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  • Question 1 - You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student....

    Incorrect

    • You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student. The consultant asks you what structures form the roof of the inguinal canal.

      What forms the roof of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: The reflected inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: The arched fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Inguinal Canal: Structures and Functions

      The inguinal canal is a passage located in the abdominal wall that extends from the abdominal inguinal ring to the subcutaneous inguinal ring. It is about 4 cm long, slanting downwards and medially, and is situated just above the medial part of the inguinal ligament. The canal contains important structures such as the spermatic cord and the ilioinguinal nerve in males, and the round ligament of the uterus and the ilioinguinal nerve in females.

      The roof of the inguinal canal is formed by the arched fibres of the internal oblique muscle and transversus abdominis, along with the transversalis fascia. The floor of the canal is formed by the union of the transversalis fascia with the inguinal ligament, along with the lacunar ligament at the medial third. The medial third of the floor is also formed by the lacunar ligament, while the posterior wall is formed by the reflected inguinal ligament, also known as the conjoint tendon, and the transversalis fascia.

      Understanding the anatomy of the inguinal canal is important for medical professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions such as hernias and nerve entrapment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman who recently gave birth presents to the general practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who recently gave birth presents to the general practitioner with symptoms of rectal bleeding for the past two weeks. She has noticed fresh red blood on the toilet paper after passing a bowel motion, associated with some discomfort and itching around the anus. She has noticed bulging around the anus also. She is otherwise well, without changes in bowel habit or recent weight loss. She is very worried that she may have bowel cancer, as her grandfather was diagnosed with colorectal cancer after episodes of rectal bleeding when he was 81.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sentinel pile

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhoids: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are a common condition characterized by abnormally swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal. This condition is more prevalent in pregnant women, those who have recently given birth, and individuals with risk factors such as constipation, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Symptoms may include pain, rectal/anal itching, and fresh rectal bleeding after a bowel movement.

      In patients presenting with haemorrhoids, it is crucial to exclude red flag symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40. If any of these symptoms are suspected, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered.

      Management of haemorrhoids may involve lifestyle advice such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If the patient does not respond to conservative treatment, they may be referred for secondary care treatment, which may include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, or haemorrhoid artery ligation.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include anal fissure, colorectal carcinoma, fistula-in-ano, and sentinel pile. However, a thorough history and examination can help differentiate these conditions from haemorrhoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their bowels for several days. Their abdomen is distended, and they describe cramping abdominal pain that comes and goes. A supine abdominal X-ray is performed to identify features of bowel obstruction and suggest the location of the obstruction.
      Which of the following is more characteristic of the large bowel, rather than the small bowel, on an abdominal X-ray?

      Your Answer: Haustral folds

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Small and Large Bowel Anatomy

      The human digestive system is composed of various organs that work together to break down food and absorb nutrients. Two important parts of this system are the small and large bowel. Here are some characteristics that differentiate these two structures:

      Haustral Folds and Valvulae Conniventes
      Haustral folds are thick, widely separated folds that are characteristic of the large bowel. In contrast, valvulae conniventes are thin mucosal folds that pass across the full width of the small bowel.

      Location
      The small bowel is located towards the center of the abdomen, while the large bowel is more peripheral and frames the small bowel.

      Diameter
      The normal maximum diameter of the small bowel is 3 cm, while the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm. The caecum, a part of the large bowel, can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.

      Air-Fluid Levels in Obstruction
      The appearance of air-fluid levels is characteristic of small bowel obstruction.

      Remembering the 3/6/9 Rule
      To help remember the normal diameters of the small and large bowel, use the 3/6/9 rule: the small bowel has a diameter of 3 cm, the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm, and the caecum can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.

      Understanding the Differences Between Small and Large Bowel Anatomy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Correct Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease

      Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.

      A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.

