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  • Question 1 - Which of these immunoglobulin molecules can cross the placenta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these immunoglobulin molecules can cross the placenta?

      Your Answer: IgM and IgG

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      An important mechanism that provides protection to the foetus is placental transfer of maternal IgG antibodies while his/her humoral response is inefficient. The only antibody class that significantly crosses the human placenta is IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral three and a half digits. You suspect carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following clinical features would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer: Inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger

      Correct Answer: Inability to touch the pad of the little finger with the thumb

      Explanation:

      Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel will result in weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles – resulting in weakness of opposition, abduction and flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint and anaesthesia or paraesthesia over the distribution of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve (skin over the palmar surface and fingertips of the lateral three and a half digits). The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and abduction of the fingers is produced by the interossei, also innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is produced by the flexor pollicis longus, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is produced by the flexor digitorum profundus. Median nerve injury at the wrist will not affect the long flexors of the forearm as these are innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve which arises in the proximal forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding linear relationships between two variables, what does a positive correlation coefficient indicate:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding linear relationships between two variables, what does a positive correlation coefficient indicate:

      Your Answer: The two variables are inversely proportional

      Correct Answer: The two variables are directly proportional

      Explanation:

      A positive correlation coefficient means that the two variables are directly proportional e.g. height and weight in healthy growing children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin molecules are composed of 4 identical light chains.

      Correct Answer: The isotype of immunoglobulin is determined by the heavy chain.

      Explanation:

      The composition of immunoglobulin molecules is two identical heavy and two identical light chains. These chains are linked by disulphide bridges and are each have highly variable regions which give the immunoglobulin its specificity. In addition, they have constant regions and there is virtual complete correspondence in amino acid sequence in all antibodies of a given isotype. Five isotypes of immunoglobulin exist – these are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE and IgD. They are determined by the heavy chain (gamma, alpha, mu, epsilon or delta respectively). The light chains are either kappa or lambda.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students...

    Correct

    • You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students about skeletal muscle physiology and its use in clinical medicine. They pose a series of difficult questions to you.Which of the following definitions for the A-band of the sarcomere is correct?

      Your Answer: A band that contains the entire length of a single thick filament (myosin)

      Explanation:

      Myofibrils, which are around 1 m in diameter, make up each myofiber. The cytoplasm separates them and arranges them in a parallel pattern along the cell’s long axis. These myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin filaments that are repeated in sarcomeres, which are the myofiber’s basic functional units.Myofilaments are the filaments that make up myofibrils, and they’re made mostly of proteins. Myofilaments are divided into three categories:Myosin filaments are thick filaments made up mostly of the protein myosin.Actin filaments are thin filaments made up mostly of the protein actin.Elastic filaments are mostly made up of the protein titin.The sarcomere is a Z-line segment that connects two adjacent Z-lines.The I-bands are thin filament zones that run from either side of the Z-lines to the thick filament’s beginning.Between the I-bands is the A-band, which spans the length of a single thick filament.The H-zone is a zone of thick filaments that is not overlaid by thin filaments in the sarcomere’s centre. The H-zone keeps the myosin filaments in place by surrounding them with six actin filaments each.The M-band (or M-line) is a disc of cross-connecting cytoskeleton elements in the centre of the H-zone.The thick filament is primarily made up of myosin. The thin filament is primarily made up of actin. Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin are found in a 7:1:1 ratio in thin filaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Following a phone call from the microbiology consultant, you evaluate a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • Following a phone call from the microbiology consultant, you evaluate a patient who has been diagnosed with urinary sepsis. Following the results of the blood cultures, he recommends that you add gentamicin to the patient's antibiotic treatment.Gentamicin produces its pharmacological effect by binding to which of the following? 

      Your Answer: DNA gyrase

      Correct Answer: The 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics with aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and prevent aminoacyl-tRNA from binding, preventing protein synthesis.They also cause mRNA misreading, resulting in the production of non-functional proteins. This last mechanism is unique to aminoglycosides, and it may explain why they are bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic, as other protein synthesis inhibitors are.Patients with myasthenia gravis should avoid aminoglycosides since they can disrupt neuromuscular transmission. They cross the placenta and are linked to poisoning of the 8th cranial nerve in the foetus, as well as permanent bilateral deafness.It is possible that they will cause deafness, although this is not a contraindication. In individuals with renal impairment, serum aminoglycoside concentrations should be closely monitored, but this is still not considered a contraindication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to natural killer cells?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to natural killer cells?

