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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation. She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions. On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago. What would be the best next line of management?
Your Answer: Caesarean section.
Correct Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.
Explanation:The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.
This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.
Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.
A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.
A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.
Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus
Explanation:Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
– Age above 35 years.
– Smoking.
– High intake of caffeine.
– Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
– Viral infections.
– Thrombophilia.
– Chromosomal abnormalities.
Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with presentation of chicken pox rashes which started 2 days ago. Varicella IgM came back positive with negative IgG. What is the most appropriate management in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing and arranged a detailed fetal ultrasound 5 weeks later
Explanation:Varicella or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by primary infection with varicella-zoster virus (VZV) which can result in maternal mortality or serious morbidity. The virus which remains dormant in the sensory nerve root ganglia following a primary infection can get reactivated to cause a vesicular erythematous skin rash along the dermatomal distribution known as herpes zoster, ‘zoster’ or ‘shingles’. Though rare the risk of acquiring infection from an immunocompetent individual with herpes zoster in non-exposed sites like thoracolumbar regions can also occur. As the viral shedding will be greater, a disseminated zoster or exposed zoster (e.g. ophthalmic) in an individual or localised zoster in an immunosuppressed patient should be considered very infectious.
In industrialised countries, over 85 % of women in childbearing age are immune to varicella zoster virus (VZV), however, women from tropical and subtropical areas are more susceptible to chickenpox in pregnancy as they are more likely to be seronegative for VZV IgG. Up to 10% cases of VZV in pregnancy are complicated with Varicella pneumonia, whereas perinatal varicella/ chickenpox carries a 20 to 30 % risk of transmitting infection to the neonate. Studies on maternal varicella infection from 12-28 weeks gestation suggests a 1.4% risk of fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) whose subsequent abnormalities include:
– Skin scarring (78%)
– Eye abnormalities (60%)
– Limb abnormalities (68%)
– Prematurity and low birthweight (50%)
– Cortical atrophy, intellectual disability (46%)
– Poor sphincter control (32%)
– Early death (29%)In the case mentioned above, patient had developed chickenpox rashes in her 2nd trimester and presented to you at day 2 of illness. Her varicella IgM came back positive along with a negative IgG indicating that she is not being immunized and that she is currently having active varicella infection. The best management in this case will be to reassured and allowed patient to be monitored at home. As there is no underlying lung disease, she is not immunocompromised and she is a non-smoker, so antiviral therapy is not required.
Generally, for pregnant women with chickenpox if they present within 24 hours of onset of rash and are in 20+0 weeks of gestation or beyond oral aciclovir should be prescribed. However, the use of acyclovir before 20+0 weeks should be considered carefully as Aciclovir is rated category B3 (Pregnancy and Breastfeeding, eTG, January 2003, ISSN 1447-1868) and should only be prescribed if its potential benefits outweigh the potential risks caused to the fetus, with informed consent in pregnant women who present within 24 hours of onset of varicella rash. If the patient is immunocompromised or if there are respiratory symptoms, a haemorrhagic rash or persistent fever for more than six days it is advisable to use intravenous acyclovir. On the other hand, to prevent secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, symptomatic treatment and hygiene should also be advised and unless there is significant superimposed bacterial infection antibiotics are not required.
If the pregnant woman has had a significant exposure to chickenpox or shingles, and is not immune to VZV , she should be offered VZIG as soon as possible or at the very latest within 10 days of the exposure. However, since Varicella zoster immunoglobulins (VZIG) has no therapeutic benefit in already developed cases of chickenpox, it should not be given to the context patient who have already developed active rashes of chickenpox with serology showing positive IgM positive and negative IgG indicating primary infection.
At least five weeks after primary infection a detailed fetal ultrasound must be done checking for any anomalies and ultrasounds should be repeated until delivery; and consider a fetal MRI if any abnormalities are found. In cases were if ultrasound is found to be normal, VZV fetal serology and amniocentesis are not useful and is not routinely advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg. From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa
Explanation:In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding
Explanation:Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
– A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
– Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
– Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
– Intellectual disability
– Low birth weight
Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Penicillin allergy skin testing and penicillin desensitization, if necessary
Explanation:Penicillin is the treatment of choice for treating syphilis. For treatment of syphilis during pregnancy, no proven alternatives to penicillin exist. Treatment guidelines recommend desensitization in penicillin-allergic pregnant women, followed by treatment with penicillin. Syphilis in pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.
– Data are insufficient to recommend ceftriaxone for treatment of maternal infection and prevention of congenital syphilis.
– Erythromycin and azithromycin should not be used, because neither reliably cures maternal infection or treats an infected foetus.
– Tetracycline and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than penicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman had a history of dilation and curettage for septic abortion. Currently, she has developed amenorrhea for 6 months already. It was also noted that she smokes 10 cigarettes and drinks 2 standard alcoholic drinks every day. She was tested for beta-hCG but it was not detectable. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step to establish a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or intrauterine synechiae) occurs when scar tissue forms inside the uterus and/or the cervix. These adhesions occur after surgery of the uterus or after a dilatation and curettage.
