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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a primary action of calcitonin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a primary action of calcitonin:

      Your Answer: Decreased bone resorption through inhibition of osteoclast activity

      Explanation:

      Calcitonin is a 32 amino acid polypeptide that is primarily synthesised and released by the parafollicular cells (C-cells) of the thyroid gland in response to rising or high levels of plasma Ca2+ions. Its primary role is to reduce the plasma calcium concentration, therefore opposing the effects of parathyroid hormone.Secretion of calcitonin is stimulated by:- Increased plasma calcium concentration- Gastrin- Pentagastrin- The main actions of calcitonin are:- Inhibition of osteoclastic activity (decreasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)- Stimulation of osteoblastic activity- Decreases renal calcium reabsorption- Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following study designs is considered the most appropriate to safely...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following study designs is considered the most appropriate to safely determine whether an association exists between a well-established, commonly used, anti-hypertensive medication and causing type II diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: A double-blind randomised controlled trial

      Correct Answer: A meta-analysis

      Explanation:

      Evidence-based medicine may be defined as the systematic, quantitative, preferentially experimental approach to obtaining and using medical information. Therefore, meta-analysis, a statistical procedure that integrates the results of several independent studies, plays a central role in evidence-based medicine.Meta-analysis is a quantitative, formal, epidemiological study design used to systematically assess previous research studies to derive conclusions about that body of research. Outcomes from a meta-analysis may include a more precise estimate of the effect of treatment or risk factor for disease, or other outcomes, than any individual study contributing to the pooled analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the abductor pollicis longus, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It forms part of the thenar eminence

      Correct Answer: It extends the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint

      Explanation:

      Abductor pollicis longus is a muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It is one of the five deep extensors in the forearm, along with the supinator, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis.Abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), which is a continuation of the deep branch of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.Blood supply to the abductor pollicis longus muscle comes from the interosseous branches of the ulnar artery.Acting alone or with abductor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus pulls the thumb away from the palm. More specifically, it produces (mid-) extension and abduction of the thumb at the first metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is seen in activities such as bowling and shovelling.Working together with the long and short extensors of the thumb, the muscle also helps to fully extend the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joint. This action is important for loosening the hand grip, for example, when letting go of objects previously being held. Abductor pollicis longus also helps to abduct the hand (radial deviation) at the radiocarpal joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up.Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?

      Your Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose

      Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea

      Explanation:

      Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used.Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution.Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly.It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia.The equations used to calculate osmolarity are:Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)OROsmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following does not increase renal phosphate excretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not increase renal phosphate excretion?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      PO43-renal excretion is regulated several mechanisms. These include:-parathyroid hormone – increases excretion by inhibiting reabsorption in the proximal tubule-acidosis – increases excretion-glucocorticoids – increases excretion-calcitonin – increases excretion-activated vitamin D – decreases excretion by increasing reabsorption in the distal tubule

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding the refractory period, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the refractory period, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Action potentials can occur in the relative refractory period but the amplitude of the action potential is smaller.

      Explanation:

      Following the action potential, Na+channels remain inactive for a time in a period known as the absolute refractory period where they cannot be opened by any amount of depolarisation. Following this there is a relative refractory period where the temporary hyperpolarisation (due to delayed closure of rectifier K+channels) makes the cell more difficult to depolarise and an action potential can be generated only in response to a larger than normal stimulus. The refractory period limits the frequency at which action potentials can be generated, and ensures that, once initiated, an action potential can travel only in one direction. An action potential is an all or nothing response so the amplitude of the action potential cannot be smaller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A clinical audit cycle comprises of 5 steps. Each of these processes are...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical audit cycle comprises of 5 steps. Each of these processes are listed below:Which is the correct order that these should occur?1. Observation of practice and collection of data2. Identification of the problem3. Implementation of change4. Definition of criteria and setting of standards5. Analysis of data and comparison of performance with the criteria and standards

