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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a high-speed road traffic incident. He was ejected from the vehicle and sustained a severe head injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is E1 V1 M2. Other injuries include an unstable pelvic fracture (secured with a binder) and bruising to his anterior chest wall. His heart rate is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Additional history from a family member includes:
      Allergy – penicillin
      Past medical history – hypertension, high cholesterol
      Drug history – bisoprolol.
      Which one of the following would be the fluid of choice for supporting his blood pressure?

      Your Answer: 1 l of warmed crystalloid (0.9% sodium chloride)

      Correct Answer: Packed red blood cells (through a fluid warmer)

      Explanation:

      In cases of severe high-impact trauma, the patient may experience hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss. The most common causes of mortality following trauma are neurological injury and blood loss. In such cases, the DCR approach is used, which involves permissive hypotension and blood product-based resuscitation. Crystalloids should be avoided as they can increase haemodilution and impair coagulation and tissue perfusion. Instead, packed red blood cells should be used along with fresh frozen plasma to avoid dilutional coagulopathy. Tranexamic acid may also be used to aid haemostasis. Fluids should be warmed prior to infusion to prevent hypothermia, which is associated with worse patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression underwent bypass surgery last night. His depression has responded well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and there is no past history of psychosis. His blood pressure is also well controlled with medications. The following morning, he develops confusion, agitation and irritability, tries to remove his intravenous (iv) lines and wants to run away from hospital. His level of consciousness fluctuates, and at times he forgets who he is. He is given a neuroleptic drug and appears much improved.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Delirium

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Delirium from Other Psychiatric Disorders in Postoperative Patients

      Delirium is a common complication that can occur after surgery and general anesthesia. It is characterized by acute changes in mental status, including waxing and waning levels of consciousness, agitation, irritability, and psychosis. While delirium is self-limited and can be managed with low-dose neuroleptics, it is important to differentiate it from other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms.

      Schizophrenia, for example, typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior, and tends to start at a younger age than the acute symptoms seen in postoperative patients. It is also characterized by a progressive deterioration in functioning. Adjustment disorder, on the other hand, can result from any psychosocial or biological stressor, and may present with anxiety, irritability, and depressive mood. However, fluctuating levels of consciousness are not typically seen in this disorder.

      Dementia can also present with irritability, confusion, and agitation, but it follows an insidious course and does not have a fluctuating course like delirium. Finally, severe depression can present with psychotic features, suicidal ideation, and irritability, but the patient’s history of good response to SSRIs and lack of prior history of psychosis can help differentiate it from delirium.

      In summary, while delirium is a common complication of surgery and anesthesia, it is important to consider other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a lateral ankle...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a lateral ankle injury. This injury occurred while playing basketball the previous day. He continued playing but noted some discomfort at the time and thereafter. He is able to weight-bear with minor discomfort. On examination, there is some swelling over the ankle, a small amount of bruising and minimal tenderness on palpation. There is full range of movement in the ankle joint. He has not taken any analgesia.
      What is the best management of this man’s injury?

      Your Answer: Refer for ankle X-ray

      Correct Answer: Advise rest, ice, compression and elevation of the ankle for one to two days, followed by early mobilisation

      Explanation:

      Managing Ankle Ligament Sprains: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Early Mobilisation

      Ankle ligament sprains can be managed conservatively with rest, ice, compression, elevation, and analgesia. For minor sprains, pain-free stretching should be undertaken as soon as possible, followed by progressive weight-bearing and resistance exercises. Severe sprains or ruptures may require backslab immobilisation for ten days, followed by rehabilitation. Ankle X-rays are only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and any of the Ottawa ankle rules findings. Orthopaedic referral is only necessary for dislocations or fractures. Prolonged immobilisation should be avoided, and passive stretches should be commenced as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      6.6
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his friends, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his friends, who found him vomiting and surrounded by empty packets of pain medication. The patient is unable to identify which medication he took, but reports feeling dizzy and experiencing ringing in his ears. An arterial blood gas test reveals the following results:
      pH: 7.52
      paCO2: 3.1 kPa
      paO2: 15.2 kPa
      HCO3: 18 mEq/l
      Based on these findings, what is the most likely pain medication the patient ingested?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Common Overdose Symptoms and Risks of Pain Medications

      Pain medications are commonly used to manage various types of pain. However, taking too much of these medications can lead to overdose and serious health complications. Here are some common overdose symptoms and risks associated with different types of pain medications:

      Aspirin: Mild aspirin overdose can cause tinnitus, nausea, and vomiting, while severe overdose can lead to confusion, hallucinations, seizures, and pulmonary edema. Aspirin can also cause ototoxicity and stimulate the respiratory center, leading to respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis.

      Paracetamol: Paracetamol overdose may not show symptoms initially, but can lead to hepatic necrosis after 24 hours. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms, and acidosis can be seen early on arterial blood gas. A paracetamol level can be sent to determine if acetylcysteine treatment is necessary.

      Ibuprofen: NSAID overdose can cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Severe toxicity is rare, but large doses can lead to drowsiness, acidosis, acute kidney injury, and seizure.

      Codeine: Codeine overdose can cause opioid toxicity, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and respiratory depression. Codeine is often combined with other pain medications, such as paracetamol, which can increase the risk of mixed overdose.

      Naproxen: NSAID overdose can cause nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Severe toxicity is rare, but large doses can lead to drowsiness, acidosis, acute kidney injury, and seizure.

      It is important to be aware of the potential risks and symptoms of pain medication overdose and seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 5 - A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual state of health until she was observed to be confused and agitated during dinner yesterday. This morning, she was alert and oriented, but later in the evening, she became completely confused, agitated, and hostile. She was subsequently transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Additional history reveals no prior instances of confusion, but she has experienced increased frequency of urination over the past few days.
      What is the probable reason for her confusion?

      Your Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Delirium in an Elderly Patient: UTI vs. Dementia vs. Pyelonephritis

      When an 89-year-old woman presents with waxing and waning consciousness, punctuated by ‘sun-downing’, it is important to consider the possible causes of delirium. In this case, the patient has normal cognitive function but is experiencing acute global cerebral dysfunction. One possible cause of delirium in the elderly is a urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present with symptoms such as frequency and confusion.

      However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of delirium, such as vascular dementia or Alzheimer’s dementia. In these conditions, cognitive decline is typically steady and progressive, whereas the patient in this case is experiencing waxing and waning consciousness. Additionally, neither of these conditions would account for the patient’s new urinary symptoms.

      Another possible cause of delirium is pyelonephritis, which can present with similar symptoms to a UTI but may also include pyrexia, renal angle tenderness, and casts on urinalysis. However, in this case, the patient does not exhibit these additional symptoms.

      Finally, pseudodementia is unlikely in this scenario as the patient does not exhibit any affective signs. Overall, it is important to consider all possible causes of delirium in an elderly patient and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three weeks, along with discomfort in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She had a UTI not long ago, which was treated with amoxicillin. However, she ceased taking the medication due to a rash that spread throughout her body. What is the probable cause of her exhaustion?

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Glandular Fever, Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, Chronic Renal Failure, Chronic Depression, Iron Deficiency

      Glandular Fever: A Possible Diagnosis
      The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis. This condition is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is transmitted through saliva. Symptoms typically include a sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. However, other symptoms such as fatigue, arthritis, and hepatitis may also occur. The patient’s left upper quadrant pain and tiredness are consistent with this diagnosis. A characteristic rash may also develop following treatment with certain antibiotics.

      Other Possible Diagnoses
      Chronic fatigue syndrome is a chronic condition characterized by extreme fatigue and functional impairment. However, given the short time frame of the symptoms and association with amoxicillin, this diagnosis is unlikely. Chronic renal failure is associated with fatigue and anaemia, but there is no evidence of a history of this condition. Chronic depression may cause fatigue, but the duration of symptoms would be longer than three weeks and not associated with an infection or abdominal pain. Iron deficiency is a common cause of fatigue in women of reproductive age and should also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has a head injury and has vomited twice within the ambulance. His eyes are open to voice; he is able to squeeze your hand with both hands, when asked, and wiggle his toes. He is confused about what has happened and does not remember the accident. He cannot remember his age and tells you that he does not know where he is currently. Other injuries include a broken collarbone (immobilized). His sats are 98% on 10 l high-flow oxygen, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
      What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness based on three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 (lowest) to 15 (highest). Each component has a range of scores, with higher scores indicating better function.

      The breakdown of scores for each component is as follows:

      – Eye opening: spontaneous (4), to speech (3), to pain (2), none (1)
      – Verbal response: oriented response (5), confused speech (4), inappropriate words (3), incomprehensible sounds (2), none (1)
      – Best motor response: obeys commands (6), movement localized to stimulus (5), withdraws (4), abnormal muscle bending and flexing (3), involuntary muscle straightening and extending (2), none (1)

      To calculate the GCS score, the scores for each component are added together. For example, a patient who opens their eyes to speech (3), is confused (4), and obeys commands (6) would have a GCS score of 13 (E3 V4 M6 = GCS 13).

