00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman was involved in a road traffic accident and had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman was involved in a road traffic accident and had a class I haemorrhage.Which physiological parameter is consistent with a diagnosis of class I haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Pulse rate of 115 bpm

      Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      There are 4 classes of haemorrhage. Classification is based on clinical signs and physiological parameters.In CLASS I:Blood loss (ml) is < or = 750Blood loss(% blood volume) < or = 15%Pulse rate (bpm) is 30Pulse pressure is normal or increasedSystolic BP is normalCNS/mental status patient is slightly anxious In CLASS II:Blood loss (ml) is 750 – 1500Blood loss(% blood volume) is 15 – 30%Pulse rate (bpm) is 100 – 120Respiratory rate is 20-30Urine output (ml/hr) is 20-30Pulse pressure is decreasedSystolic BP is normalCNS/mental status patient is mildly anxiousIn CLASS III:Blood loss (ml) is 1500 – 2000Blood loss(% blood volume) is 30- 40%Pulse rate (bpm) is 120 – 140Respiratory rate is 30-40Urine output (ml/hr) is 5-15Pulse pressure is decreasedSystolic BP is decreasedCNS/mental status patient is anxious, confusedIn CLASS IV:Blood loss (ml) is >2000Blood loss(% blood volume) is >40%Pulse rate (bpm) is >140Respiratory rate is >40Urine output (ml/hr) is negligiblePulse pressure is decreasedSystolic BP is decreasedCNS/mental status patient is confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old footballer develops pain and stiffness in his thigh. A diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old footballer develops pain and stiffness in his thigh. A diagnosis of iliopsoas syndrome is made.Iliacus is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Anterior rami of lumbar nerves L1-L3

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Iliacus is innervated by the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel4. It is about 2 inches long, 5. It occurs in about 2% of the population, 6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic). 7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old taxi driver sustained blunt force trauma to his anterior chest from...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old taxi driver sustained blunt force trauma to his anterior chest from the steering wheel of his car after falling asleep while driving headlong into an oncoming HGV lorry. Bruising around his sternum was observed, which appears to be the central point of impact. Which of the following structures is most likely injured by the blunt force trauma?

      Your Answer: Left ventricle

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      In its typical anatomical orientation, the heart has 5 surfaces formed by different internal divisions of the heart:Anterior (or sternocostal) – Right ventriclePosterior (or base) – Left atriumInferior (or diaphragmatic) – Left and right ventriclesRight pulmonary – Right atriumLeft pulmonary – Left ventricle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin interferes with bacterial nucleic acid synthesis.

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin decreases plasma concentrations of theophylline.

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline. There is an increased risk of convulsions when quinolones are given with NSAIDs or theophylline. There is an increased risk of tendon damage when quinolones are given with corticosteroids. Quinolones are known to increase the QT-interval and should not be taken with concomitantly with other drugs that are known to cause QT-interval prolongation. There is an increased risk of myopathy when erythromycin or clarithromycin are taken with simvastatin or atorvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache...

    Correct

    • You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache in the Emergency Department. The patient has signs of cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. You discuss the case with the on-call neurology registrar and decide to prescribe Mannitol. The nurse assisting you asks you to reconsider this management plan as she suspects the patient has a contraindication to Mannitol.Out of the following, what is a contraindication to mannitol?

      Your Answer: Severe cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure. It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:1. Anuria due to renal disease2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)3. Severe cardiac failure4. Severe dehydration5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In the Kaplan-Meier plot, which of the following labels should be applied to...

    Correct

    • In the Kaplan-Meier plot, which of the following labels should be applied to the X-axis?

      Your Answer: Time in years

      Explanation:

      Kaplan-Meier estimate is one of the best options to be used to measure the fraction of subjects living for a certain amount of time after treatment. In clinical trials or community trials, the effect of an intervention is assessed by measuring the number of subjects survived or saved after that intervention over a period of time. The time starting from a defined point to the occurrence of a given event, for example death, is called as survival time and the analysis of group data as survival analysis. The graph plotted between estimated survival probabilities/estimated survival percentages (on Y axis) and time past after entry into the study (on X axis) consists of horizontal and vertical lines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female complains of pain in her right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound is conducted, and a big gallstone is discovered. The radiologist who performs the scan speaks with you about the physiology of the gallbladder and biliary tract.During a 24-hour period, how much bile does the gallbladder produce?