      Your Answer: 1,5,2,4,3

      Correct Answer: 2,4,1,5,3

      Explanation:

      An audit assesses if a certain aspect of health care is attaining a recognized standard. This lets care providers and patients know where their service is doing well, and where there could be improvements. The aim is to achieve quality improvement and improve outcomes for patients.Audits are a quality improvement measure and one of the 7 pillars of clinical governance. It allows organizations to continually work toward improving quality of care by showing them where they are falling short, allows them to implement improvements, and reaudit or close the audit cycle to see if beneficial change has taken place.Clinical audits are a cycle with several steps:1. Identification of the problem2. Definition of criteria and setting of standards3. Observation of practice and collection of data4. Analysis of data and comparison of performance with the criteria and standards5. Implementation of change

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presents with a fever, headache and neck stiffness. A CSF sample...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a fever, headache and neck stiffness. A CSF sample of someone with meningococcal meningitis typically shows:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      CSF analysis typically shows: cloudy turbid appearanceraised WCC – predominantly neutrophilshigh proteinlow glucose (typically < 40% of serum glucose)Gram-negative diplococci seen under microscopy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Fenestrated capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Correct

    • Fenestrated capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer: Renal glomeruli

      Explanation:

      Fenestrated capillaries, found in renal glomeruli, endocrine glands and intestinal villi, are more permeable than continuous capillaries with less tight junctions, and the endothelial cells are also punctured by pores which allow large amounts of fluids or metabolites to pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - After collapsing at home, a 62-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 62-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is rushed to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which reveals ventricular tachycardia. An amiodarone infusion is set up.Which of these statements about amiodarone is correct?

      Your Answer: Metabolism is increased by co-ingestion of grapefruit juice

      Correct Answer: It is expressed in breast milk

      Explanation:

      Antiarrhythmic drug amiodarone is used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III antiarrhythmic that works by prolonging the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, where potassium permeability is normally high and calcium permeability is low.Dronedarone is sometimes used instead of amiodarone in certain situations. Although amiodarone is more effective than dronedarone, dronedarone has fewer side effects.Grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of amiodarone.The plasma half-life of amiodarone is very long, ranging from 2 weeks to 5 months. The half-life is about 2 months on average.Because amiodarone is excreted in breast milk, it should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D:

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Calcium deficiency (low Ca2+ diet or hypocalcemia) activates 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the cells of the renal proximal tubule which catalyses the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypophosphatemia also stimulate the enzyme. Chronic renal failure is associated with a constellation of bone diseases, including osteomalacia caused by failure of the diseased renal tissue to produce the active form of vitamin D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microbes adheres to the genital mucosa using fimbriae:

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Infection of the genital mucosa by Neisseria gonorrhoeae involves attachment to and invasion of epithelial cells. Initial adherence of gonococci to columnar epithelial cells is mediated by type IV pili assembled from pilin subunit PilE proteins and pilus tip-associated PilC proteins, it then invades the epithelial layer, triggering a local acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and...

    Incorrect

    • A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and rigours shortly after the transfusion begins. The following are her observations: Temperature 40°C, HR 116 bpm, BP 80/48, SaO 2 97 percent on air.Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Bacterial infections are common in the following situations:Platelet transfusions are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infection (as platelets are stored at room temperature)Immersion in a water bath thawed previously frozen components.Components of red blood cells that have been stored for several weeksGram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have both been linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are linked to a higher rate of morbidity and mortality.Yersinia enterocolitica is the most common bacterial organism linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection. This organism can multiply at low temperatures while also utilising iron as a nutrient. As a result, it’s well-suited to proliferating in blood banks.The following are some of the most common clinical signs and symptoms of a bacterial infection transmitted through a blood transfusion. These symptoms usually appear shortly after the transfusion begins:Fever is very high.Rigours and chillsVomiting and nauseaTachycardiaHypotensionCollapse of the circulatory systemIf a bacterial infection from a transfusion is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped right away. Blood cultures and a Gram stain should be requested, as well as broad-spectrum antibiotics. In addition, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank for an urgent culture and Gram-stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - When calculating the ventilation over perfusion ratio of a male patient, you should...

    Correct

    • When calculating the ventilation over perfusion ratio of a male patient, you should remember the ideal V/Q ratio for this patient to compare with his results. What is the approximate ventilation value for a healthy male patient?

      Your Answer: 5 L/min

      Explanation:

      The ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q ratio) is a ratio used to assess the efficiency and adequacy of the matching ventilation and perfusion. The ideal V/Q ratio is 1. In an average healthy male, the ventilation value is approximately 5 L/min and the perfusion value is approximately 5 L/min. Any mismatch between ventilation and perfusion will be evident in the V/Q ratio. If perfusion is normal but ventilation is reduced, the V/Q ratio will be less than 1, whereas if ventilation is normal but perfusion is reduced, the V/Q ratio will be greater than 1. If the alveoli were ventilated but not perfused at all, then the V/Q ratio would be infinity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in patients with which of the...

    Correct

    • Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in patients with which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?

      Your Answer: The ‘set point’ is a wide range of values within which normal function occurs

      Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors

      Explanation:

      Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism.Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors. The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs.The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system. The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.Which...

    Correct

    • A patient is complaining of painless jaundice. His bilirubin levels are abnormally high.Which of the following statements about bile is correct?

      Your Answer: Bile acids are amphipathic

      Explanation:

      The liver produces bile on a constant basis, which is then stored and concentrated in the gallbladder. In a 24-hour period, around 400 to 800 mL of bile is generated.Bile is involved in the following processes:Fats are broken down into fatty acids.Waste products are eliminated.Cholesterol homeostasis is the balance of cholesterol in the body.The enteric hormones cholecystokinin and secretin are primarily responsible for bile secretion. When chyme from an unprocessed meal enters the small intestine, they are released, and they play the following function in bile secretion and flow:Cholecystokinin promotes gallbladder and common bile duct contractions, allowing bile to reach the intestine.Secretin enhances the secretion of bicarbonate and water by biliary duct cells, increasing the amount of bile and its flow into the gut.Bile acids have a hydrophobic and hydrophilic area, making them amphipathic. Bile acids’ amphipathic nature allows them to perform the following crucial functions:Emulsification of lipid aggregates increases the surface area of fat and makes it easier for lipases to digest it.Lipid solubilization and transport: solubilizes lipids by creating micelles, which are lipid clumps that float in water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is where the rectovesical fascia is located:

      Your Answer: Between the fundus of the bladder and the ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      In a triangular area between the vasa deferentia, the bladder and rectum are separated only by rectovesical fascia, commonly known as Denonvillier’s fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in which of the following locations: ...

    Incorrect

    • Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in which of the following locations:

      Your Answer: Ventral horn of spinal cord segments - C7 - T12

      Correct Answer: Brainstem and pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones originate in the brainstem from which they run in cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X and also from the second and third sacral segments of the spinal cord. Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones release acetylcholine into the synapse, which acts on cholinergic nicotinic receptors on the postganglionic fibre. Parasympathetic peripheral ganglia are generally found close to or within their target, whereas sympathetic peripheral ganglia are located largely in two sympathetic chains on either side of the vertebral column (paravertebral ganglia), or in diffuse prevertebral ganglia of the visceral plexuses of the abdomen and pelvis. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurones release acetylcholine, which acts on cholinergic muscarinic receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:...

    Correct

    • The 'bucket handle' movement of the thoracic wall describes which of the following movements:

      Your Answer: The middles of the shafts of the ribs moving upwards and laterally

      Explanation:

      Because the middles of the shafts of the ribs are lower than either the anterior or posterior end, elevation of the ribs also moves the middles of the shafts laterally. This ‘bucket handle’ upwards and lateral movement increases the lateral dimensions of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      41.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine (2/2) 100%
Physiology (6/10) 60%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/2) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed