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Question 1
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman presents with an itching and bleeding pigmented lesion on her right thigh. What should be the most appropriate step of management?
Your Answer: Excision biopsy
Explanation:This may be a case of malignant melanoma. Excision biopsy is required to allow accurate histological assessment. If the diagnosis is confirmed, re-excision of margins may be required. Incisional or punch biopsy of lesions suspected to be melanoma is avoided.
Various options used for the treatment of skin lesions include:
1. Trucut biopsy
2. Punch biopsy
3. Excision biopsy
4. Wide excision biopsy
5. Incisional biopsy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Skin Lesions
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 37 year old man is reported to have a left-sided renal mass. Imaging reveals a renal tumour measuring 5 cm that has invaded the left renal vein. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Radical nephrectomy
Explanation:In a radical nephrectomy, the surgeon removes the whole kidney, the fatty tissues surrounding the kidney and a portion of the tube connecting the kidney to the bladder (ureter). The surgeon may remove the adrenal gland that sits atop the kidney if a tumour is close to or involves the adrenal gland. Radical nephrectomy is the treatment of choice for localized renal cell carcinoma (RCC). Biopsy should not be performed when a nephrectomy is planned but is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken.
Renal cell carcinoma comprise up to 85% of all renal malignancies. Males are more commonly affected than females and sporadic tumours typically affect patients in their sixth decade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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The absence of which of the following components characterizes the grey platelet syndrome (GPS)?
Your Answer: Alpha granules
Explanation:Grey platelet syndrome (GPS) is a rare inherited bleeding disorder associated with an almost total absence of α-granules and their contents. The syndrome is characterised by thrombocytopenia, enlarged platelets that have a grey appearance, myelofibrosis, and splenomegaly. Alpha granules store proteins and growth factors that promote platelet adhesiveness and wound healing. Patients with GPS develop symptoms and signs such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding, and nose bleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35 year old patient presenting with haematemesis, heart burn and bloody stool was diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer that had eroded the gastroduodenal artery. The patient was then rushed into theatre for an emergency procedure to control the haemorrhage. If the surgeon decided to ligate the gastroduodenal artery at its origin, which of the following arteries would most likely experience retrograde blood flow from collateral sources as a result of the ligation?
Your Answer: Right gastroepiploic
Explanation:In the stomach and around the duodenum, there are many arterial anastomoses. Ligation of the gastroduodenal artery would result in the retrograde flow of blood from the left gastroepiploic artery to the right gastroepiploic artery. The blood flows into the right gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the gastroduodenal artery from the left gastroepiploic artery that branches from the splenic artery. This retrograde blood flow is aimed at providing alternate blood flow to the greater curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and episodes of haematuria. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a left renal mass and the patient underwent a nephrectomy. Histopathological pattern was triphasic with blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components. The pathologist suggested the tumour resulted from the lack of a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11. Which of the following tumours is the pathologist most likely suggesting?
Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:Wilms’ tumour is one of the most common malignant tumours of childhood but it can also rarely be found in adults. In biopsy, classical histopathological findings include the triphasic pattern composed by blastemal, epithelial, and stromal elements. First symptoms in children include an abdominal palpable mass, while in adults pain and haematuria are the most common complaints. Deletions of tumours’ suppressor genes on chromosome 11 are usually associated with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman with severe burns, presented to casualty with a blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg and pulse of 172/minute. Obviously the patient is in shock. Which type of shock is it more likely to be?
Your Answer: Hypovolaemic shock
Explanation:Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the organs and tissues of the body are not receiving a sufficient flow of blood. Lack of blood flow, oxygen and nutrients results in the inability to function properly and damage to many organs. Shock requires immediate treatment because, if left untreated the impaired tissue perfusion and cellular hypoxia can cause irreversible tissue injury, collapse, coma or even death. There are various types of physiological shock, including: cardiogenic (due to heart damage), hypovolaemic (due to low total volume of blood or plasma), neurogenic (due to nervous system damage), septic (due to infections) and anaphylactic shock (due to allergic reactions). Hypovolaemic shock can be caused by blood loss due to trauma, internal bleeding or other fluid loss due to severe burns, prolonged diarrhoea, vomiting and sweating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 7
Correct
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An 18-year-old male is admitted with a three-month history of intermittent pain in the right iliac fossa. He suffers from episodic diarrhoea and has lost two kilograms of weight. On examination, he is febrile and has right iliac fossa tenderness.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:A history of weight loss and intermittent diarrhoea makes inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) the most likely diagnosis. Conditions such as appendicitis and infections have a much shorter history. Although Meckel’s diverticulum can bleed and cause inflammation, it seldom causes marked weight loss. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presents with alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhoea along with abdominal pain, bloating, and gas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- The Abdomen
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port incisions are sutured closed and the wounds observed every few weeks for re-epithelialisation and tensile strength. Which substance is mostly likely to be found at a cellular level involved in wound healing?
Your Answer: Collagen
Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase
Explanation:Cell surface growth factor receptors require intercellular proteins such as tyrosine kinase which are necessary to initiate a series of events that eventually lead to cell division and growth. Tyrosine kinase is an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group to the tyrosine residue in a protein. This phosphorylation will lead to an up regulation of the enzyme activity.
Fibronectin acts in the extracellular matrix to bind macromolecules (such as proteoglycans) via integrin receptors to aid attachment and migration of cells.
Laminin is an extracellular matrix component that is abundant in basement membranes.
Hyaluronic acid is one of the proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix.
Collagen fibres are part of the extracellular matrix that gives strength and stability to connective tissues. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which cells are most commonly seen in a granulomatous lesion that suggests an underlying chronic inflammation?
Your Answer: Lymphocytes
Explanation:Lymphocytes and monocytes are commonly and characteristically recognised in a case of chronic inflammation.
Eosinophils and neutrophils are seen with acute inflammation.
Mast cells release histamine in early inflammation.
Basophils are seen with allergies.
Plasma cells are seen with viral infection.
Platelets are not characteristic of any type of inflammation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?
Your Answer: Intrinsic factor
Explanation:Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 64 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with acute bowel obstruction. She complains of vomiting up to 15 times per day and is currently taking erythromycin. She is now complaining of dizziness that is sudden in onset. ECG shows torsades de pointes. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in her management?
Your Answer: IV Magnesium sulphate
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. Torsade de pointes, often referred to as torsade, is associated with a prolonged QT interval, which may be congenital or acquired. Torsade usually terminates spontaneously but frequently recurs and may degenerate into ventricular fibrillation. This woman is likely to have hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia as a result of vomiting. In addition to this, the erythromycin will predispose her to torsades de pointes. The patient should be given Magnesium 2g over 10 minutes. Knowledge of the management of this peri arrest diagnosis is hence important in surgical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 12
Correct
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Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:
– Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly
– Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells
– Histamine, produced by mast cells.
Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:
– Somatostatin
– Secretin
– Cholecystokinin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman is admitted with right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant region. Imaging shows signs of acute cholecystitis due to gallstones. The common bile duct appears normal and liver function tests are normal as well. What should be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy during the next 24–48 hours
Explanation:In most cases, the treatment of choice for acute cholecystitis is cholecystectomy performed early in the illness. The procedure can be carried out laparoscopically even when acute inflammation is present. Delayed surgery particularly around five to seven days after presentation is much more technically challenging and is often best deferred.
Up to 24% of women and 12% of men may have gallstones. Of these, up to 30% may develop local infection and cholecystitis. The classical symptom of cholecystitis is colicky right upper quadrant pain that occurs postprandially. Others include swinging pyrexia, and general feeling of being unwell. They are usually worst following a fatty meal when cholecystokinin levels are highest and gallbladder contraction is maximal.
Murphy’s sign is positive on examination. The standard diagnostic work-up consists of abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests. For management, cholecystectomy should ideally be done within 48 hours of presentation. In patients unfit for surgery, percutaneous drainage may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?
Your Answer: Posterior rectus sheath
Explanation:Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:
Your Answer: Pulmonary artery
Explanation:Normal values for various parameters are as follows:
Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.
Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.
Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).
Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.
Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.
Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.
Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.
Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.
Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:
Your Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum
Explanation:The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?
Your Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is a likely consequence of severe diarrhoea?
Your Answer: A decrease in the sodium content of the body
Explanation:Diarrhoea can occur due to any of the numerous aetiologies, which include infectious, drug-induced, food related, surgical, inflammatory, transit-related or malabsorption. Four mechanisms have been implicated in diarrhoea: increased osmotic load, increased secretion, inflammation and decreased absorption time. Diarrhoea can result in fluid loss with consequent dehydration, electrolyte loss (Na+, K+, Mg2+, Cl–) and even vascular collapse. Loss of bicarbonate ions can lead to a metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 56 year old man, on his 8th day following a left hemicolectomy, complains of swinging pyrexia over the past 48 hours. Clinical examination is significant for an ileus. Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast
Explanation:Abdominal CT with IV contrast would be carried out in this case and this presentation has most likely resulted due to an anastomotic leak with abscess formation which is a common complication following surgery. This can occur in any of the branches and anticipating the likely complication and appropriate avoidance will minimize their occurrence. Detailed imaging is required to allow accurate diagnosis and further planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in:
Your Answer: Hairy cell leukaemia
Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides
Explanation:Mycosis fungoides is a chronic T-cell lymphoma that involves the skin and less commonly, the internal organs such as nodes, liver, spleen and lungs. It is usually diagnosed in patients above 50 years and the average life expectancy is 7-10 years. It is insidious in onset and presents as a chronic, itchy rash, eventually spreading to involve most of the skin. Lesions are commonly plaque-like, but can be nodular or ulcerated. Symptoms include fever, night sweats and weight loss. Skin biopsy is diagnostic. However, early cases may pose a challenge due to fewer lymphoma cells. The malignant cells are mature T cells (T4+, T11+, T12+). The epidermis shows presence of characteristic Pautrier’s micro abscesses are present in the epidermis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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The chest X-ray of an 10-year-old boy, that presented with low-grade fever and cough, revealed hilar enlargement and parenchymal consolidation in the middle lobes. These X-ray findings are more typical for which of the following diagnoses?
Your Answer: Pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is seen in patients exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis for the firs time. The main radiographic findings in primary pulmonary tuberculosis include homogeneous parenchymal consolidation typically in the lower and middle lobes, lymphadenopathy, miliary opacities and pleural effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:
Your Answer: Direct lysis of the clot
Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
Explanation:Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of pain in the lower limbs after walking for five minutes, which improves after three minutes of stopping. On examination, he is found to have reduced hair growth on the lower limbs, and his calf muscles appear atrophied. There is a weak popliteal pulse and it remains intact when the knee is fully extended. What could be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adductor canal compression syndrome
Explanation:Adductor canal compression syndrome most commonly presents in young males, and it is important to differentiate it from acute limb ischaemia on exertion. Of the listed options, popliteal fossa entrapment is the main differential diagnosis. However, the popliteal pulse disappears when the knee is fully extended in popliteal fossa entrapment.
Adductor canal compression syndrome is caused by compression of the femoral artery by the musculotendinous band of adductor magnus muscle. The treatment consists of division of the abnormal band and restoration of the arterial circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Vascular
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Question 24
Correct
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A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Correct
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A 36-year-old female was advised to undergo genetic testing of BRCA1 and BRCA2. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumour markers specifically for which organ?
Your Answer: Breast
Explanation:Women with harmful mutations in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 have a risk of breast cancer that is about five times the normal risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 57 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a pathological fracture of the proximal femur. Which of the following primary sites is the most likely source of her disease?
Your Answer: Kidney
Correct Answer: Breast
Explanation:Breast cancer frequently metastasizes to the skeleton, interrupting the normal bone remodelling process and causing bone degradation. Breast cancer is the commonest cause of lytic bone metastasis in women of this age, especially from amongst those options given.
Osteolytic lesions are the end result of osteoclast activity; however, osteoclast differentiation and activation are mediated by osteoblast production of RANKL (receptor activator for NFκB ligand) and several osteoclastogenic cytokines. Osteoblasts themselves are negatively affected by cancer cells as evidenced by an increase in apoptosis and a decrease in proteins required for new bone formation. Thus, bone loss is due to both increased activation of osteoclasts and suppression of osteoblasts. The clinical outcomes of bone pain, pathologic fractures, nerve compression syndrome, and metabolic disturbances leading to hypercalcemia and acid/base imbalance severely reduce the quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 27
Correct
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A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?
Your Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils
Explanation:The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following the excision of a lipoma from the scapula. What should be the best option for managing the wound?
Your Answer: Free flap
Correct Answer: Direct primary closure
Explanation:This wound should be managed by primary closure as there is minimal associated tissue loss and the surgery is minor and uncontaminated.
Primary wound closure is the fastest type of closures, and is also known as healing by primary intention. Wounds that heal by primary closure have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection and requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance. Standard methods of suturing are usually sufficient for primary wound closure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
- Surgical Technique And Technology
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?
Your Answer: Cystine stone
Explanation:Answer: Cystine stone
Cystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents.
Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:
Pain while urinating
Blood in the urine
Sharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)
Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomen
Nausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.
Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.
What is oxalate and how does it form stones?
Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.
Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:
Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.
There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.
Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 6 week old preterm infant is scheduled for an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following fluids should be ideally administered to him while he is on NPO?
Your Answer: 10% dextrose
Explanation:There is a substantial risk of hypoglycaemia in neonates following surgery, therefore 10% dextrose should be administered to them to avoid the complications associated with hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 32
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?
Your Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Explanation:Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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An 18 year old military recruit complains of sudden onset of severe pain in the forefoot after several weeks of training exercises. Examination shows tenderness along the second metatarsal and an x-ray done indicates the presence of callus surrounding the shaft of the second metatarsal. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: Stress fracture
Explanation:Answer: Stress fracture
A stress fracture is caused by repetitive and submaximal loading of the bone, which eventually becomes fatigued and leads to a true fracture. The typical presentation is a complaint of increasing pain in the lower extremity during exercise or activity. The patient’s history usually reveals a recent increase in either training volume or intensity. Stress fractures result from recurrent and repetitive loading of bone. The stress fracture differs from other types of fractures in that in most cases, no acute traumatic event precedes the symptoms.
Normal bone remodelling occurs secondary to increased compressive or tensile loads or increased load frequency. In the normal physiologic response, minor microdamage of the bone occurs. This is repaired through remodelling. Stress fractures develop when extensive microdamage occurs before the bone can be adequately remodelled.
Common findings on physical examination may include tenderness or pain on palpation or percussion of the bone. Erythema or oedema may be present at the site of the stress fracture. Loading or stress of the affected bone may also produce symptoms.A stress fracture can be difficult to see on an X-ray, because the bone often appears normal in the X-ray, and the small cracks can’t be seen. X-rays may not help diagnose a stress fracture unless it has started to heal. When the bone starts to heal, it creates a callus, or lump, that can be seen on X-rays. The doctors may recommend a bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which is more sensitive than an X-ray and can spot stress fractures early.
Freiberg disease is a degenerative process involving the epiphyses resulting in osteonecrosis of subchondral cancellous bone. If the process is altered in such a way as to restore normal physiology, this may be followed by regeneration or recalcification. If not, the process continues to subchondral collapse and eventual fragmentation of the joint surface.
Patients who have Freiberg disease typically present with complaints of activity-related forefoot pain. Walking alone is often sufficient to cause pain. Some patients describe an extended (months to years) history of chronic forefoot pain with episodic exacerbation, whereas others present with pain of recent onset that is related to a specific injury or event. A history of trauma may not be noted. Patients may present with stiffness and a limp. The pain is often vague and poorly localized to the forefoot. Some patients describe the sensation of a small, hard object under the foot.Physical examination typically reveals a limited range of motion (ROM), swelling, and tenderness with direct palpation of the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. In early stages of the disease, MTP tenderness may be the only finding. In later stages, crepitus or deformity may be present. A skin callus may be seen on the plantar surface of the affected metatarsal head.
Radiography
Depending on the stage of the disease, radiographs may show only sclerosis and widening of the joint space (early), with complete collapse of the metatarsal head and fragmentation later. Osteochondral loose bodies may be seen late in the disease as well. Oblique views may be especially useful for achieving a full appreciation of subtle changes early in the disease. One study advocated the use of radiographs to assess musculoskeletal foot conditions in women related to poorly fitting shoes.
Occasionally, patients are completely asymptomatic, with changes noted on radiographs taken for other reasons. Whether these patients later develop symptomatic Freiberg disease is not known. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 34
Correct
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A 6 year old boy previously diagnosed with a rare genetic disorder requires long term drug therapy for his condition. The drug needs to be administered intravenously. Lately, the child has been pulling at the current system of Hickman line and the parents are requesting an alternate. Which of the following would be the best alternative method?
Your Answer: Portacath device
Explanation:Portacaths are usually inserted when there is a need for long term access to a vein. This might be to provide medication, special intravenous feeding, fluids, blood and blood product transfusion and blood tests. Broviacs would pose the same core problems as a Hickman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 35
Correct
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Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?
Your Answer: Fourth thoracic
Explanation:The superior mediastinum lies between the manubrium anteriorly and the upper vertebrae of the thorax posteriorly. Below, it is bound by a slightly oblique plane that passes backward from the sternal angle to the lower part of the body of T4 and laterally by the pleura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?
Your Answer: Right atrial pressure
Correct Answer: Total peripheral resistance
Explanation:The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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The Brunner glands secrete an alkaline product that helps maintain an optimal pH for pancreatic enzyme activity. Where are these glands located?
Your Answer: Submucosa of the jejunum
Correct Answer: Submucosa of the duodeneum
Explanation:The Brunner glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum. These glands are connected to the interstitial lumen by ducts that open into certain crypts. They secrete an alkaline product that protects the duodenal mucosa from the acidic chyme and helps achieve an optimal pH for the enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung underwent complete atelectasis and he has a 7cm tumour involving the chest wall. What is the stage of the lung cancer of this patient?
Your Answer: T1
Correct Answer: T3
Explanation:Non-small-cell lung cancer is staged through TNM classification. The stage of this patient is T3 because based on the TNM classification the tumour is staged T3 if > 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: Chest wall (including superior sulcus tumours), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium; or the tumour is in the main bronchus < 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina, Or it is associated with atelectasis/obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumour nodule(s) in the same lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female is injured in a skiing accident. She suffers a blow to the occiput and is concussed for 5 minutes. On arrival in the ED, she is confused with a GCS 10/15. A CT scan shows no evidence of acute bleed or fracture but some evidence of oedema with the beginnings of mass effect. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Posterior fossa craniotomy
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol
Explanation:Effective management of intracranial hypertension involves meticulous avoidance of factors that precipitate or aggravate increased intracranial pressure. When intracranial pressure becomes elevated, it is important to rule out new mass lesions that should be surgically evacuated. Medical management of increased intracranial pressure should include sedation, drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, and osmotherapy with either mannitol or hypertonic saline. For intracranial hypertension refractory to initial medical management, barbiturate coma, hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy should be considered. Steroids are not indicated and may be harmful in the treatment of intracranial hypertension resulting from traumatic brain injury.
Mannitol is the most commonly used hyperosmolar agent for the treatment of intracranial hypertension.
Intravenous bolus administration of mannitol lowers the ICP in 1 to 5 minutes with a peak effect at 20 to 60 minutes. The effect of mannitol on ICP lasts 1.5 to 6 hours, depending on the clinical condition. Mannitol usually is given as a bolus of 0.25 g/kg to 1 g/kg body weight; when an urgent reduction of ICP is needed, an initial dose of 1 g/kg body weight should be given. Arterial hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg ) should be avoided. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Correct Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
