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  • Question 1 - A 7 year old boy arrives at the clinic complaining of recurrent anal...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old boy arrives at the clinic complaining of recurrent anal pruritis. Examination reveals a small worm like structure protruding from the anal orifice. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Enterobius vermicularis

      Explanation:

      Pinworm infection is caused by a small, thin, white roundworm called Enterobius vermicularis. Although pinworm infection can affect all people, it most commonly occurs among children, institutionalized persons, and close-contacts. Pruritus is the main symptom, as there is a lack of tissue invasion. It is rare for individuals to have any signs of systemic sepsis. Pinworm infection is treatable with over-the-counter or prescription medication, but reinfection, which occurs easily, should be prevented

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy....

    Correct

    • A 36 year old opera singer is admitted for a right thyroid lobectomy. Post operatively, he is unable to sing high notes. Which muscle is likely to demonstrate impaired function?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroidectomy has been reported as the most frequent cause of external branch of superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) injury.
      Diagnosis of EBSLN injury may be difficult because the symptoms are nonspecific in many cases. However, advanced diagnostic techniques have revealed the incidence to be relatively high, ranging from 5 to 28%. Paralysis of the EBSLN causes difficulty with high pitch phonation and decreased pitch range secondary to failure of cricothyroid muscle stimulation and lack of tension in the vocal cord. This symptom may be extremely serious for professional voice users. EBSLN injury can also cause vocal fatigue, hoarseness, breathy sounding voice, and vocal nodules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion: ...

    Correct

    • A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old female presents with a breast lump. She has previously undergone a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a breast lump. She has previously undergone a breast augmentation with an implant. What is the imaging technique of choice?

      Your Answer: MRI

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Patients with breast implants present the radiologist with specific challenges, such as the identification and distinction of implant and breast tissue, diagnosis of implant defects and implant-related complications as well as diagnosis and follow-up of unrelated breast diseases such as mastitis or breast cancer.
      Whereas mammography is the first-line method before surgery, ultrasound is the mainstay of post-procedural imaging, unless there is concern about rupture.
      Although mammography and ultrasonography are the standard first steps in the diagnostic workup, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most useful imaging modality for the characterisation of breast implants because of its high spatial resolution and contrast between implants and soft tissues and absence of ionising radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness...

    Correct

    • A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?

      Your Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Explanation:

      Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of lung malignancy. He reports shortness of breath and haemoptysis. Investigations reveal corrected calcium of 2.84 mmol/l, FEV 1 of 1.9L and histology of squamous cell carcinoma. The patient is noted to have hoarseness of voice. Which one of the following is a contraindication to surgical resection in lung cancer?

      Your Answer: Vocal cord paralysis

      Explanation:

      The hoarseness of voice implies vocal cord paralysis denoting the spread of malignancy which is a contraindication to surgery.

      Summary of Guidelines on the selection of patients with lung cancer for surgery (Related to this case)

      PART I: FITNESS FOR SURGERY
      Age:
      1. Perioperative morbidity increases with advancing age. Elderly patients undergoing lung resection are more likely to require intensive perioperative support. Preoperatively, a careful assessment of co-morbidity needs to be made.
      2. Surgery for clinically stage I and II disease can be as effective in patients over 70 years as in younger patients. Such patients should be considered for surgical treatment regardless of age.
      3. Age over 80 alone is not a contraindication to lobectomy or wedge resection for clinical stage I disease.
      4. Pneumonectomy is associated with higher mortality risk in the elderly. Age should be a factor in deciding suitability for pneumonectomy.

