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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man presents with a watery eye and some purulent discharge. Mucoid...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a watery eye and some purulent discharge. Mucoid discharge can be expressed from the lacrimal punctum. His eye is painful and red while the nasal end of his lower eyelid is swollen. The redness extends further to reach the nasal peri-orbital area. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute dacryocystitis

      Explanation:

      Acute dacryocystitis presents as inflammation of the lacrimal sac and is typically caused by infection. Symptoms of acute dacryocystitis can be pain, redness of the eye and swelling of the nasal aspect of the eye. The eye is usually watery and discharge can be expressed through the lacrimal punctum which is generally mucoid but can also be purulent. Patient can also present with fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.3
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  • Question 2 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 3 - A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a nodular growth over the dorsum of the his nose, about 0.6 cm in size. The base of nodule is slightly ulcerated and its margins are raised. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Basal cell carcinoma is usually located on sun exposed sites. It has got many variants and clinically it presents as a slow growing mass/nodule with rolled margins and an ulcerated base.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination his lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. There was a left sided parasternal heave. His electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed atrial fibrillation with right axis deviation. Echocardiography showed dilated right heart chambers. Left and right heart catheterisation study revealed the following: Inferior vena cava Oxygen saturations 63 %, Superior vena cava Oxygen saturations 59 %, Right atrium Oxygen saturations 77 %, Right ventricle Oxygen saturations 78 %, Pulmonary artery Oxygen saturations 82 %, Arterial saturation Oxygen saturations 98 %. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following answers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair. Blood results are shown below: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1–7), Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9–35). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of colorectal cancer. He was diagnosed one month ago after participating in a screening test—faecal occult blood test. Following the positive test result, colonoscopy was performed demonstrating a malignant lesion in the descending colon. CT staging showed lymph node involvement but no distant metastases. The patient has undergone a left hemicolectomy and is due to start adjuvant chemotherapy with a combination of fluorouracil (5-FU) and oxaliplatin. During his work-up, his consultant had explained that he would need to be monitored for disease recurrence. Which of the following is important in monitoring the disease activity in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a known tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not used diagnostically, but in patients with a known diagnosis of colorectal cancer associated with raised CEA levels, it can be used to monitor disease activity and help with the early identification of disease recurrence.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which radiated backwards between his scapulae. He didn't have difficulty in breathing and the pain wasn't exacerbated by deep inspiration or a change in position. His father had died due to a heart disease when he was small. He also has a cardiac murmur which was never properly investigated. On examination he was tachycardic with a BP of 165/60 mmHg. There was a diastolic murmur at lower left sternal border which is best heard with the patient sitting forward. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is Marfan’s syndrome because of a family history of cardiac death and heart murmurs. A characteristic feature is pain which radiates to the back. A wide pulse pressure and a diastolic heart murmur is suggestive of aortic dissection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is, however, experiencing troublesome vomiting which is not responding to domperidone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a 5-HT3 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered. For patients at low risk of these symptoms, drugs such as metoclopramide may be used. For high-risk patients, however, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 10 - Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which features may suggest malignant changes in a melanocytic naevi?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic naevi are skin tumours produced by melanocytes. They usually present in childhood but increase during puberty. The mnemonic A-B-C-D, is used by institutions to assess for suspicion of malignancy. The letters stand for asymmetry, border, colour, and diameter. If a mole starts changing in size, colour, shape or, especially, if the border of a mole develops ragged edges or becomes larger than a pencil eraser, it would be an appropriate time to consult with a physician. Other warning signs include if it begins to crust over, bleed, itch, or become inflamed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to his GP with abnormal liver function tests. She has a raised alkaline phosphatase level but no symptoms of liver disease. Which of the following options is the best set of investigations to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRCP and liver biopsy

      Explanation:

      In a patient with abnormal LFTs and UC, think primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). MRCP and liver biopsy is the best answer. MRCP will show classically beads on a string – intra and extrahepatic stricturing and dilation. Remember this finding!! Liver biopsy is required for official diagnosis (need tissue!).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
      DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he claims that his ears are too big in proportion to his face and he seldom leaves the house because of this. His records show that he was treated for anxiety and depression with fluoxetine previously and has been off work with back pain for the past 4 months. On examination, his ears appear to be normal. What is the most appropriate term of this behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmorphophobia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in the given scenario would be body dysmorphic disorder or dysmorphophobia

      It is a mental disorder where patients have a significantly distorted body image.