      Your Answer: They are particularly important against parasites.

      Correct Answer: They are part of the innate immune system.

      Explanation:

      Natural Killer (NK) Cells are lymphocytes in the same family as T and B cells, which come from a common progenitor. They are cytotoxic CD8 positive cells that do not have the T-cell receptor. They are very big cells with cytoplasmic granules and are designed to kill target cells with a low level of expression of HLA class I molecules. Examples include during a viral infection or on a malignant cell. NK cells display several receptors for HLA molecules on their surface, and when HLA is expressed on the target cell, these deliver an inhibitory signal into the NK cell. Absent HLA molecules on the target cell cause this inhibitory signal to get lost and as a result, the NK cell can then kill its target. Also, NK cells display antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, where antibody binds to antigen on the surface of the target cell. The NK cells then bind to the Fc portion of the bound antibody and kill the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old man who is acutely unwell has his blood sent for test...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man who is acutely unwell has his blood sent for test and the results come back with a CRP of 115.Which of these statements about C-reactive protein is FALSE?

      Your Answer: It is produced in the bone marrow

      Explanation:

      C-reactive protein(CRP) is synthesized in the liver in response to increased interleukin-6 (IL-6) secretion by macrophages and T-cells. Some conditions that cause CRP levels to a rise include: bacterial infection, fungal infection, severe trauma, autoimmune disease, Organ tissue necrosis, malignancy and surgery.It is useful in the clinical setting as a marker of inflammatory activity and can be used to monitor infections. CRP levels start to rise 4-6 hours after an inflammatory trigger and reaches peak levels at 36-50 hours.In the absence of a disease process, the normal plasma concentration is less than 5 mg/l.CRP is useful for monitoring inflammatory conditions (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis and malignancy), can be used as a prognostic marker in acute pancreatitis, and serial measurement can be used to recognize the onset of nosocomial infections in the intensive care settling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency is associated with koilonychia and atrophic glossitis.

      Correct Answer: Dietary insufficiency is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men and postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      403.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - All of the following are indications for beta-blockers EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are indications for beta-blockers EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Raynaud's disease

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are contraindicated in Raynaud’s syndrome. Beta-blockers may be indicated in:HypertensionPheochromocytoma (only with an alpha-blocker)AnginaSecondary prevention after ACSArrhythmias including atrial fibrillationHeart failureThyrotoxicosisAnxietyProphylaxis of migraineEssential tremorGlaucoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was taken and a neurological examination was performed.Which of the following cranial nerves is correctly paired with its lesion?

      Your Answer: The oculomotor nerve: the eye appears to look ‘down and out’

      Explanation:

      The following are the lesions of the cranial nerves:1. Olfactory nerve (I)Reduced taste and smell, but not to ammonia which stimulates the pain fibres carried in the trigeminal nerve2. Optic nerve (II)Manifested by visual field defects, pupillary abnormalities, optic neuritis, optic atrophy, papilledema3. Oculomotor nerve (III)A fixed, dilated pupil which doesn’t accommodate, ptosis, complete internal ophthalmoplegia (masked by ptosis), unopposed lateral rectus causes outward deviation of the eye. If the ocular sympathetic fibres are also affected behind the orbit, the pupil will be fixed but not dilated.4. Trochlear nerve (IV)Diplopia due to weakness of downward and inward eye movement. The most common cause of a pure vertical diplopia. The patient tends to compensate by tilting the head away from the affected side.5. Trigeminal nerve (V)Reduced sensation or dysesthesia over the affected area. Weakness of jaw clenching and side-to-side movement. If there is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion, the jaw deviates to the weak side when the mouth is opened. There may be fasciculation of temporalis and masseter.6. Abducens nerve (VI)Inability to look laterally. The eye is deviated medially because of unopposed action of the medial rectus muscle.7. Facial nerve (VII)Facial weakness. In an LMN lesion the forehead is paralysed – the final common pathway to the muscles is destroyed; whereas the upper facial muscles are partially spared in an upper motor neurone (UMN) lesion because of alternative pathways in the brainstem. There appear to be different pathways for voluntary and emotional movement. CVAs usually weaken voluntary movement, often sparing involuntary movements (e.g., spontaneous smiling). The much rarer selective loss of emotional movement is called mimic paralysis and is usually due to a frontal or thalamic lesion.8. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)Unilateral sensorineural deafness, tinnitus. Slow-growing lesions seldom present with vestibular symptoms as compensation has time to occur.9. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)Unilateral lesions do not cause any deficit because of bilateral corticobulbar connections. Bilateral lesions result in pseudobulbar palsy. These nerves are closely interlinked.10. Vagus nerve (X)Palatal weakness can cause ‘nasal speech’ and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.11. Accessory nerve (XI)Weakness and wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles12.Hypoglossal nerve (XII)An LMN lesion produces wasting of the ipsilateral side of the tongue, with fasciculation; and on attempted protrusion the tongue deviates towards the affected side, but the tongue deviates away from the side of a central lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding nitrous oxide, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding nitrous oxide, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Nitrous oxide may be used for maintenance of anaesthesia where its use allows reduced dosage of other agents.