      Pulmonary function:
      There should be a formal liaison in borderline cases between the referring chest physician and the thoracic surgical team.
      2.No further respiratory function tests are required for a lobectomy if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >1.5 litres and for a pneumonectomy, if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >2.0 litres, provided that there is no evidence of interstitial lung disease or unexpected disability due to shortness of breath.
      STEP 1
      3.All patients not clearly operable on the basis of spirometry should have: (a) full pulmonary function tests including estimation of transfer factor (TLCO); (b) measurement of oxygen saturation on air at rest; and (c) a quantitative isotope perfusion scan if a pneumonectomy is being considered.
      4.These data should be used to calculate estimated postoperative FEV1 expressed as % predicted and the estimated postoperative TLCO expressed as % predicted, using either the lung scan for pneumonectomy or an anatomical equation for lobectomy, taking account of whether the segments to be removed are ventilated or obstructed.
      STEP 2
      5.(a) Estimated postoperative FEV1 >40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO >40% predicted and oxygen saturation (SaO 2) >90% on air: average risk.
      (b)Estimated postoperative FEV1 <40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO <40% predicted: high risk.
      (c)All other combinations: consider exercise testing.
      6.Patients for whom the risk of resection is still unclear after step 2 tests should be referred for exercise testing.
      STEP 3
      7.(a) The best distance on two shuttle walk tests of <25 shuttles (250 m) or desaturation during the test of more than 4% SaO 2 indicates a patient is a high risk for surgery.
      (b)Other patients should be referred for a formal cardiopulmonary exercise test. For cardiopulmonary exercise testing peak oxygen consumption (V˙O 2peak) of more than 15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is an average risk for surgery.
      (c)A V˙O 2peak of <15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is a high risk for surgery. PART II: OPERABILITY
      Diagnosis and staging
      1.All patients being considered for surgery should have a plain chest radiograph and a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the thorax including the liver and adrenal glands.
      2.Confirmatory diagnostic percutaneous needle biopsy in patients presenting with peripheral lesions is not mandatory in patients who are otherwise fit, particularly if there are previous chest radiographs showing no evidence of a lesion.
      3.Patients with mediastinal nodes greater than 1 cm in short-axis diameter on the CT scan should undergo biopsy by staging mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, or needle biopsy as appropriate.
      Operability and adjuvant therapy
      1.The proportion of patients found to be inoperable at operation should be 5–10%.
      2.Patients with stage I (cT1N0 and cT2N0) and stage II (cT1N1, cT2N1 and cT3N0) tumours should be considered operable.
      3.Patients with stage I tumours have a high chance and those with stage II tumours a reasonable chance of being cured by surgery alone.
      4.Patients who are known preoperatively to have stage IIIA (cT3N1 and cT1–3N2) tumours have a low chance of being cured by surgery alone but might be considered operable in the context of a trial of surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy.
      5.Participation in prospective trials of multimodality treatment for locally advanced disease is strongly recommended.
      6.Some small individual studies indicate a place for surgery in T4N0 and T4N1 tumours within stage IIIB, few long term data are available. Generally, stage IIIB tumours with node involvement and stage IV tumours should be considered inoperable.
      7.There is no place for postoperative radiotherapy following complete primary tumour resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45 year old man presents to the hospital with a gastric carcinoma...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man presents to the hospital with a gastric carcinoma of the greater curvature of the stomach. His staging investigations are negative for metastatic disease. What is the best treatment option for him?

      Your Answer: Sub total gastrectomy, D2 lymphadenectomy and anterior gastrojejunostomy

      Correct Answer: Sub total gastrectomy, D2 lymphadenectomy and Roux en Y reconstruction

      Explanation:

      Surgical resection is the principal therapy for gastric cancer, as it offers the only potential for cure. A subtotal gastrectomy is usually performed for tumours of the distal stomach. Subtotal gastrectomy is the treatment of choice for middle and distal-third gastric cancer as it provides similar survival rates and better functional outcome compared to total gastrectomy, especially in early-stage disease with favourable prognosis. D2 dissections are recommended by the National Comprehensive Cancer Network over D1 dissections. A pancreas-and spleen-preserving D2 lymphadenectomy is suggested, as it provides greater staging information, and may provide a survival benefit while avoiding its excess morbidity when possible. Patients that undergo D2 lymphadenectomy as a standard part of surgical resection of gastric adenocarcinoma generally have better stage-for-stage overall survival figures compared to patients undergoing less extensive lymphadenectomies.
      After partial gastrectomy, some patients report disorders such as reflux esophagitis and alkaline gastritis, as well as dumping syndrome, delayed gastric emptying and malabsorption, which are defined as functional dyspepsia. Duodenogastric reflux is recognized to be a major cause of clinical symptoms after resection.
      Roux-Y reconstruction seems to be effective in reducing bile reflux into the stomach, compared to Billroth I and II procedure, and conversion to this procedure has been reported in patients with symptomatic uncontrolled reflux disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Correct

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Correct

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Right anterior spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence. She is most likely to have:

      Your Answer: Overflow incontinence

      Correct Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is the involuntary excretion of urine from one’s body. It is often temporary and it almost always results from an underlying medical condition. Several types include:
      – Stress incontinence is the voiding of urine following increased abdominal pressure e.g. laughing, coughing, pregnancy etc. It is the most common form of incontinence in women, most commonly due to pelvic floor muscle weakness, physical changes from pregnancy, childbirth and menopause. In men it is a common problem following a prostatectomy. Most lab results such as urine analysis, cystometry and postvoid residual volume are normal.
      – Urge incontinence is involuntary loss of urine occurring for no apparent reason while suddenly feeling the need or urge to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence are involuntary and inappropriate detrusor muscle contractions.
      – Functional incontinence – occurs when a person does not recognise the need to go to the toilet, recognise where the toilet is or get to the toilet in time. The urine loss may be large. Causes of functional incontinence include confusion, dementia, poor eyesight, poor mobility, poor dexterity or unwillingness. t
      – Overflow incontinence – sometimes people find that they cannot stop their bladders from constantly dribbling or continuing to dribble for some time after they have passed urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction,...

    Correct

    • Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, and arterial thromboembolism; however, it is not recommended to use it again after 4 days from the first administration. Which complication could arise from repeated use?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase belongs to a group of medications known as ‘fibrinolytics’ and is an extracellular metallo-enzyme produced by beta-haemolytic streptococci, used as an effective clot-dissolving medication in patients with myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism. As Streptokinase is a bacterial product, the body has the ability to build up an immunity to it. Therefore, it is recommended that this medication should not be used again after four days from the first administration, as it may not be as effective and may also cause an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young man is hit in the head with a bar stool and...

    Correct

    • A young man is hit in the head with a bar stool and is rushed to the A&E department. On arrival, he opens his eyes in response to pain, his only verbal responses are in the form of groans and grunts. He flexes his forearms away from the painful stimuli when it is applied. Calculate his Glasgow coma score.

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Answer: 8

      Eye Opening Response
      Spontaneous–open with blinking at baseline – 4 points
      Opens to verbal command, speech, or shout – 3 points
      Opens to pain, not applied to face – 2 point
      None – 1 point

      Verbal Response
      Oriented – 5 points
      Confused conversation, but able to answer questions – 4 points
      Inappropriate responses, words discernible – 3 points
      Incomprehensible speech – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      Motor Response
      Obeys commands for movement – 6 points
      Purposeful movement to painful stimulus – 5 points
      Withdraws from pain – 4 points
      Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture – 3 points
      Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      He opens his eyes to pain and groans or grunts. He flexes his forearms away from the painful stimuli This gives him a Glasgow score of 8: eye opening response of 2, verbal response 2 and motor response 4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Correct

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted with anti B antibodies when mixed with A +ve blood. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      Group A – has only the A antigen on red cells (and B antibody in the plasma)
      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)
      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)
      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?

      Your Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the renin– angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50 year old lawyer is admitted to the medical ward for an...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old lawyer is admitted to the medical ward for an endarterectomy. His CT report confirms a left temporal lobe infarct. Which visual defect is most likely to be encountered?