      It is important to note that a reduced GCS score may indicate the need for intubation, particularly if the score is 8 or less. Understanding the GCS can help healthcare providers quickly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and determine appropriate interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
      What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.

      CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.

      Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.

      It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.

      In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He is brought to Accident and Emergency where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the right side of his chest and upper abdomen, together with an obvious deformity of the right humerus. Radiograph of the right arm shows a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy, together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at home, while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      Pulse 110 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 98% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Analgesic for Acute Pain: A Case-by-Case Basis

      Analgesia is typically administered in a stepwise manner, but emergency medicine requires a more individualized approach. In cases of acute pain from long bone fractures, non-opioid analgesia may not be sufficient. The two most viable options are oral and IV morphine, with IV morphine being preferred due to its rapid onset and safe side-effect profile. However, caution must be exercised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency. Oral NSAIDs and morphine are contraindicated as the patient must be kept nil by mouth before urgent surgical intervention. Oxycodone prolonged release is too weak for severe pain. Choosing the right analgesic for acute pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 10 - A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:

      Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.

      Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.

      Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.

      Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.

      Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.

      In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 11 - You are on call overnight on orthopaedics when you receive a bleep to...

    Incorrect

    • You are on call overnight on orthopaedics when you receive a bleep to see a patient you are not familiar with. The patient had a left total hip replacement procedure 2 days ago and is now exhibiting signs of drowsiness and confusion. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is tachycardic, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) shows peaked T-waves and a wide QRS complex. You decide to take an arterial blood gas (ABG) which reveals a potassium level of 6.4 mmol (normal 5–5.0 mmol/l). What would be the most appropriate initial management action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow intravenous (IV) injection

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Hyperkalaemia is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate management. The first step is to administer 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection to protect the cardiac myocytes from excess potassium. Following this, 10 units of Actrapid® in 100 ml of 20% glucose can be given to draw potassium intracellularly. Salbutamol nebulisers may also be helpful. Calcium resonium 15g orally or 30 g rectally can be used to mop up excess potassium in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not effective in the acute setting.

      It is important to note that this condition requires urgent attention and cannot wait for a registrar to arrive. Once the patient is stabilised, senior support may be called for.

      It is crucial to administer the correct dosage and concentration of medications. Giving 50 ml of 15% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection is not the correct volume and concentration. Careful consideration and attention to detail are necessary in managing hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder catheter (due to a bladder outlet obstruction) has developed episodic fever, chills and a fall in systemic blood pressure since yesterday. The episodes occur irregularly and last almost an hour, during which time he becomes delirious.
      Which of the following factors plays a key role in the pathogenesis of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipopolysaccharide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Lipopolysaccharide in Septic Shock

      Septic shock is a serious medical condition that can occur as a result of a systemic inflammatory response to an infection. In this state, the body’s immune system is activated, leading to the release of cytokines such as tumour necrosis factor and interleukins. However, the main inciting agent responsible for this activation is Gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

      LPS plays a key role in the induction of the monocyte-macrophage system, leading to the release of cytokines and subsequent shock. Nitric oxide, also released by LPS-activated macrophages, contributes to the hypotension associated with sepsis. Additionally, tissue hypoxia can lead to increased production of lactic acid, although lactic acidosis is not the main player in shock.

      Understanding the role of LPS in septic shock is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition. By targeting the underlying cause of the immune system activation, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of septic shock and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman is admitted unresponsive to the Emergency Department. She is not...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is admitted unresponsive to the Emergency Department. She is not breathing and has no pulse. The ambulance crew had initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation before arrival. She is known to have hypertension and takes ramipril.
      She had routine bloods at the General Practice surgery three days ago:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 134 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 9.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 83 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) > 60
      The Ambulance Crew hand you an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip which shows ventricular fibrillation (VF).
      What is the most likely cause of her cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cardiac Arrest: Hyperkalaemia as the Most Likely Cause

      The patient’s rhythm strip shows ventricular fibrillation (VF), which suggests hyperkalaemia as the most likely cause of cardiac arrest. The blood results from three days ago and the patient’s medication (ramipril) support this diagnosis. Ramipril can increase potassium levels, and the patient’s K+ level was already high. Therefore, it is recommended to suspend ramipril until the K+ level comes down.

      Other potential causes of cardiac arrest were considered and ruled out. There is no evidence of hypernatraemia, hypovolaemia, or hypoxia in the patient’s history or blood results. While pulmonary thrombus cannot be excluded, it is unlikely to result in VF arrest and usually presents as pulseless electrical activity (PEA).