      In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 days. The bleeding worsens after passing stools. He has recently increased his fibre intake, but he still finds it very difficult to pass stools. Defecation causes him severe pain that lasts for hours. During the examination, you try to perform a DRE, but the patient experiences severe pain, making it impossible to complete the procedure. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Common Anal Conditions and Their Differentiating Features

      Anal conditions can cause discomfort and pain, but each has its own unique symptoms and characteristics. Anal fissures, for example, are caused by a tear in the sensitive skin-lined lower anal canal and cause acute pain on defecation. Treatment involves analgesia or topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or diltiazem to relax the sphincter. Rectal prolapse, on the other hand, causes a mass protruding through the anus and may also result in constipation and/or faecal incontinence. Fistula in ano is an abnormal connection between the anal canal and perianal skin, while anal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that presents with rectal bleeding, unexplained weight loss, persistent change in bowel habit, iron deficiency anaemia, and abdominal or rectal mass. Finally, haemorrhoids are vascular cushions in the anal canal that usually cause painless PR bleeding, but rarely cause discomfort. Understanding the differentiating features of these common anal conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman was brought to the Emergency Department after being stabbed in the abdomen, one inch (2.54 cm) superior to the umbilicus in the midline.
      Assuming the knife entered the peritoneal cavity, which one of the following abdominal wall structures would the knife penetrate first?

      Your Answer: Aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles

      Explanation:

      Layers of the Anterior Abdominal Wall

      The anterior abdominal wall is composed of several layers that provide support and protection to the abdominal organs. Understanding the layers of the abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging.

      Skin and Superficial Fascia
      The outermost layer of the abdominal wall is the skin, followed by the superficial fascia. The superficial fascia contains adipose tissue and is important for insulation and energy storage.

      Anterior Rectus Sheath
      The anterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. It covers the rectus muscle and provides additional support to the abdominal wall.

      Rectus Muscle
      The rectus muscle is located deep to the anterior rectus sheath and is responsible for flexing the trunk. It is an important muscle for maintaining posture and stability.

      Posterior Rectus Sheath
      The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and transversus muscles. It provides additional support to the rectus muscle and helps to maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.

      Transversalis Fascia
      The transversalis fascia is a thin layer of connective tissue that lies deep to the posterior rectus sheath. It separates the abdominal wall from the peritoneum and provides additional support to the abdominal organs.

      Extraperitoneal Fat and Peritoneum
      The extraperitoneal fat is a layer of adipose tissue that lies deep to the transversalis fascia. It provides insulation and energy storage. The peritoneum is a thin layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.

      Conclusion
      Understanding the layers of the anterior abdominal wall is important for surgical procedures and diagnostic imaging. Each layer provides important support and protection to the abdominal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System

      The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?

      Your Answer: It is two layers thick

      Correct Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac

      Explanation:

      The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance

      The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.

      Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.

      Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.

      In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy

      Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort and bloating. She also reports having episodes of diarrhea with mucous in her stool, but no blood. The pain tends to worsen after meals and improve after having a bowel movement. Despite her symptoms, she has not experienced any weight loss and maintains a healthy appetite. She has undergone surgery for osteoarthritis in her hip, but has no other significant medical history.
      Upon investigation, the patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease. What is the most likely complication this patient may develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colovesical fistulae

      Explanation:

      Complications and Associations of Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a condition that can lead to various complications. One of the most common complications is the formation of fistulae, which are abnormal connections between different organs. The most frequent type of fistula associated with diverticular disease is the colovesical fistula, which connects the colon and the bladder. Other types of fistulae include colovaginal, colouterine, and coloenteric. Colocutaneous fistulae, which connect the colon and the skin, are less common.

      Diverticular disease does not increase the risk of developing colorectal carcinoma, a type of cancer that affects the bowel. However, it can cause other symptoms such as haemorrhoids, which are not directly related to the condition. Anal fissure, another medical condition that affects the anus, is not associated with diverticular disease either. Instead, it is linked to other conditions such as HIV, tuberculosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and syphilis.

      In summary, diverticular disease can lead to various complications and associations, but it is not a pre-malignant condition and does not directly cause haemorrhoids or anal fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on defecation, which has lasted over two months despite increasing fluid intake and stool softeners. He has had anal fissures in the past, as well as a previous perianal abscess. On examination, the anal area is inflamed, with evidence of a deep anal fissure with an associated large sentinel tag.
      The doctor explains that this is a symptom of active perianal disease secondary to this patient’s chronic bowel condition.
      With which of the following conditions is perianal disease most commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Perianal Manifestations in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: A Comparison

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition that affects the digestive tract. Two main types of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Both conditions can cause perianal manifestations, but the prevalence and severity differ.