      Your Answer: Right superior quadranopia

      Explanation:

      Quadrantanopia refers to an anopia affecting a quarter of the field of vision. While quadrantanopia can be caused by lesions in the temporal and parietal lobes, it is most commonly associated with lesions in the occipital lobe.
      A lesion affecting one side of the temporal lobe may cause damage to the inferior optic radiations (known as the temporal pathway or Meyer’s loop) which can lead to superior quadrantanopia on the contralateral side of both eyes (colloquially referred to as pie in the sky).

      Therefore, a left temporal lobe infarct will affect the right superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 34 year old woman arrives at the clinic with a goitre and...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old woman arrives at the clinic with a goitre and is diagnosed with autoimmune thyroiditis. She is most likely to develop which of the following types of cancers?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Pre-existing chronic autoimmune (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis is the only known risk factor for primary thyroid lymphoma and is present in approximately one-half of patients. Among patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the risk of thyroid lymphoma is at least 60 times higher than in patients without thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy....

    Correct

    • A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left superior suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer: Left inferior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      The superior suprarenal arteries arises from the inferior phrenic artery on either side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Correct

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:
      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.
      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.
      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.
      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.
      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old male patient is recovering from a right hemicolectomy for Crohn's disease....

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male patient is recovering from a right hemicolectomy for Crohn's disease. He is oliguric and dehydrated owing to a high output ileostomy. His electrolytes are normal. Out of the following, which intravenous fluid should be administered?

      Your Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s solution is the preferred fluid among the listed options.

      In UK, Guidelines on Intravenous Fluid Therapy for Adult Surgical Patients (GIFTASUP) and The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines were devised to try and develop a consensus on how to administer intravenous fluids (IV) postoperatively. A decade ago, it was a commonly held belief that little harm would occur as a result of excessive administration of normal saline, and many oliguric postoperative patients received enormous quantities of IV fluids. As a result, they developed hyperchloraemic acidosis. With greater understanding of this potential complication, the use of electrolyte-balanced solutions (Hartmann’s or Ringer Lactate solution) is now favoured over normal saline.

      The guidelines further include:
      1. Fluids given should be documented clearly.
      2. Assess the patient’s fluid status when they leave the theatre.
      3. If the patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, aim to restart oral fluid intake as soon as possible.
      4. If the patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia if present should be treated first. This should then be followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored closely.
      5. Solutions such as Dextran 70 should be cautiously used in patients with sepsis as there is a risk of developing acute renal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65 year old man has colorectal cancer Duke C. What is his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man has colorectal cancer Duke C. What is his 5 year prognosis?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Dukes staging and 5 year survival:
      Dukes A – Tumour confined to the bowel but not extending beyond it, without nodal metastasis (95%)
      Dukes B – Tumour invading bowel wall, but without nodal metastasis (75%)
      Dukes C – Lymph node metastases (50%)
      Dukes D – Distant metastases (6%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following muscles attach to the hyoid bone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attach to the hyoid bone?

      Your Answer: Inferior pharyngeal constrictor

      Correct Answer: Middle pharyngeal constrictor

      Explanation:

      The hyoid bone is a horseshoe-shaped bone situated in the anterior midline of the neck between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. A large number of muscles attach to the hyoid: Superiorly – the middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle, hyoglossus muscle, genioglossus, intrinsic muscles of the tongue and suprahyoid muscles. Inferiorly – the thyrohyoid muscle, omohyoid muscle and sternohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?

      Your Answer: Urinary bladder

      Explanation:

      The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right...

    Correct

    • A chest x ray of a patient reveals loculated fluid in the right chest, which can be easily aspirated if the needle is inserted through the body wall just above the 9th rib in the midaxillary line. Where is this fluid located?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.
      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.
      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.
      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.
      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.
      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the? ...