      In summary, hyperkalaemia is the most likely cause of the patient’s cardiac arrest, and appropriate measures should be taken to manage potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after an episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after an episode of near-drowning. He fell from a boat into a lake and was unable to swim. He was underwater for < 2 minutes before he was rescued. He did not lose consciousness. He reports swallowing lots of water and vomited twice in the ambulance. He is awake and alert; his observations are as follows: blood pressure 126/76 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, oxygen saturations 94% on room air, and temperature 36 °C. He is coughing occasionally, and his lungs are clear to auscultation. One hour after the episode, he feels well and wishes to go home.
      What is the best management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit overnight for observation

      Explanation:

      Management of Near-Drowning Patients: Recommendations for Observation and Treatment

      Admission for Observation:
      If a patient has experienced near-drowning but is awake and alert, it is recommended to observe them for at least six hours. This is because pulmonary oedema, a potential complication, may develop later on (usually within four hours).

      Discharge Home:
      While it may be tempting to discharge a patient after only one hour of observation, it is important to note that pulmonary oedema can occur late in near-drowning cases. Therefore, it is recommended to observe the patient for at least six hours before considering discharge.

      Admission to ICU:
      If the patient is alert and stable, there is no indication to admit them to the ICU. In cases where submersion durations are less than 10 minutes, the chances of a good outcome are very high.

      Antibiotics and IV Fluids:
      The need for antibiotics and IV fluids depends on the severity of the near-drowning incident. If the water was grossly contaminated, antibiotics may be necessary. However, if the patient is alert and able to swallow, oral antibiotics can be given. IV fluids are not necessary if the patient is haemodynamically stable and alert.

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      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman, whose children called for an ambulance due to concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman, whose children called for an ambulance due to concerns about her breathing, has an arterial blood gas (ABG) test done. She is a frequent visitor to the Accident and Emergency department and has been experiencing a cough and producing green sputum for the past 6 days. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) at home. While on controlled oxygen therapy through a Venturi system, her ABG results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.232 7.35–7.45
      CO2 8.9 kPa 3.5–4.5 kPa
      O2 9.4 kPa 8.0–10.0 kPa
      HCO3– 33 mmol/l 22.0–28.0 mmol/l
      SaO2 89%
      Lactate 2.1 0.1–2.2
      Which of the following statements best describes this ABG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Interpreting ABGs: Examples of Acid-Base Imbalances

      Acid-base imbalances can be identified through arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. Here are some examples of ABGs and their corresponding acid-base imbalances:

      Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation
      This ABG indicates a patient with long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has chronic carbon dioxide (CO2) retention and partial metabolic compensation (elevated bicarbonate (HCO3)). However, during an infective exacerbation of COPD, the patient’s hypoxia and hypercapnia worsened, resulting in a more severe acidaemia. The metabolic compensation is therefore only partial.

      Respiratory acidosis with complete metabolic compensation
      This ABG shows respiratory acidosis with a low pH due to CO2 retention. Despite some metabolic compensation, this is an acute-on-chronic change that has led to a worsening of the acidaemia.

      Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
      In this ABG, a patient with chronic COPD who has presented with an infective exacerbation shows respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation.

      Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
      This ABG indicates acidaemia due to a chronic respiratory disease.

      Respiratory acidosis without compensation
      Although this ABG shows respiratory acidosis, there is an element of metabolic compensation, as evidenced by the rise in HCO3.

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      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He reports feeling a strange sensation in his chest, like his heart is skipping a beat. You conduct an ECG which reveals tall tented T waves in multiple leads.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
      Na+: 136 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
      K+: 7.1 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Cl–: 96 mmol/l (normal 95–105 mmol/l).
      What immediate treatment should be administered based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Calcium Gluconate, Normal Saline Bolus, Calcium Resonium, Insulin and Dextrose, Dexamethasone

      Understanding Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can lead to ECG changes, palpitations, and a high risk of arrhythmias. There are several treatment options available for hyperkalaemia, each with its own mechanism of action and benefits.

      One of the most effective treatments for hyperkalaemia is calcium gluconate. This medication works by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes, which stabilizes the myocardium and protects the heart from arrhythmias. However, calcium gluconate does not reduce the potassium level in the blood, so additional treatments are necessary.

      A normal saline bolus is not an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia. Similarly, calcium resonium, which removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract, is slow-acting and will not protect the patient from arrhythmias acutely.

      Insulin and dextrose are commonly used to treat hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, which decreases serum potassium levels. Dextrose is needed to prevent hypoglycaemia. This treatment reduces potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/L every 15 minutes and is effective in treating hyperkalaemia. However, it does not acutely protect the heart from arrhythmias and should be given following the administration of calcium gluconate.