Patients with Asherman syndrome may have light or absent menstrual periods (amenorrhea). Some have normal periods based on the surface area of the cavity that is affected. Others have no periods but have severe dysmenorrhea (pain with menstruation).
Although two-dimensional sonography may suggest adhesive disease, Asherman syndrome is more often evaluated initially with saline sonography or hysterosalpingography to demonstrate the adhesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication. All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies
Explanation:Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.
Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.
Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.
Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.
It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.
Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.
Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application
Explanation:Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.
Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.
An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.
In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.
To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.
Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.
Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.
Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.
Explanation:Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.
Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.
Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.
Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.
Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.
Explanation:Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva. She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins. She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies. What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical ligation and stripping of the affected veins.
Explanation:The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.
In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.
Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.
Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,
Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.
Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting. On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG. Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured uterus
Explanation:Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.
Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
– Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
– Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
– Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
– Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
– Cessation of uterine contractions
– Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
– Uterine tenderness
As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A low APGAR score at one minute:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation
Explanation:The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now is common practice as up to 20% of women carry the organism in the vagina. If a pregnant woman is found to have GBS at this stage, which treatment would be most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parenteral penicillin given six-hourly in labour.
Explanation:Up to 20% of women have been found to have Group B streptococcus (GBS). GBS is considered a normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract. GBS infection is generally asymptomatic although some women might end up having a UTI. Infants born to mothers who are colonised with GBS during labour are at a higher risk of developing early-onset GBS infection. If a pregnant woman develops a UTI due to GBS, it is suggestive of significant GBS colonisation. IV penicillin would be the drug of choice and is to be administered to the mother during labour which would provide sufficient protection for the foetus and would be effective enough. If penicillin is unavailable, ampicillin is a reasonable alternative. If a patient has penicillin allergy, vancomycin can be used. If not for penicillin, roughly 50% of babies delivered vaginally to women who are GBS positive would be colonised with the organism and out of this percentage, 1-2% can go on to develop a severe infection such as septicaemia and meningitis which could often be fatal.
IM penicillin can be administered to the newborn immediately post-delivery would be an effective prophylaxis in most cases but one should not wait until signs of infection are present to give the injection. Many newborns would still have an immature immune system which could cause some to die. Hence, it is more suitable to treat all women who tested positive during labour and the newborn as well if any signs of infection do appear. The majority of babies don’t need antibiotic treatment if their mother has been treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding. A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery. Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase risk of adhesions
Explanation:Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
-Increased risk of maternal mortality.
-Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
-Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
-Increased risk of infections.Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe vaginal pain 4 days after the procedure. At the site of the episiotomy, an 8-cm hematoma is noted on examination. Also the woman is found to be hemodynamically stable. Among the following, which is considered the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explore the hematoma
Explanation:In most cases reported, puerperal hematomas arise due to bleeding lacerations related to operative deliveries or episiotomy, and in rare cases from spontaneous injury to a blood vessel in the absence of any laceration/incision of the surrounding tissue. Vulval, vaginal/paravaginal area and retroperitoneum are considered the most common locations for puerperal hematomas.
Most puerperal hematomas are diagnosed based on the presence of characteristic symptoms and physical examination findings:
VuIvar hematoma usually presents as a rapidly developing, severely painful, tense and compressible mass which is covered by skin of purplish discoloration. A vulvar hematoma can also be an extension of a vaginal hematoma which was dissected through a loose subcutaneous tissue into the vulva.
Vaginal hematomas often present with rectal pressure, were hemodynamic instability caused due to bleeding into the ischiorectal fossa and paravaginal space are the first signs and can result in hypovolemic shock. In these cases a large mass protruding into the vagina is often found on physical examination.
Retroperitoneal hematomas are asymptomatic initially and extend between the folds of broad ligament. Patients suffering will often present with tachycardia, hypotension or shock due to the significant accumulated of blood in the retroperitoneal space. Unless the hematoma is associated with trauma, patients will not present with pain, only signs will be a palpable abdominal mass or fever.Treatment of hematoma depends mostly on the size and location:
Non-expanding hematomas which are <3cm in size can be managed conservatively with analgesics and application of ice packs. An expanding hematoma or those greater than 3cm is managed effectively with surgical exploration under anesthesia, were an incision is made to evacuate the hematoma. The surgical site should not be sutured and vagina is often packed for 12-24 hours, an indwelling urinary catheter also may be indicated. In the given case, patient presents with a large haematoma (>3cm) which needs surgical excision and evacuation.Aspiration of the hematoma is not an appropriate treatment. If surgical intervention is indicated excision and evacuation is the preferred option, followed by vaginal packing for 12-24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy. Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.
Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive. Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.
Explanation:If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:
1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
-If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally. What would be your advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition
Explanation:From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks duration. Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.
Explanation:It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).
The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.
In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
– to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
– look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
– examine the placenta for abnormalities
– identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
– diagnose a possible miscarriage
– confirm an early pregnancyThis is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.
The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.
This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.
E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending. How will you manage this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline
Explanation:Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
1. More refractory vomiting.
2. Failure to improve.
3. Recurrent hospital admissions.Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland. What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland
Explanation:A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.
So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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