    Correct

    • The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by S1,2,4 anterior branches. It gives off the inferior haemorrhoid nerve before dividing terminally into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris or the penis. Thus, it is the principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid...

    Correct

    • The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old girl falls off the monkey bars in the park and lands on her left forearm. She is rushed to the hospital and on examination, she has bony tenderness and bruising. X-ray shows unilateral cortical disruption and development of periosteal haematoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Greenstick fracture

      Explanation:

      A greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and breaks. Greenstick fractures occur most often during infancy and childhood when bones are soft.
      Some clinical features of a greenstick fracture are similar to those of a standard long bone fracture – greenstick fractures normally cause pain at the injured area. As these fractures are specifically a paediatric problem, an older child will be protective of the fractured part and babies may cry inconsolably. As per a standard fracture, the area may be swollen and either red or bruised. Greenstick fractures are stable fractures as a part of the bone remains intact and unbroken so this type of fracture normally causes a bend to the injured part, rather than a distinct deformity, which is problematic.
      Radiographic features
      -usually mid-diaphyseal
      -occur in tandem with angulation
      -incomplete fracture, with cortical breach of only one side of the bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process?

      Your Answer: Leukocyte adhesion

      Explanation:

      Steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function include:
      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel.
      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls.
      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes. Interaction of these results in adhesion.
      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product.
      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year old woman with cholecystitis is admitted for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old woman with cholecystitis is admitted for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has reported feeling unwell for the last 10 days. During the procedure, while attempting to dissect the distended gallbladder, only the fundus is visualized and dense adhesions make it difficult to access Calot's triangle. Which of the following would be the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: Dissect out the bile duct and perform a cholangiogram

      Correct Answer: Perform an operative cholecystostomy

      Explanation:

      Chronic cholecystitis can be a surgical challenge due to an inflammatory process that creates multiple adhesions, complicates dissection, and can hamper recognition of normal anatomical structures. In such cases cholecystostomy can be performed in order to alleviate the acute symptoms. Tube cholecystostomy allows for resolution of sepsis and delay of definitive surgery. Interval laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be safely performed once sepsis and acute infection has resolved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old patient with an history of obesity has been diagnosed with meralgia parasthetica. The condition was discovered to be caused by the pinching of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. Injuries at what spinal levels usually affect this nerve?

      Your Answer: L2, L3

      Explanation:

      The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh arises from the dorsal division of the lumbar plexus of the second and the third lumbar nerves (L2 – L3). Spinal injuries at this level are likely to affect the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve innervates the skin on the lateral aspect of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives,...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?

      Your Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Correct

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      98.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior...

    Correct

    • A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.
      Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
      Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.
      Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He has sustained a flail chest injury and is hypotensive on arrival at the hospital. Examination shows an elevated jugular venous pressure and auscultation of the heart reveals muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a classical picture of cardiac tamponade, suggested by Beck’s triad: hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and muffled heart sounds.

      Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent haemodynamic compromise. This condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.

      Patients with cardiac tamponade have a collection of three medical signs known as Beck’s triad. These are low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds. The diagnosis may be further supported by specific ECG changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the heart. If fluid increases slowly, the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 L; however, if the increase is rapid, as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade.

      Management options may include pericardiocentesis, surgery to create a pericardial window, or a pericardiectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Incorrect

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer: Common interosseous artery

      Correct Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: HLA-DPA1

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Incorrect

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall...

    Incorrect

    • During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Correct Answer: Arcuate line

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.
      The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
      The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.
      The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test...

    Incorrect

    • The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test should be done on this patient to screen for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Pap smear

      Explanation:

      Worldwide, approximately 500,000 new cases of cervical cancer and 274,000 deaths are attributable to cervical cancer yearly. This makes cervical cancer the second most common cause of death from cancer in women. The mainstay of cervical cancer screening has been the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed...