      Crohn’s disease is commonly complicated by perianal abscesses, fistula-in-ano, anal fissures, and skin tags. Up to 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease may suffer from perianal disease, which can significantly impair their quality of life. In contrast, perianal disease is far less common in patients with ulcerative colitis.

      Coeliac disease, another digestive disorder, is not associated with perianal disease. However, it is linked to an increased risk of other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease.

      Diverticular disease, which causes abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea, is also not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a functional disorder that causes symptoms such as bloating, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhea. Unlike IBD, IBS is not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      In summary, perianal manifestations are more commonly seen in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis or other digestive disorders. A multidisciplinary approach may be required to manage severe cases of perianal Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change in bowel habit and bleeding per rectum. He reports no further symptoms, and an abdominal and digital rectal examination are unremarkable. However, colonoscopy shows a high rectal tumour, encompassing approximately two-thirds of the diameter of the colon. He is booked to have an operation.
      Which of the following is he most likely to be listed for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Types of Colorectal Resection Surgeries

      Colorectal resection surgeries are performed to remove cancerous or non-cancerous tumors in the colon or rectum. Here are the different types of colorectal resection surgeries:

      1. Anterior Resection: This surgery is recommended for non-obstructed tumors in the distal sigmoid colon, middle or upper rectum.

      2. abdominoperineal Resection: This surgery is used for operable low rectal and anorectal tumors. It involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon, and the formation of an end-colostomy.

      3. Sigmoid Colectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the sigmoid colon.

      4. Left Hemicolectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the descending colon.

      5. Pan-colectomy: This surgery involves the removal of the entire colon and is typically performed in cases of ulcerative colitis. It requires the formation of a permanent ileostomy or the construction of an ileal-anal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain. He reports that the pain began 6 hours ago as a vague discomfort around his belly button, but has since become a sharp pain in the right iliac fossa, which worsens when he walks or coughs. He has lost his appetite and has vomited twice. The examining surgeon suspects that he may have appendicitis.
      Which dermatome level in the spinal cord receives afferent signals from the periumbilical pain in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Sensory Levels and Pain Localization in Appendicitis

      Appendicitis is a common condition that causes inflammation of the appendix. The initial pain associated with this condition is vague and poorly localized, and it is felt in the periumbilical region. However, as the inflammation progresses and the parietal peritoneum adjacent to the appendix becomes inflamed, the pain becomes sharp and localizes to the right iliac fossa.

      The sensory level for visceral afferents from the appendix is at the 10th thoracic segment, which is the same level as the somatic afferents from the anterior abdominal wall in the region of the umbilicus. This is why the initial pain is felt in the periumbilical region.

      The hip girdle and groin area are innervated by the cutaneous dermatome representing L1 spinal cord. However, T6 to T12 affect abdominal and back muscles, and T8 and T12 are not the correct sensory levels for appendicitis pain localization. Understanding the sensory levels and pain localization in appendicitis can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has no family history of bowel conditions, has not traveled recently, and has no sick contacts. During colonoscopy, seven polyps measuring <5 mm in diameter are found proximal to the sigmoid colon and removed for further analysis. Which of the following conditions linked to bowel polyps is considered non-hereditary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serrated polyposis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overview of Hereditary Colorectal Polyp Disorders

      Hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. These disorders are caused by various genetic defects and are inherited in different patterns. Here are some of the most common hereditary colorectal polyp disorders:

      1. Serrated Polyposis Syndrome: This condition is characterized by the presence of numerous serrated and/or hyperplastic polyps in the colon and rectum. It is not associated with any specific genetic defect and is linked to an increased risk of colorectal cancer.

      2. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP): FAP is an autosomal dominant condition that causes the development of hundreds or thousands of adenomatous polyps in the colon. These polyps have a high risk of malignant transformation, and patients with FAP are likely to develop colorectal cancer if left untreated.

      3. Lynch Syndrome: Also known as hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, Lynch syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer and other malignancies, including breast, stomach, endometrial, and urinary tract cancers.

      4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by the development of gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation. Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing colorectal, breast, liver, and lung cancers.

      5. Gardner Syndrome: Gardner syndrome is a subtype of FAP that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the development of numerous colorectal polyps and extracolonic manifestations such as desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts. Prophylactic surgery is the mainstay of treatment for patients with Gardner syndrome.