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV criteria:
      Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. If a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is markedly excessive.
      The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
      The preoccupation is not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g., dissatisfaction with body shape and size in Anorexia Nervosa).

      Treatment:
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the most commonly used and most empirically supported intervention to improve body image.
      Several drugs have been targets of study in anorexia nervosa treatment, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, antidepressants, antipsychotics, nutritional supplementation, and hormonal medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine...

    Incorrect

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine screening test developed to detect Chlamydia. The total number of people involved in the study were 200. The study compared the new test to the already existing NAAT techniques. The new test was positive in 20 patients that were Chlamydia positive and in 3 patients that were Chlamydia negative. For 5 patients that were Chlamydia positive and 172 patients that were Chlamydia negative the test turned out to be negative. Choose the correct value regarding the negative predictive value of the new test:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 172/177

      Explanation:

      The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 15 - A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the lateral three and a half fingers of her right hand, tenderness over her right forearm, and inability to make a tight fist. She complains of pain in her right arm when twisting door handles anticlockwise. Phalen’s and Tinel’s tests are negative. She is otherwise neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pronator teres syndrome

      Explanation:

      Entrapment of the median nerve by pronator teres causes a median nerve neuropathy, which is worse during pronation of the forearm. Examination should involve excluding carpal tunnel syndrome and pronation of the affected forearm against resistance, which brings on the pain. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve proximal to the wrist may be tender to palpation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a purpuric rash covering the abdominal wall and thighs, and a fever of 38C. Investigations reveal haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.   Which feature of the presentation makes the diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura more likely than haemolytic uremic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Confusion in the patient refers to neurological symptoms that are more associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura than with haemolytic uremic syndrome. All the other symptoms present in both conditions similarly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 17 - From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing...

    Incorrect

    • From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing survival in patients with COPD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention in stopping the progression of COPD, as well as increasing survival and reducing morbidity. This is why smoking cessation should be the top priority in the treatment of COPD. Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may increase survival in hypoxic patients. The rest of the options dilate airways, reduce inflammation and thereby improve symptoms but do not necessarily increase survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 18 - A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 19 - A 22-year-old, thin drama student presents with weakness and muscle cramps. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old, thin drama student presents with weakness and muscle cramps. She has a past medical history of reflux and bronchial asthma, for which she takes lansoprazole 30mg once daily, inhaled salbutamol PRN, and a once-daily inhaled corticosteroid. She reports feeling stressed lately as she has a leading role in a significant stage production due to open in one week. Her heart rate is 87 bpm, blood pressure 103/71mmHg, respiratory rate 13/min. Her blood results are: pH: 7.46 Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 2.8 mmol/L, Chloride: 93 mmol/L, Magnesium: 0.61 mmol/L, What is the most likely aetiology for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis considering hypochloraemia and the mild metabolic alkalosis as well as the history of GERD (requiring a high dose of PPI to control) would be bulimia.

      Other options:
      Diuretic abuse tends to give a hypochloraemic acidosis.
      Gitelman syndrome also fits the diagnosis but, it is very rare compared to bulimia.
      Inhaled steroid use and stress would not be responsible for such marked electrolyte derangement.

      Other potential signs of bulimia nervosa would be parotid gland swelling and dental enamel erosion induced by regular vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for several months. Examination findings include a normal blood pressure, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Severe vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy, a disorder characterized by hemorrhagic manifestations and abnormal osteoid and dentin formation.
      Vitamin C plays a role in collagen, carnitine, hormone, and amino acid formation. It is essential for bone and blood vessel health and wound healing and facilitates recovery from burns. Vitamin C is also an antioxidant, supports immune function, and facilitates the absorption of iron (see table Sources, Functions, and Effects of Vitamins).
      Dietary sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, broccoli, strawberries, and sweet peppers. (See also Overview of Vitamins.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
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