    Correct

    • Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed spindle shaped cells with high nuclear/cytoplasm ratio on immunohisto chemical staining. These pleomorphic cells were vimentin positive, cytokeratin negative and cd45 negative. This type of neoplasm is most commonly found in which patient?

      Your Answer: A 15-year-old boy with a mass in the left femur and lung metastases

      Explanation:

      A histology report that describes spindle shaped cells which are vimentin positive suggests osteosarcoma and hematogenous spread to the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Abnormal breathing is noticed in a of victim of a road traffic accident,...

    Incorrect

    • Abnormal breathing is noticed in a of victim of a road traffic accident, who sustained a head injury. The breathing pattern is characterised by alternate periods of waxing and waning tidal volumes with interspersed periods of apnoea. This breathing pattern is known as:

      Your Answer: Kussmaul breathing

      Correct Answer: Cheyne–Stokes breathing

      Explanation:

      Cheyne-Stokes breathing is an abnormal breathing pattern with breathing periods of gradually waxing and waning tidal volumes, with apnoeic periods interspersed. It is usually the first breathing pattern to be seen with a rise in intracranial pressure and is caused by failure of the respiratory centre in the brain to compensate quickly enough to changes in serum partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The aetiology includes strokes, head injuries, brain tumours and congestive heart failure. It is also a sign of altitude sickness in normal people, a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning or post-morphine administration. Biot’s respiration (cluster breathing) is characterized by cluster of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnoea. It is different from ataxic respiration, which has completely irregular breaths and pauses. It results due to damage to the medulla oblongata by any reason (stroke, uncal herniation, trauma) and is a poor prognostic indicator. Kussmaul breathing, also known as ‘air hunger’, is basically respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis and is characterized by quick, deep and laboured breathing. It is most often seen in in diabetic ketoacidosis. Due to forced inspiratory rate, the patients will show a low p(CO2). Ondine’s curse is congenital central hypoventilation syndrome or primary alveolar hypoventilation, which can be fatal and leads to sleep apnoea. It involves an inborn failure to control breathing autonomically during sleep and in severe cases, can affect patients even while awake. It is known to occur in 1 in 200000 liveborn children. Treatment includes tracheostomies and life long mechanical ventilator support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 46-year-old male complains of sharp chest pain. He is due to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old male complains of sharp chest pain. He is due to have elective surgery to replace his left hip. He has been bed-bound for 3 months. He suddenly collapses; his blood pressure is 70/40mmHg, heart rate 120 bpm and his saturations are 74% on air. He is deteriorating in front of you. What is the next best management plan?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Thrombolysis with Alteplase

      Explanation:

      The patient has Pulmonary embolism (PE).
      PE is when a thrombus becomes lodged in an artery in the lung and blocks blood flow to the lung. Pulmonary embolism usually arises from a thrombus that originates in the deep venous system of the lower extremities; however, it rarely also originates in the pelvis, renal, upper extremity veins, or the right heart chambers. After travelling to the lung, large thrombi can lodge at the bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery or the lobar branches and cause hemodynamic compromise.
      The classic presentation of PE is the abrupt onset of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia. However, most patients with pulmonary embolism have no obvious symptoms at presentation. Rather, symptoms may vary from sudden catastrophic hemodynamic collapse to gradually progressive dyspnoea.
      Physical signs of pulmonary embolism include the following:
      Tachypnoea (respiratory rate >16/min): 96%
      Rales: 58%
      Accentuated second heart sound: 53%
      Tachycardia (heart rate >100/min): 44%
      Fever (temperature >37.8°C [100.04°F]): 43%
      Diaphoresis: 36%
      S3 or S4 gallop: 34%
      Clinical signs and symptoms suggesting thrombophlebitis: 32%
      Lower extremity oedema: 24%
      Cardiac murmur: 23%
      Cyanosis: 19%
      Management
      Anticoagulation and thrombolysis
      Immediate full anticoagulation is mandatory for all patients suspected of having DVT or PE. Diagnostic investigations should not delay empirical anticoagulant therapy.
      Thrombolytic therapy should be used in patients with acute pulmonary embolism who have hypotension (systolic blood pressure< 90 mm Hg) who do not have a high bleeding risk and in selected patients with acute pulmonary embolism not associated with hypotension who have a low bleeding risk and whose initial clinical presentation or clinical course suggests a high risk of developing hypotension.
      Long-term anticoagulation is critical to the prevention of recurrence of DVT or pulmonary embolism because even in patients who are fully anticoagulated, DVT and pulmonary embolism can and often do recur.
      Thrombolytic agents used in managing pulmonary embolism include the following:
      – Alteplase
      – Reteplase

