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  • Question 1 - You are calculating the anion gap on a patient with an acid-base disturbance...

    Incorrect

    • You are calculating the anion gap on a patient with an acid-base disturbance and you find the anion gap to be low. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the low anion gap:

      Your Answer: Pancreaticoduodenal fistula

      Correct Answer: Hypoalbuminaemia

      Explanation:

      A low anion gap is frequently caused by hypoalbuminemia. Albumin is a negatively charged protein and its loss from the serum results in the retention of other negatively charged ions such as chloride and bicarbonate. As bicarbonate and chloride anions are used to calculate the anion gap, there is a subsequent decrease in the gap. The anion gap is sometimes reduced in multiple myeloma, where there is an increase in plasma IgG (paraproteinaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay.Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer: It is a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: The platelet count should be checked 2-4 hours after starting treatment

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial(link is external)found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:Internal bleeding is present.Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.Stroke in the previous two yearsIntracranial tumourAneurysm or arteriovenous malformationHaemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.VasculitisRetinopathy caused by hypertensionThe following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:Manifestations of bleedingBradycardiaBack achePain in the chestVomiting and nauseaPain at the puncture siteThrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided groin mass. Medical history reveals a previous appendectomy 10 years prior. On physical examination, the mass can be reduced superiorly. Also, the mass extends to the scrotum. The initial diagnosis is a hernia.Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes: ...

    Correct

    • Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Faecal-oral route

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A transmission is by the faecal-oral route; the virus is excreted in bile and shed in the faeces of infected people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man is complaining of pain in his perineal area, a recent onset of urinary frequency and urgency, fever, chills, and muscle aches. He has a long history of nocturia and terminal dribbling. On rectal examination you find an exquisitely tender prostate.Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin for 14 days

      Explanation:

      An acute focal or diffuse suppurative inflammation of the prostate gland is called acute bacterial prostatitis.According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in a man presenting with:A feverish illness of sudden onset which may be associated with rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia; Irritative urinary voiding symptoms; acute urinary retention; perineal or suprapubic pain and an exquisitely tender prostate on rectal examination.Treatment of acute prostatitis as recommended by NICE and the BNFare:Ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin for 14 daysAlternatively, trimethoprim can be used. Duration of treatment is still 14 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and blood tests done shows a potassium level of 2.4 mmol/L.Which is NOT a recognised cause of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      A plasma potassium less than 3.5 mmol/L defines hypokalaemia.Excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and leads to hypokalaemia.Gitelman’s syndrome causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia. It is an inherited defect of the distal convoluted tubules.Bartter’s syndrome causes hypokalaemic alkalosis. It is a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia Type 4 renal tubular acidosis causes hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      184.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Achlorhydria is diagnosed in a 37-year-old individual who has had recurring episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • Achlorhydria is diagnosed in a 37-year-old individual who has had recurring episodes of gastroenteritis. This is an autoimmune illness of the gastric parietal cells that causes insufficient stomach acid production.Damage to stomach parietal cells will alter the secretion of which other substance? 

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor

      Explanation:

      Achlorhydria is an autoimmune illness of the gastric parietal cells that causes insufficient stomach acid production. The parietal cells that have been injured are unable to create the necessary amount of stomach acid. As a result, the pH of the stomach rises, food digestion suffers, and the risk of gastroenteritis rises.The secretion of hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor is controlled by the gastric parietal cells, which are epithelial cells in the stomach. These cells can be found in the gastric glands, the fundus lining, and the stomach body.In response to the following three stimuli, the stomach parietal cells release hydrochloric acid:H2 Histamine receptors are stimulated by histamine (most significant contribution)Acetylcholine stimulates M3 Receptors via parasympathetic action.CCK2 receptors are stimulated by Gastrin.Intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption, is also produced by stomach parietal cells.Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is both selective and irreversible. It inhibits the H+/K+-ATPase system present on the secretory membrane of gastric parietal cells, which lowers stomach acid secretion.Ranitidine inhibits histamine H2-receptors in a competitive manner. The reversible inhibition of H2-receptors in gastric parietal cells reduces both the volume and concentration of gastric acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following organisms can penetrate intact skin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organisms can penetrate intact skin:

      Your Answer: Leptospira spp.

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis is a bacterial disease caused byLeptospira spp. It is the most common zoonotic infection worldwide.It is usually contracted by exposure to water contaminated with the urine of infected animals (such as rodents, cattle, and dogs). The most important reservoirs are rodents, and rats are the most common source worldwide.The bacteria enter the body through the skin or mucous membranes. This is more likely if the skin is broken by leptospirosis is somewhat unusual in that it can enter the body through intact skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic acidosis.What is the most likely cause of her lactic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Methanol poisoning

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is a common finding in critically ill patients and commonly associated with other serious underlying pathologies. It occurs when pH is 5 mmol/L. Anion gap is increased in lactic acidosis.Acquired lactic acidosis is classified into two subtypes:Type A: lactic acidosis due to tissue hypoxia andType B: due to non-hypoxic processes affecting the production and elimination of lactateSome causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:Type A lactic acidosisLeft ventricular failureSevere anaemiaShock (including septic shock)AsphyxiaCardiac arrestCO poisoningRespiratory failureSevere asthma and COPDType B lactic acidosis:Regional hypoperfusionRenal failureLiver failureSepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)Thiamine deficiencyAlcoholic ketoacidosisDiabetic ketoacidosisCyanide poisoningMethanol poisoningBiguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Leukaemia has been diagnosed in a 6-year-old child on your list. He comes...

    Correct

    • Leukaemia has been diagnosed in a 6-year-old child on your list. He comes to the ER with a complication related to this diagnosis.Which type of leukaemia do you think this is?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common childhood cancer that primarily affects children. ALL is most common between the ages of 2 and 4, and it is uncommon in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A tumour is discovered behind the pectinate line during an examination of a...

    Incorrect

    • A tumour is discovered behind the pectinate line during an examination of a 72-year-old patient with rectal bleeding. Which of the following is the lymphatic drainage of the pectinate line?

      Your Answer: Preaortic nodes

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The pectinate line is known as the watershed line because it divides the anal canal into two sections. Below the pectinate line, lymphatic drainage drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections:

      Your Answer: IgA protease

      Correct Answer: Pili

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection. Uropathic strains are characterised by pili with adhesion proteins that bind to specific receptors on the urinary tract epithelium. The motility of E. coli aids its ability to ascend the urethra into the bladder or ascend the ureter into the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma:

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgA is the major Ig in secretions, particularly from the gastrointestinal tract (but also in saliva, tears, sweat and breast milk).IgE is important for mast cell degranulation in allergic and antiparasitic response. In the allergic response, the plasma cell produces IgE-antibodies, which, like antibodies of other immunoglobulin isotypes, are capable of binding a specific allergen via its Fab portion.IgG is the most abundant in plasma (comprising 80% of normal serum immunoglobulin) and the main circulatory Ig for the secondary immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Liver damage peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion.

