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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following arteries branches from the deep femoral artery and courses between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?
Your Answer: Medical femoral circumflex
Explanation:The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A premenopausal woman has an ovarian tumour. Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a premenopausal woman?
Your Answer: Dysgerminoma
Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature and solid tissues. Dermoid cysts grow slowly and this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a difficult colonoscopy to assess the extent of a caecal carcinoma. His abdomen is soft and non tender. Blood cultures grow gram positive cocci. Which of the following organisms is likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Bacteroides fragilis
Correct Answer: Streptococcus bovis
Explanation:Streptococcus bovis (S. bovis) bacteria are associated with colorectal cancer and adenoma. S. bovis is currently named S. gallolyticus. 25-80% of patients with S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia have concomitant colorectal tumours. Colonic neoplasia may arise years after the presentation of bacteraemia or infectious endocarditis of S. bovis/gallolyticus. The presence of S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia and/or endocarditis is also related to the presence of villous or tubular-villous adenomas in the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55 year old man undergoes a live donor related renal transplant for end stage renal failure. He had good urine output following surgery but it was noticed while he was on the ward that his urinary catheter is not draining despite the urostomy continuing to drain urine. Which intervention would be appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: Bladder wash out
Explanation:In this patient, a blocked catheter is the case because the urine is flowing into the urostomy bag but it is not able to pass through the catheter.
It is recommended that in cases without hypotension, a bladder washout should be done if there is clot retention. The catheter may also be changed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus
Explanation:A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:
Your Answer: Vitamin B3
Explanation:Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.
Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.
Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.
Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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Congenital anomalies of genitourinary tract are more common than any other system. Which of the following anomalies carries the greatest risk of morbidity?
Your Answer: Bladder exstrophy
Explanation:Bladder exstrophy is the condition where the urinary bladder opens from the anterior aspect suprapubically. The mucosa of the bladder is continuous with the abdominal skin and there is separation of the pubic bones. The function of the upper urinary tract remains normal usually. Treatment consists of surgical reconstruction of the bladder and returning it to the pelvis. There can be a need for continent urinary diversion along with reconstruction of the genitals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy undergoes a closure of a loop colostomy. Which of the following should be used as a thromboprophylaxis?
Your Answer: None
Explanation:Clinical characteristics associated with increased venous thromboembolism (VTE) risk in children (listed alphabetically, owing to the current lack of expert consensus or robust data regarding relative risk contributions)
-Anticipated hospitalization > 72 h
-Cancer (active, not in remission)
-Central venous catheter presence
-Oestrogen therapy started within the last 1 month
-Inflammatory disease (newly diagnosed, poorly controlled, or flaring)
-Intensive care unit admission
-Mechanical ventilation
-Mobility decreased from baseline (Braden Q‐score < 2)
-Obesity (BMI > 99th percentile for age)
-Post pubertal age
-Severe dehydration, requiring intervention
-Surgery > 90 min within last 14 days
-Systemic or severe local infection (positive sputum/blood culture or viral test result, or empirical antibiotics)
-Trauma as admitting diagnosisPharmacological prophylaxis may be instituted in the following risk groups:
Children in an ICU with a CVC and one other risk factor fit a high‐risk profile and may benefit from pharmacological thromboprophylaxis in the absence of strong contraindications.
For children with either a CVC or admission to an ICU (but not both), two risk factors are recommended before the initiation of pharmacological thromboprophylaxis.
For children with neither a CVC nor ICU admission, at least three risk factors should be present before the initiation of pharmacological thromboprophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 10
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of pain in the lower limbs after walking for five minutes, which improves after three minutes of stopping. On examination, he is found to have reduced hair growth on the lower limbs, and his calf muscles appear atrophied. There is a weak popliteal pulse and it remains intact when the knee is fully extended. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adductor canal compression syndrome
Explanation:Adductor canal compression syndrome most commonly presents in young males, and it is important to differentiate it from acute limb ischaemia on exertion. Of the listed options, popliteal fossa entrapment is the main differential diagnosis. However, the popliteal pulse disappears when the knee is fully extended in popliteal fossa entrapment.
Adductor canal compression syndrome is caused by compression of the femoral artery by the musculotendinous band of adductor magnus muscle. The treatment consists of division of the abnormal band and restoration of the arterial circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?
Your Answer: Iliac crest
Explanation:The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in the neck, a man has the point of his shoulder (scapula) sagging and he has difficulty with full abduction of his arm. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Your Answer: Axillary
Correct Answer: Accessory (cranial nerve XI)
Explanation:Injury to the accessory nerve denervates the trapezius muscle so that the person will no longer be able to raise the acromion of the shoulder. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids i.e. major and minor and the levator scapulae so that injury to this nerve weakens retraction of the scapula. The greater occipital nerve is responsible for sensation of the posterior scalp. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle which is responsible for abduction of the arm and the suprascapular nerve is responsible for rotating the humerus laterally. Cutaneous nerves supply the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign. Which one of the following is most likely a benign tumour?