      Heparin should be given to patients with intermediate or high clinical probability before imaging.
      Unfractionated heparin (UFH) should be considered (a) as a first dose bolus, (b) in massive PE, or (c) where rapid reversal of effect may be needed.
      Otherwise, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) should be considered as preferable to UFH, having equal efficacy and safety and being easier to use.
      Oral anticoagulation should only be commenced once venous thromboembolism (VTE) has been reliably confirmed.
      The target INR should be 2.0–3.0; when this is achieved, heparin can be discontinued.
      The standard duration of oral anticoagulation is: 4–6 weeks for temporary risk factors, 3 months for first idiopathic, and at least 6 months for other; the risk of bleeding should be balanced with that of further VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Null cell adenoma

      Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer: Increased heart rate

      Correct Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 32-year-old male is admitted overnight, following a road traffic accident. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted overnight, following a road traffic accident. He has an open tibial fracture with a 20 cm wound and extensive periosteal stripping. He is neurovascularly intact; IV antibiotics and wound dressing have been administered in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate vascular shunting, followed by temporary skeletal stabilisation and vascular reconstruction

      Correct Answer: Combined skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction on a scheduled operating list

      Explanation:

      The patient has Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIb.
      Options for wound closure in the treatment of open fractures include primary closure of the skin, split-thickness skin grafting, and the use of either free or local muscle flaps. The timing of open wound closure has proponents in the immediate, early, and delayed categories
      Gustilo-Anderson classification
      Type I – Open fracture with a wound less than 1 cm in length, and clean
      Type II – Open fracture with a laceration more than 1 cm in length, without extensive soft-tissue damage, flaps, or avulsions
      Type III – Either an open segmental fracture, an open fracture with extensive soft-tissue damage, or a traumatic amputation
      The description of type III fractures was subsequently further refined and described by Gustilo et al in 1984, [6] as follows:
      Type IIIa – Severe comminution or segmental fractures, but with adequate coverage of bone and a wound that is closable by simple means
      Type IIIb – Extensive soft-tissue damage in association with the open fracture, with significant bone exposure and periosteal stripping, typically requiring tissue rotation or free tissue transfer for closure
      Type IIIc – Any open fracture with an arterial injury that requires repair

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2...

    Incorrect

    • A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2 weeks. What will his liver biopsy done after 6 months show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal architecture

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is the most common acute viral hepatitis, more common in children and young adults. It is caused by Hepatitis A virus, which is a single-stranded RNA picornavirus. The primary route of spread of Hepatitis A is the faecal-oral route. Consumption of contaminated raw shellfish is also a likely causative factor. The shedding of the virus in faecal matter occurs before the onset of symptoms and continues a few days after. Hepatitis A does not lead to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, and there is no known chronic carrier state. Hence, a biopsy performed after recovery will show normal hepatocellular architecture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (7/8) 88%
Generic Surgical Topics (5/8) 63%
Head And Neck Surgery (2/2) 100%
Basic Sciences (27/33) 82%
Pathology (8/9) 89%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (4/4) 100%
Oncology (1/2) 50%
Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Physiology (9/11) 82%
Surgical Disorders Of The Brain (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (10/13) 77%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (0/1) 0%
Passmed