      Dexamethasone is not a treatment for hyperkalaemia and should not be used for this purpose.

      In conclusion, calcium gluconate is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia and should be administered first to protect the heart from arrhythmias. Additional treatments such as insulin and dextrose can be used to reduce potassium levels, but they should be given after calcium gluconate. Understanding the different treatment options for hyperkalaemia is essential for providing appropriate care to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) after acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) after acute haemorrhagic pancreatitis. On day 3, he develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
      Which of the following physiological variables is most likely to be low in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung compliance

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pathophysiology of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening condition that occurs as a result of damage to the pulmonary and vascular endothelium. This damage leads to increased permeability of the vessels, causing the extravasation of neutrophils, inflammatory factors, and macrophages. The leakage of fluid into the lungs results in diffuse pulmonary edema, which disrupts the production and function of surfactant and impairs gas exchange. This, in turn, causes hypoxemia and impaired carbon dioxide excretion.

      The decrease in lung compliance, lung volumes, and the presence of a large intrapulmonary shunt are the consequences of the edema. ARDS can be caused by pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration of gastric contents, and trauma, and it has a mortality rate of 40%.

      The work of breathing is affected by pulmonary edema, which causes hypoxemia. In the initial phase, hyperventilation and an increased work of breathing compensate for the hypoxemia. However, if the underlying cause is not treated promptly, the patient tires, leading to decreased work of breathing and respiratory arrest.

      The increase in alveolar surface tension has been shown to increase lung water content by lowering interstitial hydrostatic pressure and increasing interstitial oncotic pressure. In ARDS, there is an increase in alveolar-arterial pressure difference due to a ventilation-perfusion defect. Blood is perfusing unventilated segments of the lung. ARDS is also associated with impaired production and function of surfactant, increasing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid.

      In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ARDS is crucial in the management of this life-threatening condition. Early recognition and prompt treatment of the underlying cause can improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of his femur. He is day three post-op and has had a relatively uncomplicated postoperative period despite a complex medical history. His past medical history includes remitting prostate cancer (responding to treatment), COPD and osteoarthritis.
      He has a body mass index (BMI) of > 30 kg/m2, hypertension and is currently using a salmeterol inhaler, enzalutamide, naproxen and the combined oral contraceptive pill. He smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks eight units of alcohol per week. He manages his activities of daily living independently.
      Blood results from yesterday:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl) 108 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 85 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      You are crash-paged to his bedside in response to his having a cardiac arrest.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Initiate CPR, give a fibrinolytic and continue for at least 60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Management of Cardiac Arrest in a Post-Operative Patient with a History of Cancer and Oral Contraceptive Use

      In the management of a patient who experiences cardiac arrest, it is important to consider the underlying cause and initiate appropriate interventions. In the case of a post-operative patient with a history of cancer and oral contraceptive use, thrombosis is a likely cause of cardiac arrest. Therefore, CPR should be initiated and a fibrinolytic such as alteplase should be given. CPR should be continued for at least 60 minutes as per Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines.

      Giving adrenaline without initiating CPR would not be appropriate. It is important to rule out other potential causes such as hypovolemia, hypoxia, tamponade, tension pneumothorax, and toxins. However, in this scenario, thrombosis is the most likely cause.

      Calling cardiology for pericardiocentesis is not indicated as there is no history of thoracic trauma. Informing the family is important, but initiating CPR should take priority. Prolonged resuscitation of at least 60 minutes is warranted in the case of thrombosis. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in the event of cardiac arrest.

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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which is found to be secondary to Legionella. She is hypoxic and drowsy and has an acute kidney injury. She is intubated and ventilated and transferred to the Intensive Care Unit. Despite optimal organ support, her respiratory system continues to deteriorate, requiring high fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) (0.8) to maintain oxygen saturations of 88–92%. A chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates. A diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is made.
      Which of the following is a recognised component of the management strategy for ARDS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung-protective ventilation

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Mechanical Ventilation in ARDS Patients

      Mechanical ventilation is a crucial intervention for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). However, there are specific strategies that should be employed to ensure the best outcomes for these patients.

      Lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume (≤ 6 ml/kg predicted body weight) and a plateau pressure of ≤ 30 cmH2O is associated with a reduced risk of hospital mortality and barotrauma. In contrast, mechanical ventilation with high tidal volume is associated with an increased incidence of ventilator-induced lung injury.

      In 2000, a large randomized controlled trial demonstrated the benefits of ventilation with low tidal volumes in patients with ARDS. Therefore, it is essential to use lower tidal volumes to prevent further lung damage.