      Explanation:

      For anaesthesia, nitrous oxide is commonly used in a concentration of around 50 – 66% in oxygen in association with other inhalation or intravenous agents. Nitrous oxide cannot be used as the sole anaesthetic agent due to lack of potency, but is useful as part of a combination of drugs since it allows reduction in dosage of other agents. Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12. Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow and should be avoided in patients with, or at risk of, raised intracranial pressure. Nitrous oxide may be administered by any trained personnel experienced in its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing fatigue and lethargy, along with itching, especially after a hot bath. He also complains of increased sweating and dizziness. On examination, he has a plethoric appearance. Abdominal examination shows the presence of splenomegaly. A basic panel of blood tests is ordered in which her Hb comes out to be 17 g/dL. Which one of the following treatment options will be most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer: Venesection

      Explanation:

      The clinical and laboratory findings, in this case, support a diagnosis of polycythaemia vera. A plethoric appearance, lethargy, splenomegaly and itching are common in this disease. Patients may also have gouty arthritis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, erythromelalgia, stroke, myocardial infarction or DVT. The average age for diagnosis of Polycythaemia Vera is 65-74 years. It is a haematological malignancy in which there is overproduction of all three cell lines. Venesection is the treatment of choice as it would cause a decrease in the number of red blood cells within the body.Erythropoietin is given in patients with chronic renal failure as they lack this hormone. Administration of erythropoietin in such patients causes stimulation of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Desferrioxamine is a chelating agent for iron and is given to patients with iron overload due to repeated blood transfusions, e.g. in thalassemia patients.Penicillamine is a chelating agent for Copper, given as treatment in Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L). Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults. In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine. Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine....

    Correct

    • Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine. Most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine through the pancreatic duct.Which of these digestive enzymes is responsible for breaking down lipids into fatty acid and glycerol?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic lipase

      Explanation:

      The principal enzyme involved in lipid digestion is pancreatic lipase. It breaks down triglycerides into free fatty acids and monoglycerides. Pancreatic lipase works with the help of emulsifying agents secreted by the liver and the gallbladder. The main emulsifying agents are the bile acids, cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid. These are conjugated with the amino acids glycine and taurine to form bile salts. Bile salts are more soluble than bile acids and act as detergents to emulsify lipids. The free fatty acids and monoglycerides form tiny particles with these bile salts called micelles. The outer region of the micelle is water-attracting (hydrophilic), whereas the inner core is water-repelling (hydrophobic). This arrangement allows the micelles to enter the aqueous layers surrounding the microvilli and free fatty acids and monoglycerides to diffuse passively into the small intestinal cells.Pancreatic amylase breaks down some carbohydrates (notably starch) into oligosaccharides. Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that aids in digestion of proteinCarboxypeptidase hydrolyses the first peptide or amide bond at the carboxyl or C-terminal end of proteins and peptides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the primary function of collagen in wound healing? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary function of collagen in wound healing?

      Your Answer: Strength and support

      Explanation:

      Key elements of the maturation stage include collagen cross-linking, collagen remodelling, wound contraction, and repigmentation. The tensile strength of the wound is directly proportional to the amount of collagen present. Numerous types of collagen have been identified; types I and III predominate in the skin and aponeurotic layers. Initially, a triple helix (tropocollagen) is formed by three protein chains; two are identical alpha-1 protein chains, and the third is an alpha-2 protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following occurs primarily to produce passive expiration: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following occurs primarily to produce passive expiration:

      Your Answer: Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive expiration is produced primarily by relaxation of the inspiratory muscles (diaphragm and external intercostal muscles) and the elastic recoil of the lungs. In expiration, depression of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), depression of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and elevation of the diaphragm result in a reduction of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. This results in a decreased intrathoracic volume and increased intrathoracic pressure and thus air is forced out of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • Which cervical interspace is most likely injured if a patient presents with difficulty of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion, pain in the right shoulder and lateral arm, and decreased sensation over the deltoid and lateral arm?