Your Answer: Warthin’s tumour
Explanation:Warthin’s tumour is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. It is a benign cystic tumour of the salivary glands containing abundant lymphocytes and germinal centres. It has a slightly higher incidence in males and most likely occur in older adults aged between 60 to 70 years. This tumour is also associated with smoking. Smokers have an eight-fold greater risk in developing the tumour compared to non-smokers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents to the acute surgical unit with acute pancreatitis. Over the next few days, he becomes dyspnoeic and his saturations are 89% on air and CVP is 16 mmHg. CXR shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is known to precipitate acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which is characterised by bilateral pulmonary infiltrates and severe hypoxaemia in the absence of evidence for cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. Pulmonary oedema is excluded by the CVP reading of <18 mmHg in this scenario. ARDS is subdivided into two stages. Early stage consists of an exudative phase of injury with associated oedema. The later stage is one of repair and consists of fibroproliferative changes. Subsequent scarring may result in poor lung function. ARDS can also lead to multiple organ failure. Various causes of ARDS include:
1. Sepsis
2. Direct lung injury
3. Trauma
4. Acute pancreatitis
5. Long bone fracture or multiple fractures (through fat embolism)
6. Head injury (sympathetic nervous stimulation which leads to acute pulmonary hypertension)Management options are:
1. Treat the underlying cause
2. Antibiotics (if signs of sepsis)
3. Negative fluid balance, i.e. diuretics
4. Recruitment manoeuvres such as prone ventilation and use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
5. Mechanical ventilation strategy using low tidal volumes, as conventional tidal volumes may cause lung injury (only treatment found to improve survival rates) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 15
Correct
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The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing tumour. The function of which of the following structures will be affected?
Your Answer: Ciliary muscle
Explanation:The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve (CNIII). It offers motor and parasympathetic innervation to many of the ocular structures. The motor fibres innervate a number of the extraocular muscles. While the parasympathetic fibres supply the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles of the eye, and the sympathetic fibres innervates the superior tarsal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman is admitted with sepsis and right flank pain. Twenty-four hours ago, she was started on trimethoprim, by the GP, for a urinary tract infection (UTI).Which of the following organisms is the most likely causative agent?
Your Answer: E. coli
Explanation:Ascending infection of the urinary tract is most commonly caused by Escherichia coli (E.coli). Other organisms may be accountable. However, these are less common.
E. coli are gram-negative rods. They have a wide range of subtypes and some are normal gut commensals. Most varieties of E. coli are harmless or cause relatively brief diarrhoea. But a few nasty strains, such as E. coli O157:H7, can cause severe abdominal cramps, bloody diarrhoea, and vomiting. Some strains of E. coli are also resistant to a large number of antibiotics used to treat gram-negative infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:
Your Answer: Trabeculated portion of the right atrium
Correct Answer: Coronary sinus
Explanation:The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae); however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with a recurrent inguinal hernia on the left side of his abdomen and a newly diagnosed inguinal hernia on the right side. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral laparoscopic TEP repair
Explanation:Risk factors for Recurrent Inguinal Hernia with a moderate level of evidence include the presence of a sliding hernia, a diminished collagen type I/III ratio, increased systemic matrix metalloproteinase levels, obesity and open hernia repair under local anaesthesia by general surgeons.
The incorrect surgical technique is likely the most important reason for recurrence after primary IH repair.According to the guidelines:
– Laparo-endoscopic recurred inguinal hernia repair is strongly recommended after failed anterior tissue or Lichtenstein repair (evidence: moderate; recommendation: strong).
– Anterior repair is recommended after a failed posterior repair (evidence: moderate; recommendation: strong).
– An expert hernia surgeon should repair a recurrent Inguinal Hernia after failed anterior and posterior repair. Choice of technique depends on patient and surgeon specific factors (evidence: low; recommendation: strong upgraded).The EHS guidelines recommended for bilateral primary inguinal hernia repair, either a bilateral Lichtenstein or endoscopic approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
Explanation:THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levator veli palatini
Explanation:The levator veli palatini is the elevator muscle of the soft palate. During swallowing, it contracts, elevating the soft palate to help prevent food from entering the nasopharynx. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 37 year old female is admitted after she vomited blood. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is performed and a large ulcer in the first part of the duodenum is noted. Attempts are made to endoscopically clip and inject the ulcer which is bleeding profusely but they are unsuccessful. What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparotomy and underrunning of the ulcer
Explanation:Ulcer bleeding stops spontaneously in about 80% of patients. Only a small percentage require specific measures to stop bleeding. surgery remains the most definitive method of controlling ulcer haemorrhage, and is indicated when endoscopic haemostasis fails to control the bleeding, or when rebleeding occurs. The morbidity and mortality of emergency surgery for ulcer bleeding is high. In principle, the operation performed should be the minimum compatible with permanent haemostasis. The choice of operations is determined by the site and size of the ulcer as well as the experience and preference of the surgeon. Most bleeding duodenal ulcers may be managed by underrunning the bleeding vessel together with vagotomy and pyloroplasty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old rugby player falls directly on his right shoulder. He presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of the shoulder joint. The right clavicle is prominent and there appears to be a step deformity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
Explanation:Acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) dislocation normally occurs secondary to direct injury to the superior aspect of the acromion. Loss of shoulder contour and prominent clavicle are the key features.