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The sensation produced by touching the arm with a vibrating tuning fork during...

    Incorrect

    • The sensation produced by touching the arm with a vibrating tuning fork during a neurological examination is mediated by which of the following spinal tracts:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Posterior column

      Explanation:

      Fine-touch, proprioception and vibration sensation are mediated by the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following:

      Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic supply is from the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2 – S4) and inferior hypogastric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Adenosine has a half-life of approximately: ...

    Correct

    • Adenosine has a half-life of approximately:

      Your Answer: 8 - 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      Adenosine stimulates A1-adenosine receptors and opens acetylcholine sensitive K+ channels, increasing K+ efflux. This hyperpolarises the cell membrane in the atrioventricular node and, by inhibiting the calcium channels, slows conduction in the AVN. As it has a very short duration of action (half-life only about 8 – 10 seconds), most side effects are short lived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Correct Answer: Sternothyroid

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid musclesOrgans: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid glandArteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteriesVeins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veinsNerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerveThe posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.Contents:Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodesNerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: You can catch chickenpox from a patient with shingles.

      Explanation:

      After primary infection, VZV remains latent in sensory ganglia and in about 20% of patients will reactivate resulting in shingles, a painful vesicular rash in the related dermatome. Shingles usually affects older people and the immunocompromised. Shingles lesions are infectious to non-immune individuals who are at risk of developing chickenpox. Shingles can not be contracted directly from chickenpox, or from other cases of shingles. Shingles is treated with systemic antiviral treatment to reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications, and reduce viral shedding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man comes to your department with complaints of epigastric pain. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to your department with complaints of epigastric pain. There is a history of rheumatoid arthritis and he has been taking ibuprofen 200 mg TDS for the last 2 weeks.The following scenarios would prompt you to consider the co-prescription of a PPI for gastroprotection with NSAIDs EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Long-term use for chronic back pain in a patient aged 30

      Explanation:

      The current recommendations by NICE suggest that gastro-protection should be considered if patients have ≥1 of the following:Aged 65 or older- Using maximum recommended dose of an NSAID- History of peptic ulcer or GI bleeding- Concomitant use of: antidepressants like SSRIs and SNRIs, Corticosteroids, anticoagulants and low dose aspirin- Long-term NSAID usage for: long-term back pain if older than 45 and patients with OA or RA at any ageThe maximum recommended dose of ibuprofen is 2.4 g daily and this patient is on 400 mg of ibuprofen TDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 5 day old, full term neonate is with a unilateral purulent eye...

    Correct

    • A 5 day old, full term neonate is with a unilateral purulent eye discharge noticed earlier that day is brought in. On gram stain of the exudate, no bacteria are seen. What is the most likely causative pathogen?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis occurring in the first 28 days of life (Ophthalmia neonatorum) is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated...

    Correct

    • All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve, except for the palatoglossus, which is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria. There is a past history of kidney stones, and blood tests done reveal the following: Na: 147 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L) K: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L) Urea: 7.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L) Creatinine: 126 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L) Fasting blood glucose: 5.0 mmol/L (3.4-5.5 mmol/L) Corrected calcium: 3.21 mmol/L (2.05-2.60 mmol/L) Phosphate: 0.70 mmol/L (0.8-1.4 mmol/L) Parathyroid hormone: 189 ng/L (10-60 ng/L)The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      ​Primary hyperparathyroidism the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia. It is commonest in women aged 50 to 60.The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a solitary adenoma of the parathyroid gland (approximately 85% of cases). Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with features of hypercalcaemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, bone and joint pain, constipation, and psychiatric disorders.In primary Hyperparathyroidism:PTH is elevatedCalcium is elevatedPhosphate is loweredIn secondary Hyperparathyroidism:PTH is elevatedCalcium is low or low-normalPhosphate is raised in CRFIn tertiary Hyperparathyroidism:PTH is elevatedCalcium is elevatedPhosphate is lowered in CRF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The Treppe effect refers to an increase in contractility secondary to an increase in heart rate.

      Explanation:

      Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane. When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+enters the cell during the AP plateau, more Ca2+is stored in the SR, more Ca2+is released from the SR and thus more Ca2+is left inside the cell and greater tension is produced during contraction. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin have a positive inotropic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Correct

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.The stomach G-cells are responsible for which of the following? 

      Your Answer: Secretion of gastrin

      Explanation:

      G-cells are a type of cell found in the stomach’s pyloric antrum, duodenum, and pancreas. The secretion of the peptide hormone gastrin is their major function.The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretionParietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogenParietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorptionChief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestionChief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestionG-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretionEnterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretionMucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acidD-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      84.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding hypertensive crises, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding hypertensive crises, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: In a hypertensive emergency, blood pressure should be reduced by 20 - 25% within 2 hours.

      Explanation:

      A hypertensive emergency is defined as severe hypertension (blood pressure ≥ 180/110 mmHg) with acute damage to the target organs. Prompt treatment with intravenous antihypertensive therapy is generally required; over the first few minutes or within 2 hours, blood pressure should be reduced by 20 – 25%. Severe hypertension without acute target organ damage is defined as hypertensive urgency.; blood pressure should be reduced gradually over 24 – 48 hours with oral antihypertensive therapy. If blood pressure is reduced too quickly in the management of hypertensive crises, there is a risk of reduced organ perfusion leading to cerebral infarction, blindness, deterioration in renal function, and myocardial ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female has been prescribed a medication in the first trimester of pregnancy due to a life-threatening medical problem. After delivery, the foetus is found to have nasal hypoplasia, stippling of his bones and atrophy of bilateral optic discs along with growth retardation. Which ONE of the following drugs has this woman most likely received?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic and can cause a host of abnormalities in the growing foetus. These include hypoplasia of the nasal bridge, stippling of the epiphyses, multiple ophthalmic complications, growth retardation, pectus carinatum, atrial septal defect, ventriculomegaly and a patent ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient presents complaining of visual loss. On examination you note a contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents complaining of visual loss. On examination you note a contralateral homonymous hemianopia. Where is the most likely site of the lesion:

      Your Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Correct Answer: Optic tract

      Explanation:

      At the optic chiasm, fibres from the medial (nasal) half of each retina crossover, forming the right and left optic tracts.The left optic tract contains fibres from the left lateral (temporal) retina and the right medial retina.The right optic tract contains fibres from the right lateral retina and the left medial retina.Each optic tract travels to its corresponding cerebral hemisphere to reach its lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) located in the thalamus where the fibres synapse.A lesion of the optic tract will cause a contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the mechanism of action of captopril: ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of captopril:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte:

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Neutrophils are the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte, comprising about 50 – 70% of circulating white cells. Neutrophils have a characteristic dense nucleus consisting of between two and five lobes, and a pale cytoplasm with an irregular outline containing many fine pink-blue or grey-blue granules. The granules are divided into primary, which appear at the promyelocyte stage, and secondary, which appear at the myelocyte stage and predominate in the mature nucleus. Both types of granule are lysosomal in origin; the primary contains myeloperoxidase and other acid hydrolases; the secondary contains lactoferrin, lysozyme and other enzymes. The lifespan of neutrophils in the blood is only 6 – 10 hours. In response to tissue damage, cytokines and complement proteins, neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to the site of insult within minutes, where they destroy pathogens by phagocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Clostridium difficile primarily causes which of the following infectious diseases: ...