      Your Answer: C6-C7

      Correct Answer: C4-C5

      Explanation:

      In the setting of cervical radiculopathy, because the nerve root of a spinal nerve is compressed or otherwise impaired, the pain and symptomatology can spread far from the neck and radiates to arm, neck, chest, upper back and/or shoulders. Often muscle weakness and impaired deep tendon reflexes are noted along the course of the spinal nerve.Cervical radiculopathy is almost always unilateral, although, in rare cases, both nerves at a given level may be impacted. Those rare presentations can confound physical diagnosis and require acceleration to advanced imaging especially in cases of trauma. If there is nerve impingement, the affected side will be reduced relative to the unaffected side. Reduction in strength of muscles innervated by the affected nerve is also significant physical finding.For a C4-C5 injury, the following symptoms may present:Weakness in the deltoid muscle (front and side of the shoulder) and upper armShoulder painNumbness along the outside of the upper arm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The primary mechanism of action of ketamine is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary mechanism of action of ketamine is:

      Your Answer: N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a non-competitive antagonist of the calcium-ion channel in the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor. It further inhibits the NMDA-receptor by binding to its phencyclidine binding site. Ketamine also acts at other receptors as an opioid receptor agonist (analgesic effects), as an muscarinic anticholinergic receptor antagonist (antimuscarinic effects) and by blocking fast sodium channels (local anaesthetic effect).Overdose may lead to panic attacks and aggressive behaviour; rarely seizures, increased ICP, and cardiac arrestVery similar in chemical makeup to PCP (phencyclidine), but it is shorter acting and less toxic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding haemoglobin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding haemoglobin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin synthesis occurs in mature erythrocytes.

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin is composed of four polypeptide globin chains each with its own iron containing haem molecule. Haem synthesis occurs largely in the mitochondria by a series of biochemical reactions commencing with the condensation of glycine and succinyl coenzyme A under the action of the key rate-limiting enzyme delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase. The globin chains are synthesised by ribosomes in the cytosol. Haemoglobin synthesis only occurs in immature red blood cells.There are three types of haemoglobin in normal adult blood: haemoglobin A, A2 and F:- Normal adult haemoglobin (HbA) makes up about 96 – 98 % of total adult haemoglobin, and consists of two alpha (α) and two beta (β) globin chains. – Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2), a normal variant of adult haemoglobin, makes up about 1.5 – 3.5 % of total adult haemoglobin and consists of two α and two delta (δ) globin chains.- Foetal haemoglobin is the main Hb in the later two-thirds of foetal life and in the newborn until approximately 12 weeks of age. Foetal haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin. Red cells are destroyed by macrophages in the liver and spleen after , 120 days. The haem group is split from the haemoglobin and converted to biliverdin and then bilirubin. The iron is conserved and recycled to plasma via transferrin or stored in macrophages as ferritin and haemosiderin. An increased rate of haemoglobin breakdown results in excess bilirubin and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the...

    Correct

    • Adrenocorticotropic hormone release from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Corticotropin-releasing hormone

      Explanation:

      ACTH secretion is stimulated by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His GP had recently given him a new medication.Which one of these is the most likely medication responsible for the drug-induced anaphylactic reaction?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis is penicillin.The second commonest cause are NSAIDs. Other drugs associated with anaphylaxis are ACE inhibitors and aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

      Your Answer: Sexually transmitted

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily spread by sexual contact or through transmission during childbirth. It causes gonorrhoea which is a purulent infection of the mucous membrane surfaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A new blood test is being developed to diagnose DVT. 1000 people presenting...