An ACJ dislocation, or AC separation, is a very frequent injury among physically active people. It is commonly caused by a fall directly on the shoulder or a direct blow received in a contact sport. Disruption of the ACJ results in pain and instability in the entire shoulder and arm. The pain is most severe when the patient attempts overhead movements or tries to sleep on the affected side.
In general, most AC injuries do not require surgery. There are certain situations, however, in which surgery may be necessary. Most patients recover with full function of the shoulder. The period of disability and discomfort ranges from a few days to 12 weeks depending on the severity of the separation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial expression
Explanation:The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:
Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal
– Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear
– Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear
– Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female will undergo a diagnostic laparoscopy. Which of the agents listed below should be used for inducing pneumoperitoneum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide
Explanation:Laparoscopic surgery involves insufflation of a gas (usually carbon dioxide) into the peritoneal cavity producing a pneumoperitoneum. This causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure (IAP). Carbon dioxide is insufflated into the peritoneal cavity at a rate of 4–6 litre min−1 to a pressure of 10–20 mm Hg. The pneumoperitoneum is maintained by a constant gas flow of 200–400 ml min−1.
Carbon dioxide is the most frequently used gas for insufflation of the abdomen as it is colourless, non-toxic, non-flammable and has the greatest margin of safety in the event of a venous embolus (highly soluble). It is absorbed readily from the peritoneum, causing an increase in PaCO2. This has direct, as well as indirect (by raising catecholamine levels), effects on the cardiovascular system. Thus, tachycardia, increased cardiac contractility and reduction in the diastolic filling can result in decreased myocardial oxygen supply to demand ratio and greater risk of myocardial ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Pulmonary functional residual capacity (FRC) is = volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration.
Obstructive diseases (e.g. emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma) = an increase in FRC due to an increase in lung compliance and air trapping.
Restrictive diseases (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis) result in stiffer, less compliant lungs and a reduction in FRC. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa with fever and diarrhoea. She is taken to the theatre for an appendicectomy but her appendix appears normal. However, her terminal ileum appears thickened and engorged. Which of the following has most likely caused her infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation:Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Yersinia enterocolitica (see the image below) is a bacterial species in the family Enterobacteriaceae that most often causes enterocolitis, acute diarrhoea, terminal ileitis, mesenteric lymphadenitis, and pseudo appendicitis but, if it spreads systemically, can also result in fatal sepsis. Symptoms of Y enterocolitica infection typically include the following:
Diarrhoea – The most common clinical manifestation of this infection; diarrhoea may be bloody in severe cases
Low-grade fever
Abdominal pain – May localize to the right lower quadrant
Vomiting – Present in approximately 15-40% of cases
Mesenteric adenitis, mesenteric ileitis, and acute pseudo appendicitis
These manifestations are characterized by the following symptoms (although nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and aphthous ulcers of the mouth can also occur):Fever
Abdominal pain
Tenderness of the right lower quadrant
Leucocytosis
Pseudo appendicitis syndrome is more common in older children and young adults. Patients with Y enterocolitica infection often undergo appendectomy; several Scandinavian studies suggested a prevalence rate of 3.8-5.6% for infection with Y enterocolitica in patients with suspected appendicitis.
Analysis of several common-source outbreaks in the United States found that 10% of 444 patients with symptomatic, undiagnosed Y enterocolitica infection underwent laparotomy for suspected appendicitis.
Human clinical Y enterocolitica infections ensue after ingestion of the microorganisms in contaminated food or water or by direct inoculation through blood transfusion.
Y enterocolitica is potentially transmitted by contaminated unpasteurized milk and milk products, raw pork, tofu, meats, oysters, and fish. Outbreaks have been associated with raw vegetables; the surface of vegetables can become contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms through contact with soil, irrigation water, fertilizers, equipment, humans, and animals.
Pasteurized milk and dairy products can also cause outbreaks because Yersinia can proliferate at refrigerated temperatures.
Animal reservoirs of Y enterocolitica include swine (principle reservoir), dogs, cats, cows, sheep, goats, rodents, foxes, porcupines, and birds.
Reports of person-to-person spread are conflicting and are generally not observed in large outbreaks. Transmission via blood products has occurred, however, and infection can be transmitted from mother to new-born infant. Faecal-oral transmission among humans has not been proven.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Fine-needle aspiration is a type of biopsy procedure. When performing a fine-needle aspiration of the lungs, which is the most common complication of the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumothorax
Explanation:Pneumothorax is the most common complication of a fine-needle aspiration procedure. Various factors, such as lesion size, have been associated with increased risk of pneumothorax .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondrion
Explanation:A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