      Your Answer: 800-1200 ml

      Correct Answer: 400-800 ml

      Explanation:

      The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, which is produced by the liver. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated. The breakdown of fats into fatty acids, the removal of waste materials, and cholesterol homeostasis are all crucial functions of bile.Bile is created on a constant basis, however it is only necessary after a meal has been consumed. The elimination of water and ions concentrates bile in the gallbladder, which is subsequently stored for later use. Food induces the release of the hormone cholecystokinin from the duodenum, the contraction of the gallbladder, and the relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. The bile then enters the duodenum.Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle,...

    Correct

    • The following statements are not true of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle, except?

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the radial artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi radialis brevis is a fusiform muscle found in the lateral part of the posterior forearm. Together with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris, it belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group. Extensor carpi radialis brevis originates from the lateral epicondyle of humerus via the common extensor tendon. This is a common origin that it shares with the extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi and extensor carpi ulnaris muscles. Some fibres also originate from the lateral intermuscular septum, a thick aponeurosis that covers the muscle itself, and from the radial collateral ligament.The muscle courses inferiorly, giving off a long tendon in the middle of the forearm which descends towards the dorsal hand. The tendon passes through a groove on the posterior surface of radius, deep to the extensor retinaculum. After traversing the extensor retinaculum space, the tendon inserts into the posterior aspect of the base of the third metacarpal bone.Extensor carpi radialis brevis is innervated directly by the radial nerve (C5- C8), or sometimes from its deep branch/posterior interosseous nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.The muscle is vascularized by the radial recurrent artery, radial artery and deep brachial artery (via its radial collateral branch).Extensor carpi radialis brevis works together with extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis longus to extend the hand at the wrist joint. This action is vital in a sequence of muscle contractions needed for clenching a fist or making a grip. When performing these functions, wrist extension blocks the flexor muscles from on acting upon the hand. Instead, flexors act only on the digits, thereby flexing them and producing an effective hand grip, such as that seen in a tennis backhand. When the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle contracts together with extensor carpi radialis longus and flexor carpi radialis, it contributes to producing hand abduction (radial deviation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal features of acute...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal features of acute inflammation:

      Your Answer: Discharge

      Explanation:

      Classic signs:Rubor (redness)Calor (heat)Dolour (pain)Tumour (swelling)Functio laesa (loss of function)These classic signs are produced by a rapid vascular response and cellular events. The main function of these events is to bring elements of the immune system to the site of injury and prevent further tissue damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 21 year old student presents to the emergency room with severe acute...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old student presents to the emergency room with severe acute asthma. Salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebuliser are prescribed. The most appropriate dose of salbutamol that should be prescribed initially for this patient is which of the following?

      Your Answer: 5 mg every 15 - 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      The first line treatment for acute asthma is high-dose inhaled short-acting beta2-agonists like salbutamol or terbutaline. Oxygen use should be reserved for hypoxemic patients in order to maintain oxygen saturations of 94 – 98%. In patients with moderate to severe asthma, a pressurised metered dose inhaler with spacer device is preferred (4 puffs initially, followed by 2 puffs every 2 minutes according to response, up to 10 puffs, whole process repeated every 10 – 20 minutes if necessary). For patients with life-threatening features or poorly responsive severe asthma, the oxygen-driven nebuliser route is recommended (salbutamol 5 mg at 15 – 30 minute intervals). In patients with severe acute asthma that is poorly responsive to initial bolus dose, continuous nebulisation should be considered (salbutamol at 5 – 10 mg/hour). For those in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably, the intravenous route is usually reserved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement...

    Correct

    • A patient with pronounced tremor, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slowness of movement is brought in by his family. He has a long history of mental health issues for which he is currently treated with a variety of medications.Which of the medications listed below is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Acute dyskinesias and dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia (rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw), Parkinsonism (tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity), akinesia, akathisia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are all examples of extrapyramidal side effects. They are caused by dopamine depletion or blockade in the basal ganglia; this lack of dopamine frequently mimics idiopathic extrapyramidal pathologies.The first-generation antipsychotics, which are strong dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, are the drugs most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Haloperidol and fluphenazine are the two drugs in this class that are most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Extrapyramidal adverse effects are less common in second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., olanzapine) than in first-generation antipsychotics.Other drugs are linked to extrapyramidal symptoms as well, but at a lower rate. Some antidepressants, lithium, various anticonvulsants, antiemetics, and, in rare cases, oral contraceptive agents are among them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The ECG of a patient presenting with a history of intermittent palpitations has...

    Correct

    • The ECG of a patient presenting with a history of intermittent palpitations has a prolonged QT interval.Which of these can cause prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG?

      Your Answer: Hypomagnesaemia

      Explanation:

      The causes of a prolonged QT interval include:HypomagnesaemiaHypothermiaHypokalaemia HypocalcaemiaHypothyroidism Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (autosomal dominant)Romano Ward syndrome (autosomal recessive)Ischaemic heart diseaseMitral valve prolapseRheumatic carditisErythromycinAmiodaroneQuinidineTricyclic antidepressantsTerfenadineMethadoneProcainamideSotalol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where: Capillary hydrostatic pressure is (P c) Hydrostatic pressure in the interstices is (P I...

    Incorrect

    • Where: Capillary hydrostatic pressure is (P c) Hydrostatic pressure in the interstices is (P I )Plasma oncotic pressure is (π p) Interstitial oncotic pressure is (π i)Which of the following formulas best represents fluid flow at the capillary bed?

      Your Answer: Volume / min = (π p - π i ) + (P c - P i )

      Correct Answer: Volume / min = (P c - P i ) - (π p - π i )

      Explanation:

      Starling’s equation for fluid filtration describes fluid flow at the capillary bed.Filtration forces (capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial oncotic pressure) stimulate fluid movement out of the capillary, while resorption forces promote fluid movement into the capillary (interstitial hydrostatic pressure and plasma oncotic pressure). Although the forces fluctuate along the length of the capillary bed, overall filtration is achieved.At the capillary bed, there is fluid movement.The reflection coefficient (σ), the surface area accessible (S), and the hydraulic conductance of the wall (Lp) are frequently used to account for the endothelium’s semi-permeability, yielding:Volume / min = LpS [(Pc- Pi) –  σ(πp– πi)]Volume /min = (Pc-Pi) – (πp–πi) describes the fluid circulation at the capillaries.Where:Pc= capillary hydrostatic pressurePi= interstitial hydrostatic pressureπp= plasma oncotic pressureπi= interstitial oncotic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      108.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The weight distribution in a group of patients included in a study was...

    Incorrect

    • The weight distribution in a group of patients included in a study was normal. The patients averaged 80 kg in weight. 5 kg was determined to be the standard deviation. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this group of patients:

      Your Answer: 95% of the patients will weigh between 75 and 85 kg.

      Correct Answer: 68% of the patients will weigh between 75 and 85 kg.

      Explanation:

      We can estimate the range of values that would be anticipated to include particular proportions of observations if we know the mean and standard deviation of a collection of normally distributed data: 68.2 percent of the sample results fall within a one SD range above and below the mean (+/- 1 SD), implying that 68 percent of the patients will weigh between 75 and 85 kg. Because +/- 2 SD encompasses 95.4 percent of the data, around 95 percent of the patients will weigh between 70 and 90 kg. +/- 3 SD encompasses 99.7% of the values, implying that nearly all of the patients will weigh between 65 and 95 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip adduction, but normal hip flexion. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Pectineus

      Explanation:

      The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old woman with history of gastritis and reflux esophagitis tested positive for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman with history of gastritis and reflux esophagitis tested positive for Helicobacter pylori infection. Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori is considered true?

      Your Answer: It is helix shaped

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori is a curved or helix-shaped, non-spore forming, Gram-negative, microaerophilic bacteria. It is motile, having multiple flagella at one pole. It has a lipopolysaccharide component in its outer membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A fracture on which of the following structures is associated with a posterior...

    Incorrect

    • A fracture on which of the following structures is associated with a posterior elbow dislocation?

      Your Answer: Olecranon

      Correct Answer: Radial head

      Explanation:

      Fracture dislocations of the elbow appear extremely complex, and identification of the basic injury patterns can facilitate management. The simplest pattern of elbow fracture dislocation is posterior dislocation of the elbow with fracture of the radial head. Addition of a coronoid fracture, no matter how small, to elbow dislocation and radial head fracture is called the terrible triad of the elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient sustains an injury to the proximal median nerve after falling through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustains an injury to the proximal median nerve after falling through a glass door. Which of the following muscles would you not expect to be affected:

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      All of the muscles in the anterior forearm are innervated by the median nerve, except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus which are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      16.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Physiology (1/3) 33%
Physiology (1/4) 25%
Anatomy (4/8) 50%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Infections (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (2/4) 50%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Passmed