      In conclusion, hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Early detection and management are crucial in preventing the development of cancer in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly and he has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past six hours. Despite his discomfort, his physical examination does not reveal any significant findings. The patient has a notable medical history, having previously suffered a myocardial infarction that necessitated the placement of a pacemaker.
      What test is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of blood flow to the intestines, which can lead to serious complications. There are several diagnostic imaging techniques that can be used to identify mesenteric ischaemia, including abdominal computed tomography (CT), abdominal ultrasound, abdominal X-ray, colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).

      Abdominal CT is often the first-line investigation used to rule out other causes and can identify signs of mesenteric ischaemia, such as gas in the intestinal wall and portal vein. Abdominal ultrasound is not useful in assessing bowel lesions but may indicate perforation and free fluid in the abdomen. Abdominal X-ray findings are non-specific and may not be helpful in narrowing down the differential. Colonoscopy can be helpful in looking at mucosal lesions of the bowel but carries a risk of perforation. MRA can be useful in assessing vascular pathology but is not recommended for patients with pacemakers.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic imaging techniques may be necessary to accurately diagnose mesenteric ischaemia and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 16 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and one episode of dark rectal bleeding. He is noticed to be in fast atrial fibrillation. He is an ex-smoker and drinks three pints of beer per week. On examination, he is not peritonitic, but his pain is generalised and only temporarily alleviated by opioid analgesia. His bloods show: white blood count 14 (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/l), c-reactive protein 23 (normal: Less than 10 mg/L) and arterial lactate 4.8 (normal 1 ± 0.5 mmol/l4). Abdominal and chest X-rays are unremarkable.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bowel ischaemia

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with consistent abdominal pain, bowel ischaemia should be considered as a possible cause. This is especially true for elderly patients who experience crampy abdominal pain followed by dark rectal bleeding. Bowel ischaemia occurs when the bowel mucosa becomes necrotic due to a lack of blood flow. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of mesenteric artery embolisation, which can lead to bowel ischaemia. A raised lactate level is also indicative of bowel ischaemia. Haemorrhoids, on the other hand, would not cause an acute abdomen and typically present as bright red blood on wiping stool. Ulcerative colitis is more common in younger patients and is characterised by episodes of bloody diarrhoea. It is not associated with smoking and acute exacerbations are characterised by many episodes of diarrhoea, some of which may be bloody, and fever. Bowel volvulus, which is twisting of the bowel leading to obstruction, would cause abdominal distension, pain, constipation, and bloody stool. However, this patient’s normal appearance on plain film X-rays makes bowel obstruction or volvulus unlikely. Diverticulitis, which is inflammation of outpouchings of the large bowel, usually presents with gradual onset of left iliac fossa pain, loose stools, and fever. It is associated with more episodes of loose stools and fever and can progress to shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 17 - A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
      What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of rectum

      Explanation:

      The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 18 - You are the F2 in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic and have been asked...

    Incorrect

    • You are the F2 in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic and have been asked to see Mrs Jones by the consultant. Mrs Jones is a 56-year-old lady who presents with trouble defecating, and although she still passes her motions normally, over the past month, she has noticed the uncomfortable feeling of still wanting to defecate after passing her motions. During the past 2 weeks, she has noticed she has been passing mucous and some blood but no change in colour. Examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following does the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance recommend as an initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Investigation for Bowel Habit Changes: A Guide

      When a patient experiences changes in bowel habit, it is important to choose the right investigation to determine the underlying cause. In this scenario, the patient is having difficulty defecating, feels incomplete emptying, and is passing mucous per rectum. The main differential diagnoses include colorectal cancer, colorectal polyps, and diverticular disease. Here are some options for investigations and their appropriateness:

      Colonoscopy: NICE recommends colonoscopy as the initial investigation for those without major co-morbidities. If a lesion is visualized, it can be biopsied, allowing for a diagnosis of colon cancer. Flexible sigmoidoscopy, followed by barium enema, can be offered in those with major co-morbidities.

      Barium enema: This may be considered in patients for whom colonoscopy is not suitable. However, it would not be the first investigation of choice in this patient without major co-morbidities.

      Faecal occult blood testing: This is a screening test offered to men and women aged 60-74 in the general population. It would not be appropriate to request this test in the above scenario, as it is not specific and would not offer any extra information for diagnosis. Plus, the patient already has signs of bleeding.

