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Question 1
Correct
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A 5 day old, full term neonate is with a unilateral purulent eye discharge noticed earlier that day is brought in. On gram stain of the exudate, no bacteria are seen. What is the most likely causative pathogen?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Conjunctivitis occurring in the first 28 days of life (Ophthalmia neonatorum) is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following causes type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction of beta-cells results in insulin deficiency
Explanation:Type 1 diabetes mellitus results from autoimmune destruction of the insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans. This process occurs in genetically susceptible subjects, is probably triggered by one or more environmental agents, and usually progresses over many months or years during which the subject is asymptomatic and euglycemic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE:
Your Answer: Hand-foot syndrome is frequently a first presentation of the disease.
Explanation:Hand-foot syndrome in children is typically the first symptom of the disease, produced by infarction of the metaphysis of small bones. The disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. By adulthood, the spleen has usually infarcted. Infection with the B19 parvovirus is usually followed by an aplastic crisis. Thrombocytopenia is caused by splenic sequestration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto her back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that she has pain on hip abduction, but normal hip extension. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?
Your Answer: Gluteus medius
Explanation:The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?
Your Answer: It assists with the abduction of the fifth finger
Correct Answer: It is situated on the radial border of abductor digiti minimi
Explanation:Flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is located on the ulnar side of the palm, lying on the radial border of the abductor digiti minimi. Together with the abductor digiti minimi and opponens digiti minimi muscles, it forms the hypothenar eminence. The muscle is situated inferior and lateral to adductor digiti minimi muscle and superior and medial to opponens digiti minimi muscle. The proximal parts of flexor digiti minimi brevis and abductor digiti minimi muscles form a gap through which deep branches of the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding forest plots is true? Select ONE answer only.Which of the following statements regarding forest plots is true? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Larger studies are associated with smaller horizontal lines
Explanation:Forest plots are graphical displays designed to illustrate the relative strength of treatment effects in multiple individual studies addressing the same question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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An analytical study is conducted to compare the risk of stroke between Ticagrelor therapy and Warfarin therapy among patients with atrial fibrillation. The following is obtained from the study:No. of patients who took Ticagrelor: 300No. of patients who took Ticagrelor and suffered a stroke: 30No. of patients who took Warfarin: 500No. of patients who took Warfarin and suffered a stroke: 20Compute for the absolute risk reduction of a stroke, with Warfarin as the standard of treatment.
Your Answer: -0.06
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is computed as the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treatment group (ART).Since Warfarin is the standard of treatment, Warfarin is considered as the control group.ARR = ARC-ARTARR = (20/500) – (30/300)ARR = -0.06This means that there is increased risk of stroke in the treatment group, which is the Ticagrelor group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Regarding the glomerular filtration barrier, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Molecules with molecular weight of 100 kDa or less are filtered freely.
Correct Answer: The main factor determining whether a substance is filtered or not is molecular weight.
Explanation:Molecular weight is the main factor in determining whether a substance is filtered or not – molecules < 7 kDa in molecular weight are filtered freely e.g. glucose, amino acids, urea, ions but larger molecules are increasingly restricted up to 70 kDa, above which filtration is insignificant. Negatively charged molecules are further restricted, as they are repelled by negative charges, particularly in the basement membrane. Albumin has a molecular weight of 69 kDa and is negatively charged, thus only very small amounts are filtered (and all of the filtered albumin is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule), whereas small molecules such as ions, glucose, amino acids and urea pass the filter without hindrance. This means that ultrafiltrate is virtually protein free, but otherwise has an identical composition of that of plasma. The epithelial lining of the Bowman's capsule consists of a single layer of cells called podocytes. The glomerular capillary endothelium is perforated by pores (fenestrations) which allow plasma components with a molecular weight of < 70 kDa to pass freely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 9
Correct
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Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Infection is predominantly derived from animal faeces and soil.
Explanation:Clostridium tetaniis a Gram positive, rod shaped, obligate anaerobic bacterium.The incubation period is quoted as anywhere between 4-21 days and can occur after several months but symptoms usually occur within the first 7 days after exposure.Approximately 80% of patients develop generalised tetanus. The commonest presenting feature of generalised tetanus is trismus (lockjaw), occurring in approximately 75% of affected individuals. Other clinical features include:Facial spasms (risus sardonicus)Opisthotonus (characteristic body shape during spasms)Neck stiffnessDysphagiaCalf and pectoral muscle rigidityFeverHypertensionTachycardiaSpasms can occur frequently and last for several minutes, they can continue to occur for up to 4 weeks. Current mortality rates are between 10 and 15%.Tetanic spasms are caused by the exotoxin tetanospasmin. The effects of tetanolysin are not fully understood but it is not believed to have clinical significance.Localised tetanus is a rare form of the disease, occurring in around 1% of affected individuals. Patients have persistent contraction of muscles in the same anatomic area as the injury. It may precede generalised tetanus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the posterior triangle of the neck.Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Trapezius
Correct Answer: Anterior scalene
Explanation:The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid musclesOrgans: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid glandArteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteriesVeins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veinsNerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerveThe posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.Contents:Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodesNerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexusOf the muscles listed in the options, only the anterior scalene is situated within the posterior triangle of the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the popliteal artery's course?
