic fluid from the lingual tonsil drains into the jugulodigastric and deep cervical lymph nodes.Lymphatic fluid from the pharyngeal tonsil drains into the retropharyngeal nodes (which empty into the deep cervical chain), and directly into deep cervical nodes within the parapharyngeal space.The retropharyngeal and the deep cervical lymph nodes drain the tubal tonsils.The palatine tonsils drain to the jugulodigastric node, a node of the deep cervical lymph nodes, located inferior to the angle of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after a sudden onset of coughing and wheezing. Further investigation reveals that he was drawing quietly in his room, when suddenly, he became anxious and started coughing. The parents also noted that the eraser on top of the pencil was missing.A plain radiographic chest imaging is conducted, and confirmed foreign body aspiration.Which of the following areas in the tracheobronchial tree is the most probable location of the aspirated eraser?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      In foreign body aspiration, the foreign body is more likely to enter the right main bronchus because it is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left main bronchus. In a patient who is standing or sitting, the foreign body tends to become lodged in the posterobasal segment of the inferior lobe of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Forceful expiration is primarily produced by the deeper thoracic muscles (internal and innermost intercostal muscles, subcostals and transversus thoracis) aided by contraction of the abdominal wall muscles which increase intra-abdominal pressure thus further reducing the volume of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • After what time period should intravenous phenytoin be used as second-line treatment of status epilepticus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25 minutes

      Explanation:

      If seizures recur or fail to respond after initial treatment with benzodiazepines within 25 minutes of onset, phenytoin sodium, fosphenytoin sodium, or phenobarbital sodium should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident. Free intraperitoneal fluid is found on FAST (Focussed assessment for sonography in trauma) done in the supine position. Which of these is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatorenal recess

      Explanation:

      Fluid accumulates most often in the hepatorenal pouch (of Morrison) in a supine patient. The hepatorenal pouch is located behind the liver and anterior to the right kidney and is the lowest space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position.Although the vesicouterine and rectouterine spaces are also potential spaces for fluid accumulation, fluid accumulation in them occur in the erect position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are giving a teaching session to a group of final year medical...

    Incorrect

    • You are giving a teaching session to a group of final year medical students regarding lower limb neurology. Which of the following clinical features would be expected in an obturator nerve palsy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of hip adduction

      Explanation:

      Damage to the obturator nerve results in weak adduction of the hip with lateral swinging of the limb during walking due to unopposed abduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex. The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Both the medial and lateral pterygoids are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto her back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that she has pain on hip flexion, but normal hip adduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 21-year-old student presents to the minors area of your Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the minors area of your Emergency Department with a laceration on his external nose that occurred during sparring in a kickboxing class. The area is bleeding profusely and will require suturing. Pressure is being applied. The laceration extends through some of the nasal muscles.Motor innervation of the nasal muscles of facial expression is provided by which of the following ? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve (the labyrinthine segment) is the seventh cranial nerve, or simply CN VII. It emerges from the pons of the brainstem, controls the muscles of facial expression, and functions in the conveyance of taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.Motor innervation of the nasal muscles of facial expression is provided by the facial nerve (CN VII).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF, and ST segment depression in V1-V3?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      A posterior wall MI occurs when posterior myocardial tissue (now termed inferobasilar), usually supplied by the posterior descending artery — a branch of the right coronary artery in 80% of individuals — acutely loses blood supply due to intracoronary thrombosis in that vessel. This frequently coincides with an inferior wall MI due to the shared blood supply.The ECG findings of an acute posterior wall MI include the following:1. ST segment depression (not elevation) in the septal and anterior precordial leads (V1-V4). This occurs because these ECG leads will see the MI backwards; the leads are placed anteriorly, but the myocardial injury is posterior.2. A R/S wave ratio greater than 1 in leads V1 or V2.3. ST elevation in the posterior leads of a posterior ECG (leads V7-V9). Suspicion for a posterior MI must remain high, especially if inferior ST segment elevation is also present.4. ST segment elevation in the inferior leads (II, III and aVF) if an inferior MI is also present.The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:ECG Leads Location Vessel involvedV1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descendingV3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descendingV5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex arteryII, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex arteryV1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary arteryV7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is sent in by her GP with suspected ectopic pregnancy. Tubal ectopic pregnancies occur most commonly in which part of the uterine tube:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy most commonly occurs in the ampulla (70% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In adults, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord lies at which of...

    Incorrect

    • In adults, the conus medullaris of the spinal cord lies at which of the following vertebral levels:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      At birth, the conus medullaris lies at L3. By the age of 21, it sits at L1/L2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - An elderly man presents with bilateral lower facial swelling around the mandible and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with bilateral lower facial swelling around the mandible and upper neck. A CT scan of his neck was performed and the results were conclusive with Ludwig's angina.Which of the following spaces is most likely affected based on the case presented?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Submandibular space

      Explanation:

      Ludwig’s angina is life-threatening cellulitis of the soft tissue involving the floor of the mouth and neck. It involves three compartments of the floor of the mouth: the sublingual, submental, and submandibular.Ludwig’s angina usually originates as a dental infection of the second or third mandibular molars. The infection begins in the subgingival pocket and spreads to the musculature of the floor of the mouth. It progresses below the mylohyoid line, indicating that it has moved to the sublingual space. As the roots of the second and third mandibular molars lie below this line, infection of these teeth will predispose to Ludwig’s angina. The infection spreads lingually rather than buccally because the lingual aspect of the tooth socket is thinner. It initially spreads to the sublingual space and progresses to the submandibular space.The disease is usually polymicrobial, involving oral flora, both aerobes, and anaerobes. The most common organisms are Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 45-year-old man had a painless superficial inguinal lymphadenopathy. It was later found...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man had a painless superficial inguinal lymphadenopathy. It was later found to be malignant. Which of the following parts of the body is most likely the origin of this cancerous lymph node?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal canal