      While low positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is not a recognized management strategy, higher levels of PEEP can benefit patients with more severe ARDS. High PEEP aims to keep the lung open during the entire respiratory cycle, improving alveolar recruitment, reducing lung stress and strain, and preventing atelectrauma. However, a combination of individual PEEP titration following an alveolar recruitment maneuver could lead to better outcomes in more severe ARDS patients.

      Finally, prone positioning for at least 12 hours per day can be used in patients with moderate/severe ARDS and is associated with a reduction in mortality when combined with lung-protective ventilation. Therefore, patients should be maintained supine or prone, and prone positioning should be considered in appropriate cases.

      In conclusion, the best practices for mechanical ventilation in ARDS patients include lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume, higher levels of PEEP in severe cases, and prone positioning when appropriate. These strategies can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
      What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.

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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has suddenly become very unwell in the space of 10–15 minutes and is struggling to breathe. The nurse tells you he is on intravenous (IV) antibiotics for this exacerbation and has been on the ward for a few days.
      Which one of the following would be the most concerning observation after assessing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided pleuritic chest pain

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms and Vital Signs in a Patient with COPD Exacerbation

      When evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an infective exacerbation, it is important to consider their symptoms and vital signs. Left-sided pleuritic chest pain is a concerning symptom that may indicate pneumothorax, which requires urgent attention. However, it is common for COPD patients with exacerbations to be on non-invasive ventilation (NIV), which is not necessarily alarming. A slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate may also be expected in this context. An increased antero-posterior (AP) diameter on X-ray is a typical finding in COPD patients due to hyperinflated lungs. A borderline fever is also common in patients with infective exacerbations of COPD. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of symptoms and vital signs is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations.

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  • Question 22 - You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest on one of the wards. On arrival, the patient has defibrillator pads attached and someone is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A rhythm strip displays ventricular fibrillation during a CPR pause.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Safely DC shock immediately

      Explanation:

      Proper Steps for Responding to a Shockable Rhythm

      When responding to a shockable rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, it is important to follow the proper steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the resuscitation efforts. The first step is to immediately deliver a safe direct current (DC) shock, followed by one round of CPR and another safe DC shock. It is not appropriate to give drugs at this stage.

      After the second shock, continue CPR at a rate of 30 compressions to 2 breaths with interval checks. It is important to note that CPR is appropriate on both sides of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm initially, but once the pads are attached and the rhythm has been observed, the appropriate pathway should be followed.

      Under no circumstances should resuscitation be stopped if a shockable rhythm is observed. Instead, adrenaline 1:1000 IV should be administered only after the appropriate steps have been taken and the patient’s condition has been reassessed. By following these steps, responders can increase the chances of a successful resuscitation and potentially save a life.

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  • Question 23 - A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward to the Intensive Care Unit with rapidly worsening shortness of breath. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol use.
      On examination, in the Intensive Care Unit, he is maintaining saturations of 91% only on the ‘non-rebreather’ mask. There is cyanosis around the lips; bilateral crackles are present on auscultation of the lungs.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.32 7.35–7.45
      pO2 8.1 kPa (on oxygen) 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 4.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      Chest X-ray Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and Differential Diagnoses

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition that can be caused by various factors, including trauma, acute sepsis, and severe medical illnesses. It is characterized by a diffuse, acute inflammatory response that leads to increased vascular permeability of the lung parenchyma and loss of aerated tissue. Symptoms typically occur within 6-72 hours of the initiating event and progress rapidly, requiring high-level care. Hypoxia is difficult to manage, and pulmonary infiltrates are seen on chest X-ray. Careful fluid management and ventilation are necessary, as mortality rates can be as high as 30%. Corticosteroids may reduce late-phase damage and fibrosis.

      While secondary pneumonia may be included in the differential diagnosis, the acute deterioration and bilateral infiltrates suggest ARDS. Unilateral radiographic changes are more commonly associated with pneumonia. Viral pneumonitis is another possible diagnosis, but the rapid onset of ARDS distinguishes it from viral pneumonitis. Fibrosing alveolitis, a chronic interstitial lung disease, is unlikely to present acutely. Cardiac failure is also unlikely, as there are no cardiac abnormalities described on examination and the chest radiograph does not demonstrate cardiomegaly, pulmonary venous congestion, Kerley B lines, or pulmonary effusions that are suggestive of a cardiac cause. Echocardiography may be helpful in assessing cardiac functionality.