    Incorrect

    • A new blood test is being developed to diagnose DVT. 1000 people presenting to ED with suspected DVT undergo the new blood test and the gold standard doppler ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis. Of the 1000 people, 77 are confirmed to have a DVT. Of the patients diagnosed with DVT, 75 test positive with the new diagnostic test and of the patients not diagnosed with DVT, 125 test positive with the new diagnostic test. What is the positive predictive value of this test:DVT YesDVT NoTotalPositive testa= 75b = 125200Negative testc = 2d = 798800Total779231000

      Your Answer: 0.95

      Correct Answer: 0.375

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value (PPV) is the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease.Positive predictive value (PPV) = a/(a+b) = 75/200= 0.375 = 37.5%This means there is a 37.5% chance, if the test is positive, that the patient actually has a DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. The nerve that innervates peroneus tertius is damaged as a consequence of his injuries.Peroneus tertius receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter nutrient capillaries.

      Correct Answer: Lipids are reesterified in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the enterocyte.

      Explanation:

      Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested (the presence of fatty acids and monoglycerides in the duodenum inhibits gastric emptying). In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Pancreatic lipase digests triglyceride into monoglycerides and free fatty acids. The products of fat digestion (fatty acids and monoglycerides), cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins diffuse passively into the enterocytes. Once inside the epithelial cell, lipid is taken into the smooth endoplasmic reticulum where much of it is re esterified. Dietary and synthesised lipids are then incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of beta-blockers: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of beta-blockers:

      Your Answer: Reduced AV conduction time

      Explanation:

      Effects of beta-blockers:Cardiovascular system: Reduce blood pressureReduce heart rate, contractility and cardiac outputIncrease AV conduction time, refractoriness and suppress automaticityEye:Reduce intraocular pressureRespiratory system:Cause bronchoconstriction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for: ...

    Incorrect

    • In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for:

      Your Answer: Pertussis

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      In infants and young children, lymphocytosis often occurs in response to infections that would normally produce a neutrophil reaction in adults.Lymphocytosis occurs in:1. Viral infections (e.g. infectious mononucleosis, HIV, rubella, mumps, viral hepatitis, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex or zoster)2. Bacterial infections (e.g. pertussis, tuberculosis, toxoplasmosis, syphilis)3. Chronic lymphoid leukaemias4. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemias5. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma6. Thyrotoxicosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle,...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle, except?

      Your Answer: It is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi radialis brevis is a fusiform muscle found in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Together with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris, it belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group. Extensor carpi radialis brevis originates from the lateral epicondyle of humerus via the common extensor tendon. This is a common origin that it shares with the extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles. Some fibres also originate from the lateral intermuscular septum, a thick aponeurosis that covers the muscle itself, and from the radial collateral ligament.The muscle courses inferiorly, giving off a long tendon in the middle of the forearm which descends towards the dorsal hand. The tendon passes through a groove on the posterior surface of radius, deep to the extensor retinaculum. After traversing the extensor retinaculum space, the tendon inserts into the posterior aspect of the base of the third metacarpal bone.Extensor carpi radialis brevis is innervated directly by the radial nerve (C5- C8), or sometimes from its deep branch/posterior interosseous nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.The muscle is vascularized by the radial recurrent artery, radial artery and deep brachial artery (via its radial collateral branch).Extensor carpi radialis brevis works together with extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis longus to extend the hand at the wrist joint. This action is vital in a sequence of muscle contractions needed for clenching a fist or making a grip. When performing these functions, wrist extension blocks the flexor muscles from on acting upon the hand. Instead, flexors act only on the digits, thereby flexing them and producing an effective hand grip, such as that seen in a tennis backhand. When the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle contracts together with extensor carpi radialis longus and flexor carpi radialis, it contributes to producing hand abduction (radial deviation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: During defaecation contraction of the pelvic floor muscles straightens the rectum.

      Correct Answer: Colonic mass movement occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Colonic mass movement describes the intense contraction that begins halfway along the transverse colon and pushes the intestinal contents in the proximal colon towards the rectum. It occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum as part of the gastrocolic reflex and if faeces is present in the rectum, stimulates the urge to defecate. Distention of the rectum causes firing of afferent cholinergic parasympathetic fibres. The internal sphincter is made up of circular smooth muscle innervated by the autonomic fibres, and the more distal external sphincter is composed of striated muscle innervated by motor fibres from the pudendal nerve. During defaecation, relaxation of pelvic muscles straightens the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      33.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immune Responses (0/4) 0%
Pathology (3/9) 33%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Statistics (0/2) 0%
Basic Cellular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/6) 67%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (5/6) 83%
General Pathology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
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