Your Answer: Exits the popliteal fossa between the gastrocnemius and plantaris muscles
Correct Answer: After exiting the popliteal fossa terminates at the lower border of the popliteus muscle
Explanation:The popliteal artery divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries at the lower border of the popliteus after exiting the popliteal fossa between the gastrocnemius and popliteus muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following laboratory findings are indicative of von Willebrand disease (VWD):
Your Answer: Both APTT and PT prolonged
Correct Answer: Prolonged APTT
Explanation:Laboratory results often show that:PFA-100 test results are abnormal.Low levels of factor VIII (if a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is conducted)APTT is Prolonged (or normal)PT is normalVWF values are low.Defective Platelet aggregationThe platelet count is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Identify the type of graph described below:A graph that is a useful summary of a set of bivariate data (two variables), usually drawn before working out a linear correlation coefficient or fitting a regression line.
Your Answer: Pareto chart
Correct Answer: Scatterplot
Explanation:A scatterplot is a useful summary of a set of bivariate data (two variables), usually drawn before working out a linear correlation coefficient or fitting a regression line. It gives a good visual picture of the relationship between the two variables, and aids the interpretation of the correlation coefficient or regression model. Each unit contributes one point to the scatterplot, on which points are plotted but not joined. The resulting pattern indicates the type and strength of the relationship between the two variables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:
Your Answer: Adrenocortical suppression
Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia
Explanation:Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves supplies the abductor pollicis brevis?
Your Answer: The ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve
Explanation:Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the recurrent (thenar) branch of median nerve (root value C8 and T1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:
Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Explanation:Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Correct
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Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the following:
Your Answer: Beta blockers
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline. Glucagon then causes:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissueThe secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:AdrenalineCholecystokininArginineAlanineAcetylcholineThe secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Your Answer: Early onset emphysema
Explanation:Mucus contains chemicals such as alpha-1-antitrypsin, lysozyme, and IgA that protect the airway from pathogens and damaging proteases released from dead bacteria and immune cells. Early-onset emphysema results from a genetic deficit of alpha-1-antitrypsin, which is caused by unregulated protease activity in the lungs, which results in the degradation of elastin in the alveoli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Correct
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Pancreatic acinar digestive enzyme secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:Exocrine pancreatic secretion is controlled by:Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous componentsSympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretionSecretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cellsCholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cellsGastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache in the Emergency Department. The patient has signs of cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. You discuss the case with the on-call neurology registrar and decide to prescribe Mannitol. The nurse assisting you asks you to reconsider this management plan as she suspects the patient has a contraindication to Mannitol.Out of the following, what is a contraindication to mannitol?
Your Answer: Severe cardiac failure
Explanation:Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure. It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:1. Anuria due to renal disease2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)3. Severe cardiac failure4. Severe dehydration5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Captopril should not be used if you have any of the following conditions:
Your Answer: Prostatic hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Contraindications indications of Captopril include:- Bilateral renal artery stenosis- Hypersensitivity to ACE inhibitors- Anuria- History of ACEI-induced angioedema- Hereditary or idiopathic angioedema- Co-administration of Neprilysin inhibitors (e.g., sacubitril) with ACE inhibitors may increase angioedema risk; do not administer ACE inhibitors within 36 hours of switching to or from sacubitril/valsartan.If ACE inhibitors are used, they should be initiated only under specialist supervision and renal function should be monitored regularly. ACE inhibitors should also be used with particular caution in patients who may have undiagnosed and clinically silent renovascular disease. This includes patients with peripheral vascular disease or those with severe generalised atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: In the gastric phase, stimulation of the vagus nerve stimulates the release of gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP), which mainly acts directly on G-cells to release gastrin.
Correct Answer: A high pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion.
Explanation:A low pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion, therefore when the stomach is empty or when acid has been secreted for some time after food has entered it, there is inhibition of acid secretion. However, when food first enters the stomach, the pH rises, and this leads to release of the inhibition and causes a maximum secretion of gastrin. Thus gastric acid secretion is self-regulating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of these structures is the smallest and deepest component of muscle connective tissue?