      In summary, ARDS is a serious condition that requires prompt and careful management. Differential diagnoses should be considered, but the acute onset and bilateral infiltrates seen on chest X-ray are suggestive of ARDS.

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  • Question 24 - You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in...

    Incorrect

    • You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
      What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions

      Explanation:

      How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support

      When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.

      Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.

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  • Question 25 - A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of right flank pain, dysuria and fever. Urosepsis is suspected, and the Sepsis Six Pathway is implemented in the Emergency Department.
      Which of the following is part of the ‘Sepsis Six’, the six key components to managing sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) fluids

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sepsis: IV Fluids, Corticosteroids, Antipyretics, and More

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate treatment. The following are some of the treatment options available for sepsis:

      IV Fluids: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends giving an IV fluid bolus without delay for suspected sepsis. Reassess the patient after completion of the IV fluid bolus, and if no improvement is observed, give a second bolus.

      Corticosteroids: In patients with septic shock, corticosteroid therapy appears to be safe but does not reduce 28-day all-cause mortality rates. It does, however, significantly reduce the incidence of vasopressor-dependent shock. Low-quality evidence indicates that steroids reduce mortality among patients with sepsis.

      Antipyretics: Treating sepsis is the most important immediate treatment plan. This will also reduce fever, although Antipyretics can be given in conjunction with this treatment, it will not reduce mortality.

      Maintain Blood Glucose 8–12 mmol/l: Measuring blood glucose on venous blood gas is important, as sepsis may cause hypo- or hyperglycaemia, which may require treatment. However, maintaining blood glucose between 8 and 12 mmol/l is not an evidence-based intervention and could cause iatrogenic hypo- and hyperglycaemia.

      Avoid Oxygen Therapy Unless Severe Hypoxia: Give oxygen to achieve a target saturation of 94−98% for adult patients or 88−92% for those at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.

      Treatment Options for Sepsis: What You Need to Know

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  • Question 26 - When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and...

    Incorrect

    • When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and harms to the patient. Among radiographic investigations, which ones are associated with the highest radiation exposure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Explanation:

      Radiation Doses from Medical X-Rays: A Comparison

      Medical X-rays are a common diagnostic tool used to detect and diagnose various medical conditions. However, they also expose patients to ionizing radiation, which can increase the risk of cancer and other health problems. Here is a comparison of the radiation doses from different types of X-rays:

      Abdominal X-ray: The radiation dose from an abdominal X-ray is equivalent to 5 months of natural background radiation.

      Chest X-ray: The radiation dose from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 10 days of natural background radiation.

      Abdomen-Pelvis CT: The radiation dose from an abdomen-pelvis CT is equivalent to 3 years of natural background radiation.

      DEXA Scan: The radiation dose from a DEXA scan is equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      Extremity X-rays: The radiation dose from X-rays of extremities, such as knees and ankles, is similar to that of a DEXA scan, equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      It is important to note that while the radiation doses from medical X-rays are relatively low, they can still add up over time and increase the risk of cancer. Patients should always discuss the risks and benefits of any medical imaging procedure with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l
      Female: 115–155 g/l
      Male: 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 22 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Calcium 1.9 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) 800 IU/l 50–120 IU/l
      Albumin 30 g/l 35–50 g/l
      Amylase 1600 U/l < 200 U/l
      What is the most appropriate transfer location for ongoing care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intensive care as an inpatient

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Acute Pancreatitis: A Case Study

      A patient presents with acutely raised amylase, high white cell count (WCC), and high lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), indicating acute pancreatitis or organ rupture. The Glasgow system suggests severe pancreatitis with a poor outcome. In this case study, we explore the appropriate management options for this patient.

      Intensive care as an inpatient is the most appropriate response, as the patient is at high risk for developing multi-organ failure. The modified Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of acute pancreatitis, and this patient meets the criteria for severe pancreatitis. Aggressive support in an intensive care environment is necessary.

      Discharge into the community and general practitioner review in 1 week would be a dangerous response, as the patient needs inpatient treatment and acute assessment and treatment. The same applies to general surgical outpatient review in 1 week.

      Operating theatre would be inappropriate, as no operable problem has been identified. Supportive management is the most likely course of action. If organ rupture is suspected, stabilisation of shock and imaging would likely be done first.

      General medical ward as an inpatient is not the best option, as acute pancreatitis is a surgical problem and should be admitted under a surgical team. Additionally, the patient’s deranged blood tests, especially the low calcium and high WCC, indicate a high risk of developing multi-organ failure, requiring intensive monitoring.

      In conclusion, appropriate management of acute pancreatitis requires prompt and aggressive support in an intensive care environment, with close monitoring of the patient’s condition.