      Rigid sigmoidoscopy: This would be a valid option in the outpatient setting, as it allows quick visualization of the anorectal region. However, NICE guidance recommends colonoscopy as first line as it allows visualization of a much greater length of the bowel.

      Computerized tomography (CT) abdomen: For patients who present as emergencies, this may be more appropriate. However, in this case, in the outpatient setting, this is unlikely to be the investigation of choice.

      In summary, choosing the right investigation for bowel habit changes depends on the patient’s individual circumstances and the suspected underlying cause. Colonoscopy is often the first line investigation recommended by NICE, but other options may be appropriate in certain situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started yesterday and is increasing in intensity. She has had loose stools for a few days and has been feeling nauseated. She has not vomited. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bloods: haemoglobin (Hb) 116 g/l; white cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the bowel wall become inflamed, often due to blockages. This is more common in older individuals and can cause symptoms such as fever, nausea, and abdominal pain. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and rest, but surgery may be necessary in severe cases. It is important to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions, such as colorectal cancer, with lower gastrointestinal endoscopy. In contrast, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are less likely diagnoses in a 75-year-old patient without prior gastrointestinal history. Diverticulosis, the presence of these pouches without inflammation, is often asymptomatic and more common in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 20 - At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist...

    Incorrect

    • At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
      What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma

      There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.

      The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.

      Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.

      Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.

      Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.

      In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
      What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery

      When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.

      While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.

      In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of a portion of his bowel. At the clinico-pathological conference, the histological findings of the operative sample are discussed.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of Crohn’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis: Histopathological Features

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term used to describe two conditions: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. While both conditions share some similarities, they have distinct differences that can be identified through histopathological examination of surgical specimens.

      Transmural inflammation, which affects all layers of the intestinal wall, is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease. This type of inflammation is not typically seen in ulcerative colitis. Additionally, Crohn’s disease often presents as skip lesions, meaning that affected areas are separated by healthy tissue. In contrast, ulcerative colitis typically presents as continuous disease limited to the large bowel.

      Crypt abscesses, which are collections of inflammatory cells within the crypts of the intestinal lining, are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis. Mucosal inflammation, which affects only the surface layer of the intestinal lining, is more typical of ulcerative colitis as well.

      Other histopathological features that can help distinguish between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis include the presence of rose thorn ulcers (deep ulcers with a characteristic appearance) in Crohn’s disease and lymphoid aggregates in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.

      In summary, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis share some similarities, histopathological examination of surgical specimens can help differentiate between the two conditions based on the presence or absence of certain features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 23 - You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anastomotic leak

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery

      When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right iliac fossa. A pregnancy test is negative and bloods show a raised white cell count. Her parents tell you she has had a ‘cold’ for the past week. She also began to suffer from headaches two days before the pain.
      The girl is taken to theatre for a laparoscopic appendicectomy. However, during the operation, the appendix is found to be completely normal.
      How should the surgical team proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove the appendix anyway

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric Lymphadenitis and the Role of Appendicectomy

      Mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition in children and adolescents that causes inflammation of the lymph nodes in the mesentery. It is typically associated with a recent cold or infection, and can present with abdominal pain, fever, and a raised white cell count. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics.

      In some cases, mesenteric lymphadenitis can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. In such cases, even if the appendix appears normal, it may be beneficial to remove it anyway. This can prevent the patient from developing acute appendicitis in the future, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures prior to hospitalization. Additionally, removing the appendix can protect the patient from certain cancers that originate in the appendix.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary to explore the rest of the abdomen in some cases, a skilled surgeon can often rule out other causes of pain laparoscopically. It is important to consider the possibility of mesenteric lymphadenitis when working through the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa pain.

      In conclusion, mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition that can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics. In cases where the appendix appears normal, it may still be beneficial to remove it to prevent future complications. A skilled surgeon can often explore the abdomen laparoscopically to rule out other causes of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
      What is the most effective treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment

      When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 26 - A woman has previously had a total colectomy. Three years ago, she had...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has previously had a total colectomy. Three years ago, she had an end ileostomy for ulcerative colitis (UC). She presents to the Emergency Department with a tender stoma which has not had any output for 2 days. On examination, there is a positive cough impulse and a detectable tender lump lateral to the ileostomy.
      What is the most likely stoma complication that has occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parastomal herniation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Parastomal Herniation from Other Stoma Complications

      When a patient presents with a cough impulse and lump at the site of their stoma, along with a lack of stoma output, it is likely that they are experiencing a parastomal hernia. This type of hernia requires emergency repair if it is irreducible. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease is more likely to affect stomas than ulcerative colitis, as UC primarily affects the colon.