      Explanation:

      A cancer of the anal canal below the pectinate line would spread to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. Anal cancer often spreads through lymphatic drainage to the internal iliac lymph nodes in lesions above the pectinate line and to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes in lesions below the pectinate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to fracture of the head of the fibula?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      Avulsion fractures of the fibular head are rare and are so-called the arcuate signal. The “arcuate signal” is used to describe an avulsed bone fragment related to the insertion site of the tendon of the biceps femoris associated with the arcuate complex, which consists of the fabellofibular, popliteofibular, and arcuate ligaments. Such lesions are typically observed in direct trauma to the knee with excessive varus and internal rotation forces or indirect trauma with the same direction of the force.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Regarding the lacrimal apparatus, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the lacrimal apparatus, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lacrimal fluid is drained from the eyeball through the lacrimal punctum.

      Explanation:

      Lacrimal fluid is drained from the eyeball through the lacrimal punctum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following best describes the main sites of constriction of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the main sites of constriction of the ureters:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the ureteropelvic junction, at the pelvic brim and where the ureters enter the bladder

      Explanation:

      At three points along their course, the ureters are constricted denoting the most likely areas for renal calculi to lodge:the first point is at the ureteropelvic junction (where the renal pelvis becomes continuous with the ureter)the second point is where the ureter crosses the common iliac vessels at the pelvic brimthe third point is at the vesicoureteric junction (where the ureter enters the wall of the bladder)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 35 year old man presents with a deep laceration to the proximal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man presents with a deep laceration to the proximal part of the forearm. On further assessment, the patient is unable to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and interphalangeal joints of the index, middle finger and the thumb. The ring and little fingers are intact but there is weakness at the proximal interphalangeal joint.There is also loss of sensation over the lateral palm and the palmar surface of the lateral three and a half fingers. Which of these nerve(s) has most likely been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      A median nerve injury affecting the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the hand will present with:Loss of sensation to the lateral palm and the lateral three and a half fingers.Weakness of flexion at the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle finger. This is because of paralysis of the lateral two lumbricals. Weakness of flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of all four fingers due to paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialisWeakness of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle finger following paralysis of the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus.Weakness of thumb flexion, abduction and opposition due to paralysis of the flexor pollicis longus and thenar muscles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Regarding the lung roots, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the lung roots, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generally the pulmonary arteries lie superior to the pulmonary veins in the lung root.

      Explanation:

      Each lung root contains a pulmonary artery, two pulmonary veins, a main bronchus, bronchial vessels, nerves and lymphatics. Generally the pulmonary artery is superior in the lung root, the pulmonary veins are inferior and the bronchi are somewhat posterior in position. The vagus nerves pass posterior to the lung roots while the phrenic nerves pass anterior to them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive expiration is produced primarily by relaxation of the inspiratory muscles (diaphragm and external intercostal muscles) in addition to the elastic recoil of the lungs. In expiration, several movements occur. There are:1. depression of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), 2. depression of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and 3. elevation of the diaphragm. These result in a reduction of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. There is then a decreased intrathoracic volume and increased intrathoracic pressure and air is forced out of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain and presents to the emergency room. Imaging reveals a large perinephric abscess. Which of the following most likely describes the fluid location:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the renal capsule and the renal fascia

      Explanation:

      The perinephric fat is immediately external to the renal capsule and completely surrounds the kidney. The renal fascia surrounds the perinephric fat and the paranephric fat is external to the renal fascia. The location of a perinephric abscess is in the perinephric fat between the renal capsule and the renal fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.The piriformis muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.The piriformis muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nerve to piriformis

      Explanation:

      Piriformis is innervated by the nerve to piriformis, which is a direct branch from the sacral plexus (S1 and S2).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.In...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the gluteus maximus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteal muscles are a group of muscles that make up the buttock area. These muscles include: gluteus maximus, gluteus medius. and gluteus minimus.The gluteus maximus is the most superficial as well as largest of the three muscles and makes up most of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is a thick, fleshy muscle with a quadrangular shape. It is a large muscle and plays a prominent role in the maintenance of keeping the upper body erect.The innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle is from the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following movements is controlled by the pectoralis major muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following movements is controlled by the pectoralis major muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexion, adduction and medial rotation of the humerus

      Explanation:

      The pectoralis major is a muscle that runs across the top of the chest and connects to a ridge on the back of the humerus (the bone of the upper arm). Adduction, or lowering, of the arm (opposed to the deltoideus muscle) and rotation of the arm forward around the axis of the body are two of its main functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 38-year-old taxi driver sustained blunt force trauma to his anterior chest from...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old taxi driver sustained blunt force trauma to his anterior chest from the steering wheel of his car after falling asleep while driving headlong into an oncoming HGV lorry. Bruising around his sternum was observed, which appears to be the central point of impact. Which of the following structures is most likely injured by the blunt force trauma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      In its typical anatomical orientation, the heart has 5 surfaces formed by different internal divisions of the heart:Anterior (or sternocostal) – Right ventriclePosterior (or base) – Left atriumInferior (or diaphragmatic) – Left and right ventriclesRight pulmonary – Right atriumLeft pulmonary – Left ventricle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his upper volar forearm. Upon further exploration and observation, it was revealed that the nerve that innervates the pronator teres muscle has been damaged. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator teres syndrome (PTS) is caused by a compression of the median nerve (MN) by the pronator teres (PT) muscle in the forearm. The median nerve, C6 and C7, innervates the pronator teres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1/L2