Your Answer: Sarcolemma
Correct Answer: Endomysium
Explanation:There are three types of muscle:Skeletal muscleCardiac muscleSmooth muscleIndividual muscle is enveloped in a layer of dense irregular connective tissue called the epimysium. The epimysium protects the muscles from friction against bones and other muscles.Skeletal muscle is composed of muscle fibres, referred to as myofibers which is ensheathed by a wispy layer of areolar connective tissue called the endomysium. The endomysium is the smallest and deepest component of muscle connective tissue. Myofibers grouped together in bundles form fascicles, or fasciculi. These are surrounded by a type of connective tissue called the perimysium.Beneath the endomysium lies the sarcolemma, an elastic sheath with infoldings that invaginate the interior of the myofibers, particularly at the motor endplate of the neuromuscular junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 24
Correct
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One of the following pathogens is a conditional pathogen:
Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis
Explanation:Obligate pathogens include Mycobacterium TB, HIV, Treponema pallidum, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Neisseria meningitidis, on the other hand, is a conditional pathogen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?
Your Answer: Children under 16 years
Explanation:Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other intravenous induction agents:
Your Answer: Extraneous muscle movements
Explanation:Etomidate is associated with a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given prior to induction. Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. Etomidate is associated with rapid recovery without a hangover effect. The rate of respiratory depression and tachycardia is not higher in etomidate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 26 year old horse rider has a bad fall and sustains a neck injury which displays the following signs:- ability to extend the wrist against gravity- paralysis of the hands, trunk, and legs- absent sensation in the fingers and medial upper arms- normal sensation over the thumbs- absent sensation in chest, abdomen, and legsWhat is the neurological level of the injury?
Your Answer: C6
Explanation:C1 – C4 INJURYMost severe of the spinal cord injury levels; paralysis in arms, hands, trunk and legs; patient may not be able to breathe on his or her own, cough, or control bowel or bladder movements; ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reducedC5 INJURYPerson can raise his or her arms and bend elbows; likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakenedC6 INJURYNerves affect wrist extension; paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically; should be able to bend wrists back; can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakenedC7 INJURYNerves control elbow extension and some finger extension; most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shouldersC8 INJURYNerves control some hand movement; should be able to grasp and release objectsC5 – Elbow flexors (biceps, brachialis)C6 – Wrist extensors (extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis)C7 – Elbow extensors (triceps)C8 – Finger flexors (flexor digitorum profundus) to the middle fingerC5 – Elbow flexed at 90 degrees, arm at the patient’s side and forearm supinatedC6 – Wrist in full extensionC7 – Shoulder is neutral rotation, adducted and in 90 degrees of flexion with elbow in 45 degrees of flexionC8 –Full flexed position of the distal phalanx with the proximal finger joints stabilized in a extended position
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 28
Correct
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All of the muscles of the tongue (other than the palatoglossus) are innervated by which of the following nerves:
Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:All of the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve, except for the palatoglossus, which is innervated by the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 29
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl that appears systemically well presents with a honey-crusted scab close to the corner of her mouth and states that the area is slightly itchy but not painful. The diagnosis given was impetigo.What is most likely the mode of transmission of the causative agent of the said diagnosis?
Your Answer: Direct contact
Explanation:Impetigo is a common pyoderma that is most often seen in children. Historically, most cases were caused by group A streptococci (GAS; Streptococcus pyogenes), although S. aureus has become the predominant pathogen over the last 15 years.A bullous form of impetigo accounts for approximately 10% of cases. It is caused by strains of S. aureus that produce exfoliative toxins leading to the formation of bullae, which quickly rupture and form a transparent, light brown crust.Impetigo is spread mainly by person-to-person contact; it is rapidly spread through direct transmission. The diagnosis of impetigo can be made from a Gram stain and culture of the vesicular contents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 30
Correct
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Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma:
Your Answer: Basophilia
Explanation:Features may include:Normochromic normocytic anaemia is most common; bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease, but if it occurs bone marrow failure may develop with leucoerythroblastic anaemiaOne-third of patients have a neutrophilia; eosinophilia is frequentAdvanced disease is associated with lymphopenia and loss of cell-mediated immunityPlatelet count is normal or increased in early disease and reduced in later stagesESR and CRP are usually raised (ESR is useful in monitoring disease progress)Serum LDH is raised initially in 30-40% of casesDiagnosis is made by histological examination of an excised lymph nodeThe distinctive multinucleate polypoid RS cell is central to the diagnosis of the four classic types of HL (95% of cases)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