      If a patient is experiencing an IBD recurrence at the site of their stoma, they would have increased stoma output, which is not the case in this scenario. Ischaemia of the stoma is more likely to occur in the immediate post-operative phase and would present as a dusky, ischaemic stoma. A stoma prolapse would not cause a positive cough impulse, and stoma retraction would present with persistent leakage and peristomal irritant dermatitis.

      Therefore, it is important to differentiate between these various stoma complications to provide appropriate and timely treatment for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal occult blood. Upon further questioning, he disclosed that his bowel movements have altered in the past few months. During physical examination, he appeared pale and breathless, but otherwise his examination was normal. Laboratory tests indicated that he had anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
      What would be the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia in a Man

      Iron deficiency anaemia in a man is often caused by chronic blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, the patient’s altered bowel habits and lack of other symptoms suggest a colonic pathology, most likely a cancer. Therefore, a colonoscopy is the best investigation to identify the source of the bleeding.

      A barium swallow is not appropriate in this case as it only examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal angiography is an invasive and expensive test that is typically reserved for patients with massive blood loss or mesenteric ischaemia. While abdominal radiographs are useful, a colonoscopy is a more appropriate investigation in this case.

      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unlikely to reveal the cause of the patient’s symptoms as it primarily examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, it may be useful in cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeds causing melaena.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 28 - A 78-year-old man comes to the General Practice after noticing blood in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the General Practice after noticing blood in the toilet bowl following a bowel movement. He reports no other symptoms. During a digital rectal examination, you observe fresh blood in the rectum and feel a regular, circular mass in the midline through the anterior rectal wall.
      What is the probable object being detected in the anterior rectum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Pelvic Region: Palpable Structures on Digital Rectal Examination

      During a digital rectal examination, several structures in the pelvic region can be palpated. The following are some of the structures that can be identified and their characteristics:

      Prostate: The prostate is a regular, round mass located in the midline that can be felt through the anterior rectal tissue. It is unlikely to be the cause of blood per rectum, as prostate cancer invading rectal tissue is rare.

      Rectal Tumour: An irregular and firm mass felt on digital rectal examination is more likely to be a rectal tumour, which is an important cause of bleeding per rectum. However, the description and location of the mass make it much more likely to be the prostate.

      Urinary Bladder: The urinary bladder is located superior to the prostate and is usually beyond the reach of a digital rectal examination.

      Sigmoid Colon: The sigmoid colon, which is the length of bowel found proximal to the rectum, cannot be palpated on digital rectal examination.

      Pubic Symphysis: The pubic symphysis, located anterior to the bladder and prostate, is not palpable via the rectum.

      Understanding the palpable structures on digital rectal examination is important for diagnosing and treating conditions in the pelvic region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults

      Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.

      Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 30 - A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back at school when he gets a sharp pain in the right inguinal region and notices a bulge just above his groin on the right. His GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the teenager's appendicectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage during Appendicectomy: Understanding the Ilioinguinal, T10, Femoral, Genitofemoral, and Obturator Nerves

      During an appendicectomy, it is possible for nerves to be damaged if the surgeon performs overzealous sharp dissection of the musculature within the incision. One of the nerves that can be affected is the ilioinguinal nerve, which is a branch from the first lumbar nerve. This nerve passes between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles, supplying these muscles that form the roof of the inguinal canal in the groin region. Damage to the ilioinguinal nerve can lead to the development of an indirect inguinal hernia.

      It is important to note that the T10 nerve, which originates from below the thoracic vertebra 10, is too high to be damaged during an appendicectomy. The femoral nerve, which supplies the thigh and arises from the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves, is also unlikely to be damaged during the procedure. The genitofemoral nerve and obturator nerve are also not typically affected during an appendicectomy.

      In summary, understanding the potential nerve damage that can occur during an appendicectomy is important for both patients and surgeons. By being aware of the nerves that are at risk, surgeons can take appropriate precautions to minimize the risk of complications and ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Colorectal (3/9) 33%
Passmed