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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man with known long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with known long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing breathlessness and wheeze. He reports that a week ago, he could walk to the store and back without getting breathless, but now he cannot even leave his house. He has been coughing up thick green sputum for the past 48 hours and is currently hypoxic - 90% on oxygen saturations, in respiratory distress, and deteriorating rapidly. An ambulance is called, and he is taken to the Emergency Department for treatment.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised bronchodilators

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Key Steps

      When a patient experiences an acute exacerbation of COPD, prompt and appropriate management is crucial. The following are key steps in managing this condition:

      1. Nebulised bronchodilators: Salbutamol 5 mg/4 hours and ipratropium bromide should be used as first-line treatment for immediate symptom relief.

      2. Steroids: IV hydrocortisone and oral prednisolone should be given following bronchodilator therapy ± oxygen therapy, if needed. Steroids should be continued for up to two weeks.

      3. Oxygen therapy: Care must be taken when giving oxygen due to the risk of losing the patient’s hypoxic drive to breathe. However, oxygen therapy should not be delayed while awaiting arterial blood gas results.

      4. Arterial blood gas: This test will help direct the oxygen therapy required.

      5. Physiotherapy: This can be a useful adjunct treatment in an acute infective exacerbation of COPD, but it is not the most important next step.

      Pulmonary function testing is not indicated in the management of acute COPD exacerbations. While it is useful for measuring severity of disease in patients with COPD to guide their long-term management, it is unnecessary in this acute setting. The most important next step after administering steroids is to add nebulised bronchodilators for immediate symptom relief.

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  • Question 29 - You are the on-call general practitioner and are called urgently to the nurses’...

    Incorrect

    • You are the on-call general practitioner and are called urgently to the nurses’ room where a 6-year-old boy receiving his school vaccinations has developed breathing difficulties. The child has swollen lips and is covered in a blotchy rash; respiratory rate is 40, heart rate is 140 and there is a wheeze audible without using a stethoscope.
      After lying the patient flat and raising his legs, what immediate action is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 150 micrograms of adrenaline intramuscularly (im)

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis Management: Administering Adrenaline

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that requires immediate management. The Resuscitation Council guidelines outline three essential criteria for recognizing anaphylaxis: sudden-onset, rapidly progressive symptoms, life-threatening Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems, and skin and mucosal changes.

      The first step in anaphylaxis management is to administer adrenaline intramuscularly (im) at a dilution of 1:1000. The appropriate dosage for adrenaline administration varies based on the patient’s age. For a 4-year-old patient, the recommended dose is 150 micrograms im. However, adrenaline iv should only be administered by experienced specialists and is given at a dose of 50 micrograms in adults and 1 microgram/kg in children and titrated accordingly.

      Adrenaline administration is only the first step in the treatment of anaphylaxis. It is crucial to follow the anaphylaxis algorithm, which includes establishing the airway and giving high-flow oxygen, iv fluid challenge, and chlorphenamine.

      It is essential to note that administering an incorrect dose of adrenaline can be dangerous. For instance, administering 1 mg of adrenaline im is inappropriate for the management of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines and administer the appropriate dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age.

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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with confusion, fever and flank pain. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, blood pressure 82/48 mmHg, pulse rate 123 bpm and respiration rate 27 breaths per minute. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and flank tenderness. Urinalysis shows 50–100 leukocytes and many bacteria per high-powered field.
      Which of the following is most likely to improve survival for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Timing in Fluid Resuscitation for Severe Sepsis: Debunking Myths about Haemodynamic Monitoring, Albumin Infusion, and Haemoglobin Levels

      When it comes to treating severe sepsis, timing is crucial. Aggressive fluid resuscitation within the first six hours can significantly improve a patient’s chances of survival. This was demonstrated in a landmark study by Rivers and colleagues, which found that early goal-directed therapy resulted in higher survival rates than delayed resuscitation attempts.

      However, not all interventions are equally effective. Haemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery catheter, for example, has not been shown to increase survival in septic patients. Similarly, there is no evidence that albumin infusion reduces mortality, and in fact, some studies have shown increased mortality rates in patients who received albumin solutions.

      Maintaining a haemoglobin level above 120 g/l is also not supported by evidence. While giving blood may be part of resuscitation for anaemic patients in shock, aiming for a specific haemoglobin level is not necessary.

      Finally, there is no data to support the idea that maintaining a lower Pa(CO2) would increase survival in septic patients. In summary, aggressive fluid resuscitation within the first six hours is crucial for treating severe sepsis, but not all interventions are equally effective or supported by evidence.

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