    Correct

    • Clostridium difficile primarily causes which of the following infectious diseases:

      Your Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile causes pseudomembranous colitis, an acute inflammatory diarrhoeal disease and an important cause of morbidity and mortality in hospitals. Gas gangrene is primarily caused by Clostridium perfringens. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani. Toxic shock syndrome may be caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Necrotising fasciitis is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes but has a multitude of causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - All of the following statement are correct regarding endothelium derived nitric oxide except:...

    Correct

    • All of the following statement are correct regarding endothelium derived nitric oxide except:

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide production is inhibited by local mediators such as bradykinin, histamine and serotonin.

      Explanation:

      Factors that elevate intracellular Ca2+ increase nitric oxide (NO) production by the endothelium included local mediators such as histamine and serotonin, bradykinin, and some neurotransmitters like substance P. NO production is also stimulated by increased flow (shear stress) and additionally activates prostacyclin synthesis. As a result of basal production of NO, there is continuous modulation of vascular resistance and as a result, there is increased production of nitric oxide acts which causes vasodilation. Platelet activation and thrombosis are inhibited by nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to ED complaining of pins and needles over the lateral three and a half digits. You suspect carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following clinical features would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer: Inability to touch the pad of the little finger with the thumb

      Explanation:

      Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel will result in weakness and atrophy of the thenar muscles – resulting in weakness of opposition, abduction and flexion of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint and anaesthesia or paraesthesia over the distribution of the palmar digital branch of the median nerve (skin over the palmar surface and fingertips of the lateral three and a half digits). The adductor pollicis muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve, and abduction of the fingers is produced by the interossei, also innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is produced by the flexor pollicis longus, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is produced by the flexor digitorum profundus. Median nerve injury at the wrist will not affect the long flexors of the forearm as these are innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve which arises in the proximal forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is:

      Your Answer: Factor IXa-VIIIa complex

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa-tissue factor complex

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or traumatized extravascular tissues that come in contact with the blood. Exposed and activated by vascular injury, with plasma factor VII. The extrinsic tenase complex, factor VIIa-tissue factor complex, activates factor X to factor Xa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic mitral valve presents to you with fever and an episode of expressive dysphasia that lasted around 30 minutes. There is no history of known drug allergies On examination you note a systolic murmur and you suspect it is infective endocarditis.Which antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin and metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.Risk factors include:Prosthetic heart valvesCongenital heart defectsPrior history of endocarditisRheumatic feverIllicit intravenous drug useIn the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:Persistent feverEmbolic phenomenaNew or changing murmurA combination of vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin is advised if the patient has a cardiac prostheses, is penicillin allergic, or if methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected. In this case the patient has a prosthetic valve making this the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis. This patient has prostheses and this is not the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.Other features that may be present include heart failure, splenomegaly, finger clubbing, renal features (haematuria, proteinuria, nephritis), and vasculitic features (splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth’s spots).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with the complaint of fever and vomiting for the past two days. When her medical chart is reviewed, you see that she takes Warfarin for her arrhythmia. Which ONE of the following medications cannot be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Like other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Ibuprofen cannot be given with Warfarin as it would increase the bleeding risk of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness. She is started on treatment with a drug. The treatment results in her baby being born with poor tone, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, and a goitreOut of the following, which drug is most likely responsible for the baby's condition?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy and postpartum, lithium is an effective treatment for relapse prevention in bipolar disorder. However, lithium has also been associated with risks during pregnancy for both the mother and the unborn child. Recent large studies have confirmed the association between first-trimester lithium exposure and an increased risk of congenital malformations.Lithium levels need to be monitored more frequently throughout pregnancy and the postnatal period. If given in the 1st-trimester, lithium is associated with a risk of fetal cardiac malformations, such as Ebstein’s anomaly. If given in the 2nd and 3rd-trimesters, there is a risk of the following:1. hypotonia2. lethargy3. feeding problems4. hypothyroidism5. goitre6. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.In...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the gluteus maximus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteal muscles are a group of muscles that make up the buttock area. These muscles include: gluteus maximus, gluteus medius. and gluteus minimus.The gluteus maximus is the most superficial as well as largest of the three muscles and makes up most of the shape and form of the buttock and hip area. It is a thick, fleshy muscle with a quadrangular shape. It is a large muscle and plays a prominent role in the maintenance of keeping the upper body erect.The innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle is from the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following is diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection:

      Your Answer: anti-HBc IgM

      Explanation:

      Anti-HBc IgM antibodies are diagnostic for acute hepatitis B infection. Anti-HBc IgG antibodies indicate previous exposure, either chronic state or cleared infection. HBsAg is also positive in acute infection but is not diagnostic as this remains positive in chronic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Elevation of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:...

    Incorrect

    • Elevation of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer: Superior rectus and superior oblique

      Correct Answer: Superior rectus and inferior oblique

      Explanation:

      Elevation of the eyeball is produced by the superior rectus and the inferior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. The diarrhoea is yellow in colour and smell is offensive.What is the SINGLE MOST likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.About 80% of Clostridium difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.In which...

    Correct

    • The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.In which of the following situations would aspirin be an effective treatment option?

      Your Answer: A 36-year-old with an acute migraine (dose of 900-1000 mg)

      Explanation:

      A study published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews in 2010 found that a single 1000-mg dose of aspirin is effective in treating acute migraine. It was discovered that 24 percent of aspirin users were pain-free after two hours, compared to 11 percent of placebo users. Because the BNF recommends a maximum dose of 900 mg for analgesia and most non-proprietary aspirin in the UK comes in a dose of 300 mg, a dose of 900 mg is frequently prescribed in the UK.Because aspirin is not recommended for children under the age of 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, it would be inappropriate to give it to the 12-year-old with the viral URTI.For uncomplicated dental pain, aspirin is an acceptable option, but not for patients who are taking warfarin. The combination of aspirin’s antiplatelet action and warfarin’s anticoagulation properties puts the patient at high risk of bleeding. Furthermore, aspirin can deplete the therapeutic levels of warfarin by displacing it from plasma proteins. It would be better to use another NSAID or analgesic.In gout, aspirin should be avoided because it reduces urate clearance in the urine and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, diclofenac, and indomethacin are better options.Although aspirin is useful for inflammatory pains, the dose of aspirin required for an adequate analgesic effect in severe pain is associated with significant side effects. Naproxen would be a better first-line treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The following are all examples of type III hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • The following are all examples of type III hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Examples of type III reactions include:Extrinsic allergic alveolitisSystemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritisReactive arthritisRheumatoid arthritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 40-year-old woman presents with a red, scaly, itchy rash around her navel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with a red, scaly, itchy rash around her navel that occurred after contact with a nickel belt buckle. A diagnosis of allergic contact dermatitis is made.Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?

      Your Answer: Type V hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      A type IV hypersensitivity reaction occurred in this patient. Allergic contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction occurring in response to an external stimulus, acting either as an allergen or an irritant, caused by a type IV or delayed hypersensitivity reaction. They usually take several days to develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by enhancing the inhibition rate of clotting proteases by antithrombin III impairing normal haemostasis and inhibition of factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparins have a small effect on the activated partial thromboplastin time and strongly inhibit factor Xa. Enoxaparin is derived from porcine heparin that undergoes benzylation followed by alkaline depolymerization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE:

      Your Answer: Splenic sequestration results in thrombocytosis.

      Correct Answer: Hand-foot syndrome is frequently a first presentation of the disease.

      Explanation:

      Hand-foot syndrome in children is typically the first symptom of the disease, produced by infarction of the metaphysis of small bones. The disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. By adulthood, the spleen has usually infarcted. Infection with the B19 parvovirus is usually followed by an aplastic crisis. Thrombocytopenia is caused by splenic sequestration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out...

    Incorrect

    • You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out which antibiotic would be best.Which of the following antimicrobial drugs inhibits the formation of cell walls?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime and other cephalosporin antibiotics are bactericidal ß-lactam antibiotics. They work similarly to penicillins in that they prevent cross-linking between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. As a result, they prevent the formation of cell walls.The following is a summary of the various mechanisms of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:1) Inhibition of cell wall synthesisPenicillinsCephalosporinsVancomycin2) Disruption of cell membrane functionPolymyxinsNystatinAmphotericin B3) Inhibition of protein synthesisMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesChloramphenicol4) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesisQuinolonesTrimethoprim5-nitroimidazolesRifampicin5) Anti-metabolic activitySulphonamidesIsoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen?

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      The gastric chief cells in the stomach wall releases pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is a proenzyme. It mixes with hydrochloric acid in the stomach and is converted to pepsin. Pepsin breaks down proteins into peptides aiding protein digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent...

    Correct

    • What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent of the ambient air composition and the atmospheric pressure of ambient air is 760 mmHg?

      Your Answer: 159 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Ambient air is atmospheric air in its natural state. Ambient air is typically 78.6% nitrogen and 20.9% oxygen. The extra 1% is made up of carbon, helium, methane, argon and hydrogen. The partial pressure of any gas can be calculated using this formula: P = atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) x percent content in the mixture. Atmospheric pressure is the sum of all of the partial pressures of the atmospheric gases added together: The formula for atmospheric pressure is: Patm = PN2 + PO2 + PH2O + PCO2. The atmospheric pressure is known to be 760 mmHg. The partial pressures of the various gases can be estimated to have partial pressures of approximately 597.4 mmHg for nitrogen, 158.8 mm Hg for oxygen, and 7.6 mmHg for argon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - The mechanism of action of abciximab is by: ...

    Correct

    • The mechanism of action of abciximab is by:

      Your Answer: Blocking the binding of fibrinogen to GPIIb/IIIa receptor sites

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors and prevents platelet aggregation by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to receptors on platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of adenosine: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of adenosine:

      Your Answer: Yellow vision

      Explanation:

      Common side effects of adenosine include:ApprehensionDizziness, flushing, headache, nausea, dyspnoeaAngina (discontinue)AV block, sinus pause and arrhythmia (discontinue if asystole or severe bradycardia occur)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Severe vomiting and diarrhoea were reported by a 25-year-old man. He's dehydrated and...

    Correct

    • Severe vomiting and diarrhoea were reported by a 25-year-old man. He's dehydrated and needs intravenous fluids to rehydrate. You give him cyclizine as part of his treatment.What is cyclizine's main mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Antihistamine action

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative that functions as an antihistamine (H1-receptor antagonist). To prevent nausea and vomiting, it is thought to act on the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the labyrinthine apparatus. It has a lower antimuscarinic effect as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Fracture of the medial epicondyle would result to the following, except ...

    Correct

    • Fracture of the medial epicondyle would result to the following, except

      Your Answer: Weakness of abduction of the thumb

      Explanation:

      Thumb abduction is mediated by the abductor pollicis longus and brevis, which are innervated by the radial and median nerves, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is...

    Incorrect

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis due to excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is diagnosed in a male patient with a history of recurrent hyponatraemia.Which of the following produces ADH?

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), commonly known as vasopressin, is a peptide hormone that controls how much water the body retains.It is produced in the magnocellular and parvocellular neurosecretory cells of the paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus from a prohormone precursor. It is subsequently carried to the posterior pituitary via axons and stored in vesicles.The secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary is regulated by numerous mechanisms:Increased plasma osmolality: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect an increase in osmolality and trigger ADH release.Stretch receptors in the atrial walls and big veins detect a decrease in atrial pressure as a result of this (cardiopulmonary baroreceptors). ADH release is generally inhibited by atrial receptor firing, but when the atrial receptors are stretched, the firing reduces and ADH release is promoted.Hypotension causes baroreceptor firing to diminish, resulting in increased sympathetic activity and ADH release.An increase in angiotensin II stimulates angiotensin II receptors in the hypothalamus, causing ADH production to increase.The main sites of action for ADH are:The kidney is made up of two parts. ADH’s main job is to keep the extracellular fluid volume under control. It increases permeability to water by acting on the renal collecting ducts via V2 Receptors (via a camp-dependent mechanism). This leads to a decrease in urine production, an increase in blood volume, and an increase in arterial pressure as a result.Vascular system: Vasoconstriction is a secondary function of ADH. ADH causes vasoconstriction via binding to V1 Receptors on vascular smooth muscle (via the IP3 signal transduction pathway). An increase in arterial pressure occurs as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding hepatitis C, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Anti-HCV IgG antibodies are diagnostic of acute infection.

      Explanation:

      Anti-HCV IgG antibodies indicate exposure to hepatitis C but this could be acute, chronic or resolved infection. If the antibody test is positive, HCV RNA should be tested for, which if positive indicates that a person has current infection with active hepatitis C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations....

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations. Her serum potassium levels are measured and come back at 6.2 mmol/L. An ECG is performed, and it shows some changes that are consistent with hyperkalaemia.Which of the following ECG changes is usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalitiesK+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappearK+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?

      Your Answer: Syncope

      Correct Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine. Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are: 1. Glyceryl trinitrate 2. Isosorbide dinitrate Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially The most common side effects are:1. Headaches2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired3. Nausea4. Flushing The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)2. Syncope3. Prolonged bleeding time4. Exfoliative dermatitis5. Unstable angina6. Rebound hypertension7. ThrombocytopeniaDry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - On reviewing the ECG of a patient with a history of intermittent palpitations,...

    Correct

    • On reviewing the ECG of a patient with a history of intermittent palpitations, you observe prolonged QT interval.Which of these can cause prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Syncope and sudden death due to ventricular tachycardia, particularly Torsades-des-pointes is seen in prolongation of the QT interval.The causes of a prolonged QT interval include:ErythromycinAmiodaroneQuinidineMethadoneProcainamideSotalolTerfenadineTricyclic antidepressantsJervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (autosomal dominant)Romano Ward syndrome (autosomal recessive)HypothyroidismHypocalcaemiaHypokalaemiaHypomagnesaemiaHypothermiaRheumatic carditisMitral valve prolapseIschaemic heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following nerves innervates the adductor brevis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves innervates the adductor brevis?

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      Like the majority of the thigh adductors, adductor brevis is innervated by the obturator nerve. Obturator nerve is derived from the lumbar plexus (anterior branches of spinal nerves L2-L4).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.Which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.Which of the following statements about bile is correct?

      Your Answer: It helps to reduce the surface area of fat

      Correct Answer: Bile acids are amphipathic

      Explanation:

      The liver produces bile on a constant basis, which is then stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated.Bile is involved in the following processes:Fats are broken down into fatty acids.Waste products are eliminated.Cholesterol homeostasis is the balance of cholesterol in the body.The enteric hormones cholecystokinin and secretin are primarily responsible for bile secretion. When chyme from an unprocessed meal enters the small intestine, they are released, and they play the following function in bile secretion and flow:Cholecystokinin promotes gallbladder and common bile duct contractions, allowing bile to reach the intestine.Secretin enhances the secretion of bicarbonate and water by biliary duct cells, increasing the amount of bile and its flow into the gut.Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe chest pain. His medical record shows that he had coronary angioplasty one week ago, during which he was administered abciximab. Which of the following haematological diseases has a similar mechanism of action to this drug?

      Your Answer: Protein C deficiency

      Correct Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that decreases aggregation of platelets by prevent their cross-linking. In Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia there are low levels of these same receptors leading to decreased bridging of platelets as fibrinogen cannot attach. There is increased bleeding time both in this disease and when there is use of abciximab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - An 80-year-old patient with a history of chronic heart failure presents to you....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient with a history of chronic heart failure presents to you. Examination reveals widespread oedema.Which statement about plasma oncotic pressure (π p ) is true?

      Your Answer: 70% of π p is generated by immunoglobulins

      Correct Answer: The influence of π p on fluid movement is negligible if the capillary reflection co-efficient is 0.1

      Explanation:

      Plasma oncotic pressure (πp) is typically 25-30 mmHg. 70% of π p is generated by albumin so Hypoalbuminemia will decrease π pThe osmotic power of albumin is enhanced by the Gibbs-Donnan effect.The influence of π p on fluid movement is negligible if the capillary reflection coefficient is 0.1. Another way of saying a vessel is highly permeable is saying the reflection coefficient is close to 0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has endotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse watery diarrhoea.

      Correct Answer: It is normally found in gut flora.

      Explanation:

      C. difficile is normally found in the gut flora but its growth is normally suppressed by more dominant anaerobes. It has exotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse diarrhoea. Oral clindamycin (a broad spectrum antibiotic) is commonly implicated in precipitating C. difficile colitis; first line treatment is with oral metronidazole. Tetanolysin is a toxin produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 52-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy to get medication to help with...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy to get medication to help with mild dyspepsia symptoms. The pharmacist on duty suggests she uses an over-the-counter antacid. She purchases an antacid that contains magnesium carbonate, which relieves her symptoms, but she unfortunately also develops a side effect.Out of the following, which side effect is she MOST likely to develop after using the antacid?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Magnesium carbonate is an over the counter antacid commonly used to relieve symptoms in ulcer dyspepsia and non-erosive gastro-oesophageal reflux.Antacids containing magnesium also tend to work as a laxative, while the antacids with aluminium may cause constipation. There is no significant increased risk of anaphylaxis, hepatotoxicity or renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently...

    Correct

    • A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukaemia. The chief resident asks him to identify ONE feature that will most support acute leukaemia diagnosis in contrast to chronic leukaemia. Which one of the following options will he pick?

      Your Answer: The patient is a child

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is more common in children than chronic leukaemias, which generally occur in adults. Bone marrow failure occurs early on in the course of the disease in acute leukaemias, and there is the massive proliferation of undifferentiated cells with functioning cells being crowded out. Hepatosplenomegaly occurs in both acute and chronic forms of leukaemia and is not a differentiating feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A fracture on which of the following structures is associated with a posterior...

    Incorrect

    • A fracture on which of the following structures is associated with a posterior elbow dislocation?

      Your Answer: Supracondylar

      Correct Answer: Radial head

      Explanation:

      Fracture dislocations of the elbow appear extremely complex, and identification of the basic injury patterns can facilitate management. The simplest pattern of elbow fracture dislocation is posterior dislocation of the elbow with fracture of the radial head. Addition of a coronoid fracture, no matter how small, to elbow dislocation and radial head fracture is called the terrible triad of the elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following statements accurately describes the extensor indicis muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes the extensor indicis muscle?

      Your Answer: It lacks the juncturae tendinum

      Explanation:

      Extensor indicis is a narrow, elongated muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. It lacks the juncturae tendinum, which connects the extensor digitorum on the dorsal aspect of the hand.Extensor indicis can be palpated by applying deep pressure over the lower part of the ulna while the index finger is extended. The main function of extensor indicis involves the extension of the index finger at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. As the index finger is one of the few fingers that have their own separate extensor muscle, it is able to extend independently from other fingers. Additionally, extensor indicis muscle produces a weak extension of the wrist.Extensor indicis receives its nervous supply from posterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the radial nerve derived from spinal roots C7 and C8. The skin overlying the muscle is supplied by the same nerve, with fibres that stem from the spinal roots C6 and C7.The superficial surface of the extensor indicis receives arterial blood supply from posterior interosseous branch of the ulnar artery, whereas its deep surface receives blood from perforating branches of the anterior interosseous artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Plasma potassium greater than 5.5 mmol/L is hyperkalaemia or elevated plasma potassium level. Among the causes of hyperkalaemia include congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a general term referring to autosomal recessive disorders involving a deficiency of an enzyme needed in cortisol and/or aldosterone synthesis. The level of cortisol and/or aldosterone deficiency affects the clinical manifestations of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. When it involves hypoaldosteronism, it can result in hyponatremia and hyperkalaemia. While hypercortisolism can cause hypoglycaemia.The other causes of hyperkalaemia may include renal failure, excess potassium supplementation, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns, trauma, Tumour lysis syndrome, acidosis, and medications such as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium. Bartter’s syndrome is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis with normal to low blood pressure. Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia. Gitelman’s syndrome is a defect of the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. It causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia. And excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and hypokalaemia as well. Thus, among the choices, only congenital adrenal hyperplasia can cause hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal...

    Correct

    • What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal circumstances? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The process of fracture healing occurs naturally after traumatic bone disruption and begins with haemorrhage, then progresses through Inflammatory, reparative, and remodelling stagesAverage healing times of common fractures are:Femoral shaft: 12 weeksTibia: 10 weeksPhalanges: 3 weeksMetacarpals: 4-6 weeksDistal radius: 4-6 weeksHumerus: 6-8 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of...

    Incorrect

    • 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite.Which of the following promotes the activity of 1-alpha-hydroxylase?

      Your Answer: Calcitonin

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney.The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is promoted by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - The following are all important buffers of H+EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • The following are all important buffers of H+EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Buffers are weak acids or bases that can donate or accept H+ions respectively and therefore resist changes in pH. Buffering does not alter the body’s overall H+load, ultimately the body must get rid of H+by renal excretion if the buffering capacity of the body is not to be exceeded and a dangerous pH reached. Bicarbonate and carbonic acid (formed by the combination of CO2 with water, potentiated by carbonic anhydrase) are the most important buffer pair in the body, although haemoglobin provides about 20% of buffering in the blood, and phosphate and proteins provide intracellular buffering. Buffers in urine, largely phosphate, allow the excretion of large quantities of H+.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound is conducted, and a big gallstone is discovered. The radiologist who performs the scan speaks with you about the physiology of the gallbladder and biliary tract.During a 24-hour period, how much bile does the gallbladder produce?

      Your Answer: 800-1200 ml

      Correct Answer: 400-800 ml

      Explanation:

      The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, which is produced by the liver. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated. The breakdown of fats into fatty acids, the removal of waste materials, and cholesterol homeostasis are all crucial functions of bile.Bile is created on a constant basis, however it is only necessary after a meal has been consumed. The elimination of water and ions concentrates bile in the gallbladder, which is subsequently stored for later use. Food induces the release of the hormone cholecystokinin from the duodenum, the contraction of the gallbladder, and the relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. The bile then enters the duodenum.Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Bordetella pertussis causes which of the following infectious diseases: ...

    Correct

    • Bordetella pertussis causes which of the following infectious diseases:

      Your Answer: Whooping cough

      Explanation:

      Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. Acute bronchiolitis is typically caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup. Acute epiglottitis is usually caused by an infection with Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) bacteria. The common cold may be caused by a number of viruses including rhinovirus and coronavirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following best characterizes the correct administration of amiodarone for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best characterizes the correct administration of amiodarone for a shockable rhythm in adults on advanced life support:

      Your Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks, and then every 3 - 5 minutes thereafter

      Correct Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks

      Explanation:

      After three shocks, 300 mg IV amiodarone should be administered. After five defibrillation attempts, a further dose of 150 mg IV amiodarone may be considered. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine may be used as a substitute, but it should not be given if amiodarone has previously been administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: In relaxation, Ca 2+ is transported out of the cell using energy from a Na + gradient.

      Explanation:

      During the AP plateau, Ca2+enters the cell and activates Ca2+sensitive Ca2+release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum allowing stored Ca2+to flood into the cytosol; this is called Ca2+-induced Ca2+release. In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane which pumps one Ca2+ion out in exchange for three Na+ions in, using the Na+electrochemical gradient as an energy source. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Factors that affect intracellular [Ca2+] and hence cardiac contractility are called inotropes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Renin is produced by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Renin is produced by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Extraglomerular mesangial cells

      Correct Answer: Granular cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole

      Explanation:

      Juxtaglomerular cells are specialised smooth muscle cells mainly in the walls of the afferent arterioles (and some in the efferent arterioles) which synthesise renin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following is NOT a typical effect caused by adrenaline: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical effect caused by adrenaline:

      Your Answer: Bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Actions of adrenaline:Cardiovascular system- Increased rate and force of cardiac contraction- Vasoconstriction of vessels in skin, mucous membranes and splanchnic bed- Vasodilation of skeletal muscle vessels- Increased cardiac output and blood pressureRespiratory system- Bronchodilation- Increased ventilation rateGastrointestinal system- Smooth muscle relaxation- Contraction of sphincters- Metabolism- Decreased insulin release- Increased glucagon release- Increased thermogenesis- Increased glycolysis- Increased lipolysisEye- Pupillary dilation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following clinical features would you NOT expect to see in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features would you NOT expect to see in a tibial nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Weakened eversion of the foot

      Explanation:

      Damage to the tibial nerve results in loss of plantarflexion of the ankle and weakness of inversion of the foot resulting in a shuffling gait, clawing of the toes and loss of sensation in its cutaneous distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 56-year-old man presents with pneumonia 8 days after being admitted for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with pneumonia 8 days after being admitted for an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. Upon history taking and observation, it was established that he has no known drug allergies, has coarse left basal crackles and evidence of consolidation in the left lower lobe based on his chest X-ray.Which of the following antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe according to the latest NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The current NICE guidelines for hospital-acquired pneumonia are as follow:- First-choice oral antibiotic if non‑severe symptoms or signs, and not at higher risk of resistance (guided by microbiological results when available): co-amoxiclav- Alternative oral antibiotics if non‑severe symptoms or signs, and not at higher risk of resistance, for penicillin allergy or if co‑amoxiclav unsuitable (based on specialist microbiological advice and local resistance data): doxycycline, cefalexin, co-trimoxazole, levofloxacin- First-choice intravenous antibiotics if severe symptoms or signs (for example, symptoms or signs of sepsis) or at higher risk of resistance (based on specialist microbiological advice and local resistance data): piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, meropenem, ceftazidime with avibactam, levofloxacin- Antibiotics to be added if suspected or confirmed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection (dual therapy with a first-choice intravenous antibiotic): vancomycin, teicoplanin, linezolid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism:

      Your Answer: Graves disease

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. It is an autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies against TSH receptors are produced. These antibodies bind to and stimulate these TSH receptors leading to an excess production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the signs and symptoms of Graves disease are the same as those of hyperthyroidism, reflecting the actions of increased circulating levels of thyroid hormones: increased heat production, weight loss, increased 02 consumption and cardiac output and exophthalmos (bulging eyes, not drooping eyelids). TSH levels will be decreased (not increased) as a result of the negative feedback effect of increased T3 levels on the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of thiopental sodium:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of thiopental sodium:

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Extravasation of thiopental during injection can lead to tissue damage. Accidental intra-arterial injection causes vasospasm and may lead to thrombosis and tissue necrosis. Other side effects include involuntary muscle movements on induction, cough and laryngospasm, arrhythmias, hypotension, headache and hypersensitivity reactions. Thiopental sodium has anticonvulsant properties and does not cause seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A patient who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the...

    Correct

    • A patient who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic as his grandson was recently diagnosed with chickenpox. His grandson spent the weekend with her, and he was in close contact with him. He takes 50 mg of prednisolone once daily and has been for the past six months. There is no history of chickenpox.Out of the following, which is TRUE regarding the next plan of action for her care?

      Your Answer: She should receive prophylactic varicella-zoster Immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) is indicated for post exposure prevention and treatment of varicella. It is recommended as prophylaxis for high-risk patients with no known immunity (i.e. no known previous chickenpox) who have had a significant exposure to varicella-zoster (considered >4 hours close contact).The high-risk groups are:1. Neonates2. Pregnant women3. The immunocompromised (e.g. cancer, immunosuppressive therapies)4. Those on high dose steroids (children on more than 2 mg/kg/day for more than 14 days, or adults on 40 mg/day for more than a week)This patient is at high risk of developing adrenal insufficiency and may need a temporary increase in her steroid dose during infection or stress. It would be inappropriate to stop or wean down her dose of prednisolone and can cause side effects.Since he is on steroids without immunity for chickenpox, he is at risk of developing severe varicella infection, with possible complications including pneumonia, hepatitis and DIC. If he develops a varicella infection, he will need to be admitted and require a specialist review and intravenous Acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunological Products & Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Intrinsic factor is vital for gastrointestinal absorption of which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrinsic factor is vital for gastrointestinal absorption of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Folate

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following is a common adverse effect of glucagon: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a common adverse effect of glucagon:

      Your Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:Common: NauseaUncommon: VomitingRare: Abdominal pain, hypertension, hypotension, tachycardia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:Conn’s syndromeAdrenal hyperplasiaAdrenal cancerFamilial aldosteronismCauses of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:Renal vasoconstrictionOedematous disordersDrugs – diureticsObstructive renal artery diseaseAlthough patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:HypokalaemiaSodium levels can be normal or slightly raisedHypertensionMetabolic alkalosisLess common, clinical features are:LethargyHeadachesIntermittent paraesthesiaPolyuria and polydipsiaMuscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)Tetany and paralysis (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Regarding the human cell, which of the following cell organelles is responsible for...

    Correct

    • Regarding the human cell, which of the following cell organelles is responsible for the production of ATP:

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles that are responsible for the production of the cell’s supply of chemical energy. This is achieved by using molecular oxygen to utilise sugar and small fatty acid molecules to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This process is known as oxidative phosphorylation and requires an enzyme called ATP synthase. ATP acts as an energy-carrying molecule and releases the energy in situations when it is required to fuel cellular processes. Mitochondria are also involved in other cellular processes, including Ca2+homeostasis and signalling. Mitochondria contain a small amount of maternal DNA.Mitochondria have two phospholipid bilayers, an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner membrane is intricately folded inwards to form numerous layers called cristae. The cristae contain specialised membrane proteins that enable the mitochondria to synthesise ATP. Between the two membranes lies the intermembrane space, which stores large proteins that are required for cellular respiration. Within the inner membrane is the perimitochondrial space, which contains a jelly-like matrix. This matrix contains a large quantity of ATP synthase.Mitochondrial disease, or mitochondrial disorder, refers to a group of disorders that affect the mitochondria. When the number or function of mitochondria in the cell are disrupted, less energy is produced and organ dysfunction results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori. Which...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is discovered to have an infection from Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following types of cancer is mostly associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      H. pylori is recognized as a major cause of type B gastritis, a chronic condition formerly associated primarily with stress and chemical irritants. In addition, the strong association between long-term H. pylori infection and gastric cancer has raised more questions regarding the clinical significance of this organism. There is speculation that long-term H. pylori infection resulting in chronic gastritis is an important risk factor for gastric carcinoma resulting in H. pylori being classified as a carcinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 38-year-old man returns from an overseas business trip with a fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man returns from an overseas business trip with a fever and a headache. Following investigations a diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum malaria is made.Which of the following statements regarding Plasmodium falciparum malaria is true? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Chloroquine is the drug treatment of choice

      Correct Answer: There may be a continuous fever

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium falciparum malaria is transmitted by female of the Anopheles genus of mosquito. The Aedes genus is responsible for transmitting diseases such as dengue fever and yellow fever.Plasmodium falciparumis found globally but is mainly found in sub-Saharan Africa.The incubation period of Plasmodium falciparum malaria is 7-14 days.Sporozoites invade hepatocytes. Within the hepatocyte asexual reproduction occurs producing merozoites, which are released into the blood stream and invade the red blood cells of the host.Artesunate is the drug treatment of choice for Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Quinine can still be used where artesunate is not available. Often combination therapy with drugs such as doxycycline or fansidar is also required.The classic symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, a cyclical occurrence of a cold phase, where the patient experiences intense chills, a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot and finally a sweating stage, where the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely. There may also, however, be a continuous fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - All of the following statements are incorrect about insulin except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are incorrect about insulin except:

      Your Answer: Proinsulin is cleaved into insulin and C peptide.

      Explanation:

      Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. A connecting peptide (C peptide) within storage granules is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin:1. is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. 2. is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. 3. release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin. However, most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. 4. effects are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following antibiotics is the first line of treatment for a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antibiotics is the first line of treatment for a patient who has been diagnosed with chlamydia infection?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends azithromycin, a single 1 g dose, and doxycycline, 100 mg bd for 7 days, as first-line medications for chlamydial infection treatment. Second-line medications (such as erythromycin, penicillins, and sulfamethoxazole) are less effective and have more side effects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Correct

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo is a highly contagious infection of the superficial epidermis that most commonly affects young children but can occur in any age group. In children it is the most common bacterial skin infection and it is the third most common skin disease overall, behind dermatitis and viral warts.The commonest causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenesis the second commonest and causes fewer cases, either alone or in combination withS. aureus.The streptococcal form tends to be commoner in warmer, more humid climates. (Hirschmann JV. Impetigo: etiology and therapy. Curr Clin Top Infect Dis. 2002;22:42–51.)Impetigo is most commonly spread by direct person-to-person contact, and can spread rapidly through families and school classes. It can also, less commonly, be spread by indirect contact.There are two main forms of impetigo:Non-bullous impetigo – lesions usually start as tiny pustules or vesicles that evolve rapidly into honey-crusted plaques that tend to be under 2 cm in diameter. These can be itchy but are rarely painful.Bullous impetigo – lesions have a thin roof and tend to rupture spontaneously. This type is more likely to be painful and may be associated with systemic upset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A patient is sent in to ED by her GP with hyponatraemia and...

    Correct

    • A patient is sent in to ED by her GP with hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. There is most likely to be a deficiency in which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      A deficiency of aldosterone, as seen in adrenal insufficiency, can result in hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Water is reabsorbed in which portion of the Henle loop: ...

    Correct

    • Water is reabsorbed in which portion of the Henle loop:

      Your Answer: Thin descending limb

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henle consists of three functionally distinct segments: the thin descending segment, the thin ascending segment, and the thick ascending segment. About 20 percent of the filtered water is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle and almost all of this occurs in the thin descending limb. Na+ and Cl-ions are actively reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in the thick ascending limb via the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter on the apical membrane. Because the thick ascending limb is water-impermeable, ion reabsorption lowers tubular fluid osmolality while raising interstitial fluid osmolality, resulting in an osmotic difference. Water moves passively out of the thin descending limb as the interstitial fluid osmolality rises, concentrating the tubular fluid. This concentrated fluid descends in the opposite direction of fluid returning from the deep medulla still higher osmolality areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A patient presents with a rash for a dermatological examination. A flat circumscribed...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a rash for a dermatological examination. A flat circumscribed area of discoloured skin measuring 0.7 cm in diameter is seen on examination.What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Macule

      Explanation:

      A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin. A vesicle is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.A papule is a solid, well circumscribed, skin elevation measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter. A nodule is a solid, well circumscribed, raised area that lies in or under the skin and measures greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. They are usually painless.A plaque is a palpable skin lesion that is elevated and measures >1cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is administered that resolves the chest pain rapidly. Which ONE of the following is released on the initial metabolism of GTN?

      Your Answer: Nitrate ions

      Correct Answer: Nitrite ions

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine. Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are: 1. Glyceryl trinitrate 2. Isosorbide dinitrate The nitrate drugs are metabolized in the following steps: 1. Release Nitrite ions (NO2-), which are then converted to nitric oxide (NO) within cells. 2. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which causes an increase in the intracellular concentration of cyclic guanosine-monophosphate (cGMP) in vascular smooth muscle cells. 3. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.Although nitrates are potent coronary vasodilators, their principal benefit in the management of angina results from a predominant mechanism of venous dilation:- Bigger veins hold more blood- Takes blood away from the left ventricle- Lowers LVEDV (preload), LA pressure- Less pulmonary oedema → improved dyspnoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other intravenous induction agents:

      Your Answer: Hangover effect

      Correct Answer: Extraneous muscle movements

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is associated with a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given prior to induction. Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. Etomidate is associated with rapid recovery without a hangover effect. The rate of respiratory depression and tachycardia is not higher in etomidate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What is the direct mechanism of action of digoxin as a positive inotrope:...

    Correct

    • What is the direct mechanism of action of digoxin as a positive inotrope:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Explanation:

      Digoxin directly inhibits membrane Na+/K+ ATPase, which is responsible for Na+/K+ exchange across the myocyte cell membrane. This increases intracellular Na+ and produces a secondary increase in intracellular Ca2+ that increases the force of myocardial contraction. The increase in intracellular Ca2+ occurs because the decreased Na+ gradient across the membrane reduces the extrusion of Ca2+ by the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger that normally occurs during diastole. Digoxin and K+ ions compete for the receptor on the outside of the muscle cell membrane, and so the effects of digoxin may be dangerously increased in hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 1-year-old male is brought to the paediatrician by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year-old male is brought to the paediatrician by his mother due to swelling of the right knee after a minor fall. On examination, the right knee is swollen, fluctuant and tender. Ultrasound-guided aspiration reveals a massive hemarthrosis. Family history shows that his older brother also has a bleeding disorder. Which one of the following conditions does the patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia A

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of Haemophilia is supported in this patient by the family history and the presence of hemarthrosis-both characteristics of Haemophilia. Haemophilia A is caused by Factor VIII deficiency, leading to impaired coagulation. This disease typically presents after six months when the child starts crawling. Von Willebrand disease presents with nosebleeds and hematomas. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with bruises that resemble a rash. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency presents with haemolytic anaemia induced by specific drugs or foods. Factor V Leiden mutation causes blood clotting rather than bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 40-year-old male visits his family physician with the complaint of a high-grade...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male visits his family physician with the complaint of a high-grade fever for the past five days. A complete blood count report shows the presence of neutrophilia. Which one of the following facts regarding neutrophilia is accurate?

      Your Answer: It can be caused by eclampsia

      Explanation:

      A total neutrophil count of greater than 7.5 x 109/L is called neutrophilia. Typhoid fever usually causes leukopenia or neutropenia. Both localised and generalised bacterial infections can cause neutrophilia. Metabolic disorders such as – gout- eclampsia- uraemia can also cause neutrophilia. Acute neutrophilia, in which immature neutrophils can be seen, is referred to as a left shift and can be seen in conditions such as appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (18/30) 60%
Renal (2/4) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/7) 14%
Pharmacology (14/25) 56%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (10/16) 63%
Microbiology (13/18) 72%
Pathogens (9/11) 82%
Specific Pathogen Groups (3/5) 60%
Renal Physiology (3/5) 60%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (2/5) 40%
Principles (1/1) 100%
Haematology (3/5) 60%
Pathology (7/11) 64%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Immune Responses (2/3) 67%
Central Nervous System (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (10/11) 91%
Head And Neck (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine Physiology (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (4/5) 80%
Basic Cellular (1/2) 50%
CNS Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (3/3) 100%
General Pathology (2/3) 67%
Infections (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (5/5) 100%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (0/2) 0%
Immunological Products & Vaccines (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Passmed