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord starts at the foramen magnum, where it is continuous with the medulla oblongata, which is the most caudal portion of the brainstem.It then extends inferiorly through the vertebral canal. In adults, it usually ends at the level of the first or second lumbar vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 24-year-old man goes to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man goes to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and swollen parotid glands that are excruciating. You have a suspicion that it is mumps. Which of the following nerves is causing the discomfort the patient is experiencing:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The auriculotemporal nerve is irritated by mumps, which results in significant discomfort due to inflammation and swelling of the parotid gland, as well as the stretching of its capsule. Compression caused by swallowing or chewing exacerbates pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which extraocular muscle is entrapped in a patient with a blowout fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus

      Explanation:

      A blowout fracture is an isolated fracture of the orbital walls without compromise of the orbital rims. The common mechanisms are falls, high-velocity ball-related sports, traffic accidents, and interpersonal violence.The frontal, ethmoidal, sphenoid, zygomatic, and lacrimal bones form the bony structures of the orbit. Medially, the maxillary and the lacrimal bone form the lacrimal fossa. Together with the lamina papyracea of the ethmoid bone, they form the medial wall. The sphenoid bone forms the posterior wall and houses the orbital canal. Lateral to the orbital canal lies the superior orbital fissure housing cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI. The zygomatic bone forms the lateral wall. Superior and inferior borders are the frontal and maxillary bones. Located around the globe of the eye and attached to it are 6 extraocular muscles; the 4 rectus muscles and the superior and inferior oblique muscles. The fat and connective tissue around the globe help to reduce the pressure exerted by the extraocular muscles.The goal of treatment is to restore aesthetics and physiological function. The problem with orbital blowout fractures is that the volume of the orbit can be increased, resulting in enophthalmos and hypoglobus. In addition, the orbital tissue and inferior rectus muscle can become trapped by the bony fragments leading to diplopia, limitation of gaze, and tethering. Finally, the orbital injury can lead to retinal oedema, hyphema, and significant loss of vision.While some cases may be managed with conservative care, others may require some type of surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle,...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi radialis brevis is a fusiform muscle found in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Together with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris, it belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group. Extensor carpi radialis brevis originates from the lateral epicondyle of humerus via the common extensor tendon. This is a common origin that it shares with the extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles. Some fibres also originate from the lateral intermuscular septum, a thick aponeurosis that covers the muscle itself, and from the radial collateral ligament.The muscle courses inferiorly, giving off a long tendon in the middle of the forearm which descends towards the dorsal hand. The tendon passes through a groove on the posterior surface of radius, deep to the extensor retinaculum. After traversing the extensor retinaculum space, the tendon inserts into the posterior aspect of the base of the third metacarpal bone.Extensor carpi radialis brevis is innervated directly by the radial nerve (C5- C8), or sometimes from its deep branch/posterior interosseous nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.The muscle is vascularized by the radial recurrent artery, radial artery and deep brachial artery (via its radial collateral branch).Extensor carpi radialis brevis works together with extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis longus to extend the hand at the wrist joint. This action is vital in a sequence of muscle contractions needed for clenching a fist or making a grip. When performing these functions, wrist extension blocks the flexor muscles from on acting upon the hand. Instead, flexors act only on the digits, thereby flexing them and producing an effective hand grip, such as that seen in a tennis backhand. When the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle contracts together with extensor carpi radialis longus and flexor carpi radialis, it contributes to producing hand abduction (radial deviation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neck of fibula

      Explanation:

      Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively. The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula. Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of a lesion to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of a lesion to the vestibulocochlear nerve:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Hyperacusis is increased acuity of hearing with hypersensitivity to low tones resulting from paralysis of the stapedius muscle, innervated by the facial nerve. General sensation to the face and to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by the divisions of the trigeminal nerve (although taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the facial nerve). Eye movements are mediated by the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nerve. Ptosis results from paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris, innervated by the oculomotor nerve, or the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the sympathetic chain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
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      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Thoracotomy describes an incision made in the chest wall to access the contents of the thoracic cavity. Thoracotomies typically can be divided into two categories; anterolateral thoracotomies and posterolateral thoracotomies. These can be further subdivided into supra-mammary and infra-mammary and, of course, further divided into the right or left chest. Each type of incision has its utility given certain circumstances.A scalpel is used to sharply divide the skin along the inframammary crease overlying the fifth rib. Electrocautery is then used to divide the pectoralis major muscle and serratus anterior muscle. Visualization of the proper operative field can be achieved with the division and retraction of the latissimus dorsi. Either the fourth or fifth intercostal space is then entered after the division of intercostal muscles above the rib to ensure the preservation of the neurovascular bundle. Once the patient is properly secured to the operating table, the ipsilateral arm is raised and positioned anteriorly and cephalad to rest above the head. The incision is started along the inframammary crease and extended posterolaterally below the tip of the scapula. It is then extended superiorly between the spine and the edge of the scapula, a short distance. The trapezius muscle and the subcutaneous tissues are divided with electrocautery. The serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi muscles are identified and can be retracted. The intercostal muscles are then divided along the superior border of the ribs, and the thoracic cavity is accessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the brachioradialis muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It assists with supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints

      Explanation:

      Brachioradialis is a fusiform muscle located in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Along with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus, it comprises the radial group of forearm muscles, which belong to the superficial layer of posterior forearm muscles. Although anatomically part of the posterior forearm muscles, which are known to be forearm extensors, brachioradialis’ fibre orientation enables it to rather flex the forearm, and aids in supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joint.The brachioradialis muscle originates from the upper two-thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus and the anterior surface of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. It slides over the lateral surface of the elbow joint, entering the anterolateral cubital area. The muscle fibres course inferiorly down the radial part of the anterior forearm, forming a thick tendon in approximately the middle of the forearm. This tendon then traverses the remainder of the forearm, inserting near the wrist, just proximal to the styloid process of radius.Brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (from the root values C5-C6) that stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Blood supply to the brachioradialis muscle comes from branches of the radial artery, radial recurrent artery and the radial collateral branch of the deep brachial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in...

    Incorrect

    • What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion of the parietal optic radiation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the parietal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.A lesion of the temporal optic radiation will result in a contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Nearly 95% of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube and give rise to fimbrial, ampullary, isthmic, or interstitial tubal pregnancies. The ampulla is the most frequent site, followed by the isthmus. The remaining 5% of non tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior caesarean scar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What type of visual field defect are you likely to see in a...

    Incorrect

    • What type of visual field defect are you likely to see in a lesion of the visual cortex:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the visual cortex will result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 39-year-old guy comes to the emergency room with a persistent nasal bleed....

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old guy comes to the emergency room with a persistent nasal bleed. You suspect the bleeding is coming from Little's area based on your examination. Which of the blood vessels listed below is most likely to be involved:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries

      Explanation:

      The Kiesselbach plexus is a vascular network formed by five arteries that supply oxygenated blood to the nasal septum, which refers to the wall separating the right and left sides of the nose. The five arteries that form the Kiesselbach plexus: the sphenopalatine artery, which branches from the maxillary artery originating behind the jawbone; the anterior ethmoidal artery, which branches from the ophthalmic artery behind the eye; the posterior ethmoidal artery, which also branches from the ophthalmic artery; the septal branch of the superior labial artery, which is a branch of the facial artery supplying blood to all of the superficial features of the face; and finally, the greater palatine artery, which is a terminal branch of the maxillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry aneurysm as a complication of his disease. The patient complains of a sudden, severe headache. You are guessing subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to a ruptured berry aneurysm as the cause of his severe headaches. What is the most likely location of his aneurysm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior communicating artery

      Explanation:

      One of the complications that polycystic kidney disease may cause is the development of a brain aneurysm. A berry aneurysm is the most common type of brain aneurysm. The Circle of Willis, where the major blood vessels meet at the base of the brain, is where it usually appears. The most common junctions of the Circle of Willis where an aneurysm may occur include the anterior communicating artery (35%), internal carotid artery (30%), the posterior communicating artery and the middle cerebral artery (22%), and finally, the posterior circulation sites, most commonly the basilar artery tip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - The 'pump handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:...

    Incorrect

    • The 'pump handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior ends of the ribs moving upwards and forwards

      Explanation:

      Because the anterior ends of the ribs are inferior to the posterior ends, when the ribs are elevated, the anterior end moves upwards and forwards, moving the sternum upwards and forwards in turn. This ‘pump handle’ upwards and forwards movement changes the anteroposterior (AP) dimension of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 64-year-old woman had a humerus midshaft fracture due to tripping on a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman had a humerus midshaft fracture due to tripping on a curb and falling on her left arm. She might also have damaged which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve and deep brachial artery

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve and brachial artery are most likely to be damaged in humerus fractures. They are tethered together to the bone and cannot withstand the forces applied to it as a result of the displacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals that he has suffered damage to the nerve that innervates pectoralis major.Pectoralis major receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis major is a thick, fan-shaped muscle situated in the chest. It makes up the bulk of the chest musculature in the male and lies underneath the breast in the female. It overlies the thinner pectoralis minor muscle.Superficial muscles of the chest and arm showing pectoralis major (from Gray’s Anatomy)Pectoralis major has two heads; the clavicular head and the sternocostal head. The clavicular head originates from the anterior border and medial half of the clavicle. The sternocostal head originates from the anterior surface of the sternum, the superior six costal cartilages and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus.Pectoralis major receives dual innervation from the medial pectoral nerve and the lateral pectoral nerve.Its main actions are as follows:Flexes humerus (clavicular head)Extends humerus (sternocostal head)Adducts and medially rotates the humerusDraws scapula anteriorly and inferiorly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 65 - The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • The extensor digitorum longus is supplied by which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor digitorum longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L5, S1), a branch of the common fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The two heads of the flexor pollicis brevis usually differ in their innervation. The superficial head of flexor pollicis muscle receives nervous supply from the recurrent branch of the median nerve, whereas the deep head receives innervation from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from spinal roots C8 and T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - All these structures make up the portal triad EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All these structures make up the portal triad EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branches of the hepatic vein

      Explanation:

      The portal triad, is made up of a portal arteriole (a branch of the hepatic artery), a portal venule (a branch of the hepatic portal vein) and a bile duct. Also contained within the portal triad are lymphatic vessels and vagal parasympathetic nerve fibres.Branches of the hepatic vein is not part of the portal triad

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 63-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting of blood. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting of blood. An endoscopy was performed and a peptic ulcer was found to have eroded into an artery nearby.Which of the following most likely describes the location of the ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The posterior duodenum

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is peptic ulcer disease, particularly gastric and duodenal ulcers. Duodenal ulcers are most commonly associated with bleeding compared with gastric ulcers. Posterior duodenal ulcers are considered to be the most likely to cause severe bleeding because of its proximity to the branches of the gastroduodenal artery (GDA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 62 year old man has sustained a penetrating injury to the submandibular...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man has sustained a penetrating injury to the submandibular triangle. On examination, his tongue is weak and when protruded deviates to the left. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      Damage to the hypoglossal nerve results in weakness of the tongue, with deviation of the tongue towards the weak side on protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
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      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following statements is true about percutaneous needle aspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about percutaneous needle aspiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The needle should be inserted just above the upper border of the chosen rib

      Explanation:

      Pleural aspiration describes a procedure whereby pleural fluid or air may be aspirated via a system inserted temporarily into the pleural space. This may be for diagnostic purposes (usually removing 20–50 ml fluid) or therapeutic to relieve symptoms. In the literature it is varyingly called thoracocentesis, thoracentesis or pleural aspiration.In determining the correct patient position and site of insertion, it is important for the operator to be aware of the normal anatomy of the thorax and the pathology of the patient. Patient position is dependent on the operator preference and the site of the pathology. In the case of a posterior lying locule, this may be specific to the image-guided spot where fluid is most likely to be obtained. In most circumstances, however, the site of insertion of the needle is either in the triangle of safety or the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line. The patient may therefore either sit upright leaning forward with arms elevated but resting on a table or bed, thereby exposing the axilla, or lying on a bed in a position. The needle is inserted in the space just above the chosen rib to avoid damaging the neurovascular bundle. It is common practice to insert the needle more posteriorly for a pleural aspiration, but it should be noted that the neurovascular bundle may not be covered by the lower flange of the rib in this position and a more lateral or anterior site of insertion is considered safer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip extension, but normal hip abduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia means decreased muscle tone. It can be a condition on its own, called benign congenital hypotonia, or it can be indicative of another problem where there is progressive loss of muscle tone, such as muscular dystrophy or cerebral palsy. It is usually detected during infancy. Hypotonia is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the hip joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hamstrings and gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      For hip extension, the gluteus maximus and hamstring muscles work together. To compensate for gluteus maximus weakness, the hamstring frequently acts as the primary hip extensor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the occipital lobe:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Homonymous hemianopia

      Explanation:

      Homonymous hemianopia is a visual field defect involving either the two right or the two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. It is caused by lesions of the retrochiasmal visual pathways, ie, lesions of the optic tract, the lateral geniculate nucleus, the optic radiations, and the cerebral visual (occipital) cortex

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a neck injury which displays the following signs:- ability to extend the wrist against gravity- paralysis of the hands, trunk, and legs- absent sensation in the fingers and medial upper arms- normal sensation over the thumbs- absent sensation in chest, abdomen, and legsWhat is the neurological level of the injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      C1 – C4 INJURYMost severe of the spinal cord injury levels; paralysis in arms, hands, trunk and legs; patient may not be able to breathe on his or her own, cough, or control bowel or bladder movements; ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reducedC5 INJURYPerson can raise his or her arms and bend elbows; likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakenedC6 INJURYNerves affect wrist extension; paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically; should be able to bend wrists back; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakenedC7 INJURYNerves control elbow extension and some finger extension; most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shouldersC8 INJURYNerves control some hand movement; should be able to grasp and release objectsC5 – Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)C6 – Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)C7 – Elbow extensors (triceps)C8 – Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle fingerC5 – Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, arm at the patient’s side and forearm supinatedC6 – Wrist in full extensionC7 – Shoulder is neutral rotation, adducted and in 90 degrees of flexion with elbow in 45 degrees of flexionC8 –Full flexed position of the distal phalanx with the proximal finger joints stabilized in a extended position

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to her right hand whilst playing cricket. She is unable to fully straighten her right middle finger as the distal phalanx remains flexed. A picture of her hand is shown below. Which of the following structures within the digit was most likely injured:By Howcheng (Own work) [CC BY-SA 3.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0), via Wikimedia Commons

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of terminal extensor digitorum tendon

      Explanation:

      Damage to the insertion of the terminal extensor digitorum tendon would result in loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal joint causing a fixed flexion deformity, called the Mallet deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A suicidal patient had lacerated his wrist, which resulted in an ulnar nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A suicidal patient had lacerated his wrist, which resulted in an ulnar nerve injury. Which of the following will confirm the presence of an ulnar nerve injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Claw hand appearance

      Explanation:

      An ulnar injury may result in abnormal sensations in the little finger and ring finger, usually on the palm side, weakness, and loss of coordination of the fingers. A claw like deformity of the hand and wrist is present. Pain, numbness, decreased sensation, tingling, or burning sensation in the areas controlled by the nerve are also possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is preservation of proprioception

      Explanation:

      Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion. The patient presentation typically includes these two findings; however, there is variability depending on the portion of the spinal cord affected. Other findings include back pain, or autonomic dysfunction such as hypotension, neurogenic bowel or bladder, and sexual dysfunction. The severity of motor dysfunction can vary, typically resulting in paraplegia or quadriplegia.Proprioception, vibratory sense, two-point discrimination, and fine touch are not affected in anterior cord syndrome. These sensations are under the control of the dorsal column of the spinal cord, which is supplied by two posterior spinal arteries running in the posterior lateral sulci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 79 - A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus longus.Peroneus longus receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible fall during a photoshoot. The patient reported falling on his right forearm. There is evident swelling and tenderness on the affected area, with notable weakness of the flexor pollicis longus muscle. Radiographic imaging showed a fracture on the midshaft of the right radius.Which of the following nerves is most likely injured in the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor pollicis longus receives nervous supply from the anterior interosseous branch of median nerve, derived from spinal roots C7 and C8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following occurs at the transverse thoracic plane:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bifurcation of the trachea

      Explanation:

      A way to help remember the structures transected by the transverse thoracic plane is CLAPTRAP:C: cardiac plexusL: ligamentum arteriosumA: aortic arch (inner concavity)P: pulmonary trunkT: tracheal bifurcation (carina)R: right-to-left movement of the thoracic duct (posterior to the oesophagus)A: azygos vein drains into superior vena cavaP: pre-vertebral fascia and pre-tracheal fascia end

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 82 - When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical...

    Incorrect

    • When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical area, which of the following portosystemic anastomoses has most likely occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-umbilical veins and inferior epigastric vein

      Explanation:

      Caput medusae is a condition that consists of collateral veins radiating from the umbilicus and results from recanalization of the umbilical vein.Under normal conditions, the portal venous blood traverses the liver and drains into the inferior vena cava of the systemic venous circulation by way of the hepatic veins. This is the direct route. However, other, smaller communications exist between the portal and systemic systems, and they become important when the direct route becomes blocked. These communications are as follows:At the lower third of the oesophagus, the oesophageal branches of the left gastric vein (portal tributary) anastomose with the oesophageal veins draining the middle third of the oesophagus into the azygos veins (systemic tributary).Halfway down the anal canal, the superior rectal veins (portal tributary) draining the upper half of the anal canal anastomosis with the middle and inferior rectal veins (systemic tributaries), which are tributaries of the internal iliac and internal pudendal veins, respectively.The paraumbilical veins connect the left branch of the portal vein with the superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall (systemic tributaries). The paraumbilical veins travel in the falciform ligament and accompany the ligamentum teres.The veins of the ascending colon, descending colon, duodenum, pancreas, and liver (portal tributary) anastomose with the renal, lumbar, and phrenic veins (systemic tributaries).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated...

    Incorrect

    • All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve, except for the palatoglossus, which is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the recurrent (thenar) branch of median nerve (root value C8 and T1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 85 - A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zygomatic branch

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland. 1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth. 4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin. 5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
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  • Question 86 - Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Of the antiemetics, cyclizine is most commonly associated with acute dystonic reactions.

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine acts by inhibiting histamine pathways and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist which acts both peripherally in the GI tract and centrally within the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine-D2 receptor antagonist and acts centrally by blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide and prochlorperazine are both commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects, such as acute dystonic reaction. Cyclizine may rarely cause extrapyramidal effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 29 year old woman is unable to invert her foot after sustaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman is unable to invert her foot after sustaining an injury to her leg playing water-polo. Which of the following nerves are most likely damaged:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial and deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      Inversion of the foot is primarily produced by the tibialis anterior and the tibialis posterior muscles, innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the tibial nerve respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which of the following nerves innervates the gastrocnemius muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves innervates the gastrocnemius muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The gastrocnemius is innervated by the anterior rami of S1 and S2 spinal nerves, carried by the tibial nerve into the posterior compartment of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a...

    Incorrect

    • A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a ladder. Significant bruising was found to be overlying his latissimus dorsi muscle.Which of the following statements regarding the latissimus dorsi muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It raises the body towards the arm during climbing

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a broad, flat muscle that occupies the majority of the lower posterior thorax. The muscle’s primary function is of the upper extremity but is also considered to be a respiratory accessory muscle.Latissimus dorsi is a climbing muscle. With the arms fixed above the head, it can raise the trunk upwards, together with the help of pectoralis major. Functionally, the latissimus dorsi muscle belongs to the muscles of the scapular motion. This muscle is able to pull the inferior angle of the scapula in various directions, producing movements on the shoulder joint (internal rotation, adduction and extension of the arm). It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 – C8) from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, which enters the muscle on its deep surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 90 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver damage peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion.

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 60-year-old man with trauma to his cervical spine suffers from damage to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with trauma to his cervical spine suffers from damage to the ansa cervicalis, resulting to paresis of his infrahyoid muscles.All of the following are considered infrahyoid muscles, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mylohyoid

      Explanation:

      Infrahyoid muscles are also known as “strap muscles” which connect the hyoid, sternum, clavicle and scapula. They are located below the hyoid bone on the anterolateral surface of the thyroid gland and are involved in movements of the hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage during vocalization, swallowing and mastication. They are composed of four paired muscles, organized into two layers.Superficial layer consists of the sternohyoid and omohyoidDeep layer consists of the sternothyroid and thyrohyoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the following nerves innervates the adductor brevis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves innervates the adductor brevis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      Like the majority of the thigh adductors, adductor brevis is innervated by the obturator nerve. Obturator nerve is derived from the lumbar plexus (anterior branches of spinal nerves L2-L4).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 70-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room after suffering a traumatic fall while showering. Upon physical examination, the attending physician noted a hyperextended neck, 1/5 muscle strength in both upper extremities, 4/5 muscle strength in both lower extremities, and variable loss in sensation. The patient is placed in the wards for monitoring. For the next 24 hours, anuria is noted.Which of the following spinal cord injuries is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most common type of incomplete cord injury and almost always occurs due to a traumatic injury. It results in motor deficits that are worse in the upper extremities as compared to the lower extremities. It may also cause bladder dysfunction (retention) and variable sensory deficits below the level of injury.The majority of these patients will be older and present with symptoms after a fall with hyperextension of their neck. On examination, patients will have more significant strength impairments in the upper extremities (especially the hands) compared to the lower extremities. Patients often complain of sensory deficits below the level of injury, but this is variable. Pain and temperature sensations are typically affected, but the sensation of light touch can also be impaired. The most common sensory deficits are in a cape-like distribution across their upper back and down their posterior upper extremities. They will often have neck pain at the site of spinal cord impingement.Bladder dysfunction (most commonly urinary retention) and priapism can also be signs of upper motor neuron dysfunction. The sacral sensation is usually preserved, but the clinician should assess the rectal tone to evaluate the severity of the compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Most of the lymph from vessels that drain the breast is collected in...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the lymph from vessels that drain the breast is collected in which of the following lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymph is the fluid that flows through the lymphatic system. Axillary lymph nodes are near the breasts. They are often the first location to which breast cancer spreads if it moves beyond the breast tissue. They receive approximately 75% of lymph drainage from the breast via lymphatic vessels, laterally and superiorly. The lymph usually first drains to the anterior axillary nodes, and from here, through the central axillary, apical, and supraclavicular nodes in sequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Receptive dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the extensor pollicis longus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the extensor pollicis longus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis longus is part of the deep extensors of the forearm together with extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, extensor indicis and supinator muscles. It is located on the posterior aspect of forearm, extending from the middle third of the ulna, and adjacent interosseous membrane, to the distal phalanx of the thumb.Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply from the posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches of the anterior interosseous artery.The main action of extensor pollicis longus is extension of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. Extension at the metacarpophalangeal joint occurs in synergy with extensor pollicis brevis muscle. When the thumb reaches the full extension or abduction, extensor pollicis longus can also assist in adduction of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 97 - A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man suffers an open fracture of his forearm. The nerve that innervates the pronator quadratus muscle is damaged as a consequence of this injury.Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator quadratus is a small, square-shaped muscle that lies in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It arises from the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna and inserts into the distal fourth of the anterior surface of the radius.Pronator quadratus is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve. It receives its blood supply from the anterior interosseous artery, which is a branch of the common interosseous artery, which in turn is a branch of the ulnar artery.The main action of pronator quadratus is to assist pronator teres with pronation of the forearm. The deep fibres bind the radius and ulna together.The pronator quadratus muscle highlighted in blue (adapted from Gray’s Anatomy)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 98 - A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip adduction, but normal hip flexion. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pectineus

      Explanation:

      The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 99 - A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency department. You notice weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination during your assessment. Which of these nerves has been affected:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve is relatively protected in the axilla, hence injury to it is uncommon. A stab wound in the axilla is the most prevalent source of damage. Because of the activities of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis, and the supinator muscles, arm flexion and forearm flexion and supination are diminished but not completely lost. Over the lateral part of the forearm, there is a lack of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 100 - A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual loss in the lower left quadrant in both visual fields is an indication of an inferior homonymous. This is due to a lesion of the superior fibres of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe on the contralateral side of the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 101 - An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke, presents with left-sided hemiplegia of the face, tongue, and limbs and right-sided deficits in motor eye activity. A CT scan was ordered and showed a right-sided stroke. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Weber syndrome is a midbrain stroke characterized by crossed hemiplegia along with oculomotor nerve deficits and it occurs with the occlusion of the median and/or paramedian perforating branches of the basilar artery. Typical clinical findings include ipsilateral CN III palsy, ptosis, and mydriasis (such as damage to parasympathetic fibres of CN III) with contralateral hemiplegia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 102 - You are taking care of a 55-year-old male patient who is a weightlifter....

    Incorrect

    • You are taking care of a 55-year-old male patient who is a weightlifter. He is suspected of having a direct inguinal hernia. Where would this hernia appear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial to the inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      A direct inguinal hernia is a form of groin hernia that occurs when abdominal viscera protrude through a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, notably through Hesselbach’s triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 103 - Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve palsy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to raise the eyelid

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve palsy can result in inability to close the eye due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Elevation of the eyelid in eye opening is a function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle and the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the oculomotor nerve and the sympathetic chain respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
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  • Question 104 - A 27-year-old man presents with a laceration of his forearm that severed the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a laceration of his forearm that severed the nerve that innervates flexor carpi radialis.Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor carpi radialis is innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 105 - A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body. In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 106 - In the emergency department, a 50-year-old female appears with a lack of sensation...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency department, a 50-year-old female appears with a lack of sensation over the front two-thirds of her tongue. Taste and salivation are both present. The patient might have damage which of her nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve, transmits sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. The chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve, transmits taste to the front two-thirds of the tongue as well as secretomotor innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands. As a result, any damage to the lingual nerve can cause changes in salivary secretion on the affected side, as well as a loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and temporary or permanent sensory changes in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and the floor of the mouth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
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  • Question 107 - A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting to attempt to run around another player. An MRI was performed and showed that his injury caused two other structures in the knee joint to be injured. Which of the following structures is most likely also injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial meniscus

      Explanation:

      The O’Donoghue unhappy triad or terrible triad often occurs in contact and non-contact sports, such as basketball, football, or rugby, when there is a lateral force applied to the knee while the foot is fixated on the ground. This produces an abduction-external rotation mechanism of injury.The O’Donoghue unhappy triad comprises three types of soft tissue injury that frequently tend to occur simultaneously in knee injuries. O’Donoghue described the injuries as: anterior cruciate ligament tear, medial collateral ligament injury, and medial meniscal tear (lateral compartment bone bruise).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 108 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 109 - Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your patient is complaining of elbow extension weakness and loss of sensation in her middle finger? She also has pain and tenderness in her cervical region, which is caused by a herniated disc, all after a whiplash-type injury in a car accident.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A C7 spinal nerve controls elbow extension and some finger extension. Damage to this nerve can result in a burning pain in the shoulder blade or back of the arms. The ability to extend shoulders, arms, and fingers may also be affected. Dexterity may also be compromised in the hands or fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 110 - Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation in both lower extremities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The main function of the spinothalamic tract is to carry pain and temperature via the lateral part of the pathway and crude touch via the anterior part. The spinothalamic tract pathway is an imperative sensory pathway in human survival because it enables one to move away from noxious stimuli by carrying pain and temperature information from the skin to the thalamus where it is processed and transmitted to the primary sensory cortex. The primary sensory cortex communicates with the primary motor cortex, which lies close to it, to generate rapid movement in response to potentially harmful stimuli. Furthermore, the spinothalamic tract has a role in responding to pruritogens, causing us to itch. Interestingly, itching suppresses the spinothalamic tract neuron response to the histamine effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
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  • Question 111 - A 33-year-old heavily muscled man presents with left-sided chest pain. After taking part...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old heavily muscled man presents with left-sided chest pain. After taking part in a powerlifting competition, he felt a painful snap at the front of his shoulder and chest. There is also the presence of bruising and swelling over the left side of his chest. A ruptured pectoralis major muscle was suspected upon examining the injured area. Which of the following statements regarding the surface markings of the pectoralis major muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus

      Explanation:

      The pectoralis major is the superior most and largest muscle of the anterior chest wall. It is a thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies underneath the breast tissue and forms the anterior wall of the axilla.Its origin lies anterior surface of the medial half of the clavicle, the anterior surface of the sternum, the first 7 costal cartilages, the sternal end of the sixth rib, and the aponeurosis of the external oblique of the anterior abdominal wall.The insertion of the pectoralis major is at the lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus. There are 2 heads of the pectoralis major, the clavicular and the sternocostal, which reference their area of origin. The function of the pectoralis major is 3-fold and dependent on which heads of muscles are involved:- Flexion, adduction and medial rotation of the arm at the glenohumeral joint- Clavicular head causes flexion of the extended arm- Sternoclavicular head causes extension of the flexed armArterial supply of the pectoralis major, the pectoral artery, arises from the second branch of the axillary artery, the thoracoacromial trunk.The 2 heads of the pectoralis major have different nervous supplies. The clavicular head derives its nerve supply from the lateral pectoral nerve. The medial pectoral nerve innervates the sternocostal head. The lateral pectoral nerve arises directly from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, and the medial pectoral nerve arises from the medial cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 112 - Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who is suspected of having meningitis. This patient, a 15-year-old female, presented to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Where should you aspirate a sample of CSF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the lower back’s lumbar region. A needle is inserted into the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, also known as the subarachnoid space, to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
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  • Question 113 - Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding codeine, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a reduced risk of toxicity in patients who are ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine.

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a weak opioid and can be used for the relief of mild to moderate pain where other painkillers such as paracetamol or ibuprofen have proved ineffective.Codeine is metabolised to morphine which is responsible for its therapeutic effects. Codeine 240 mg is approximately equivalent to 30 mg of morphine. The capacity to metabolise codeine can vary considerably between individuals; there is a marked increase in morphine toxicity in people who are ultra rapid metabolisers, and reduced therapeutic effect in poor codeine metabolisers. Codeine is contraindicated in patients of any age who are known to be ultra-rapid metabolisers of codeine (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolisers).Codeine is also contraindicated in children under 12, and in children of any age who undergo the removal of tonsils or adenoids for the treatment of obstructive sleep apnoea due to reports of morphine toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 114 - Following a road traffic collision, a patient sustains damage to the long thoracic...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic collision, a patient sustains damage to the long thoracic nerve. Which of the following clinical findings would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Winged scapula deformity

      Explanation:

      Damage to the long thoracic nerve results in weakness/paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. Loss of function of this muscle causes the medial border, and particularly the inferior angle, of the scapula to elevate away from the thoracic wall, resulting in the characteristic ‘winging’ of the scapula. This deformity becomes more pronounced if the patient presses the upper limb against a wall. Furthermore, normal elevation of the arm is no longer possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 115 - You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 116 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 117 - Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the fundus of the bladder and the ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      In a triangular area between the vasa deferentia, the bladder and rectum are separated only by rectovesical fascia, commonly known as Denonvillier’s fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 118 - Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children under 16 years

      Explanation:

      Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 119 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: