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  • Question 1 - Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of...

    Correct

    • Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.

      Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:
      – Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.
      – Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:
      Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft.

      Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.

      Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:
      – Salivation
      – Lacrimation
      – Urination
      – Diaphoresis
      – Gastrointestinal upset
      – Emesis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28
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  • Question 2 - A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father has passed away recently at the age of 48 and found to have HOCM during post mortem examination. On examination of this patient his BP was 142/84 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. There was a mid systolic murmur and a double apex beat. Echocardiography showed a septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm. What is the factor most closely linked to his 20 year risk of sudden cardiac death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm

      Explanation:

      There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
      -family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
      -unexplained recent syncope
      -large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
      -multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
      -hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed following a suspected oesophageal variceal haemorrhage. He has been resuscitated and intravenous terlipressin has been given. His blood pressure is now 104/60 mmHg and his pulse is 84/min. What is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic variceal band ligation

      Explanation:

      The correct course of action after giving terlipressin and resuscitating with IV fluids is to perform an EGD with endoscopic variceal band ligation. According to NICE: ‘Offer endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices. There are serious complications of a TIPS procedure and it is not the first line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

      Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
      Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
      Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 5 - A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of them secreted pinkish fluid while some were crusted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HSV1

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of acute gingivostomatitis, which is a manifestation of primary HSV-1 infection. Patients present with gingivitis and vesicular lesions which develop on the oral mucosa, tongue, and lips and later rupture and coalesce, leaving ulcerated plaques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 55 yr. old man presented with retrosternal chest pain associated with excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 yr. old man presented with retrosternal chest pain associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. On examination his BP was 100/60 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. Bibasal crepitations were auscultated. His ECG showed ST elevation in V1 to V4 and ST depression in leads II, III and aVF. Which of the following would be the finding during angioplasty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete occlusion of the left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The ECG findings are suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction and the most likely artery affected is the left anterior descending artery. Occlusion of the right coronary artery will be shown by ST elevation in lead II, III, aVF and occlusion of the circumflex artery will show changes in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. To have ST elevation, there should be complete occlusion of the artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked, drowsy and confused. He is known to be type-2 diabetic maintained on metformin. Blood tests reveal a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 24 mmol/l. Ketones are not significantly elevated and random blood glucose was 8.7 mmol/l. What is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rehydration

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is occasionally responsible for metabolic acidosis in diabetics. It may occur in the presence of normal blood levels of the ketone bodies, and such cases are often described as having “non-ketotic diabetic acidosis.
      It is most commonly associated with tissue hypoperfusion and states of acute circulatory failure.
      Appropriate measures include treatment of shock, restoration of circulating fluid volume, improved cardiac function, identification of sepsis source, early antimicrobial intervention, and resection of any potential ischemic regions. Reassessment of lactate levels for clearance assists ongoing medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed: Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 2.9 mmol/L, Chloride 114 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 75 µmol/L, Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 9 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 11 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (<60 mg. dL−1) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (may be >700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 26 yr. old male was being investigated further following several hypertensive episodes....

    Incorrect

    • A 26 yr. old male was being investigated further following several hypertensive episodes. There was a marked difference in his systolic blood pressures between the right brachial and the right femoral arteries. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      From the given physical findings (the difference in BP between the radial and femoral arteries), the most probable diagnosis is coarctation of the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
      Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
      – Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
      – Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
      – Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
      – Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen

      Explanation:

      As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 3 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. On exploring this further, she is concerned because of the high number of migrating birds that she can see in her garden. She reports that the presence of her husband's socks on the washing line in the garden alerted her to this. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Based on the given clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is acute paranoid schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old female diagnosed with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis complains of pain and redness...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female diagnosed with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis complains of pain and redness in the right eye. Which part of the eye is causing these symptoms in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sclera

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Scleritis is a painful inflammatory condition of the sclera in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It might be diffuse, nodular, or necrotizing in nature. This occurs mostly in the sixth decade of life and mostly when the rheumatoid disease is in remission. Sclera is the first ocular manifestation in a patient of rheumatoid arthritis. This inflammation might later spread to the adjacent ocular structures like the cornea, causing keratitis, the uveal tract causing uveitis and the lens causing cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin (PGI2) generated by the vascular wall is a potent vasodilator, and the most potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet aggregation so far discovered. Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cyclic AMP levels. Prostacyclin is a circulating hormone continually released by the lungs into the arterial circulation. Circulating platelets are, therefore, subjected constantly to prostacyclin stimulation and it is via this mechanism that platelet aggregability in vivo is controlled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 19 - Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence: ...

    Incorrect

    • Randomised control trials offer the following level of evidence:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ib

      Explanation:

      1B: Individual Randomised Control Trial (with narrow confidence intervals)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder visits the office for a review. He is reluctant to try cognitive behavioural therapy. Which medication could be useful in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was initially developed in 1987 for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is guided by the Adaptive Information Processing model. EMDR is an individual therapy typically delivered one to two times per week for a total of 6-12 sessions, although some people benefit from fewer sessions. Sessions can be conducted on consecutive days.

      Drug treatments (paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline or phenelzine) should be considered for the treatment of PTSD when a sufferer expresses a preference to not engage in trauma-focused psychological treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration of vision and dazzling of view in well lit environments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis leading to this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cataract is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye. This condition most frequently occurs due to age-related degenerative processes in the lens, but can also be associated with ocular trauma, metabolic disorders, side-effects of drugs, or congenital infections. The clouding causes distortion of light, as it passes through the lens, resulting in visual impairment and glare. Initially, a cataract presents discretely and may even go unnoticed, but the visual impairment worsens as the cataract grows larger.

      Diagnosis is typically established on the basis of a thorough history and direct visualization of the cataract (by means of slit-lamp microscopy). Surgery is indicated with significant visual impairment and involves lens extraction and implantation of an artificial lens. Untreated cataracts eventually lead to complete blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 28 year old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that these attacks have been recurrent over the past 4 years. She has been treated previously with oral acyclovir but this has had little effect on the duration of her symptoms. Over the past year, she has noticed almost weekly attacks of mouth ulcers that heal slowly. Past medical history is significant for treatment of thrombophlebitis two years ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet disease is a rare vasculitic disorder that is characterized by a triple-symptom complex of recurrent oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis. The systemic manifestations can be variable. Ocular disease has the greatest morbidity, followed by vascular disease generally from active vasculitis. Cutaneous manifestations can occur in up 75% of patients with Behcet disease and can range from acneiform lesions, to nodules and erythema nodosum. GI manifestations can be severe. Differentiating Behçet disease from active inflammatory bowel disease can be clinically difficult. Herpes would have ideally responded to acyclovir. Sarcoidosis does not have genital and oral ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 70-year-old gentleman who has been suffering from multiple myeloma for the past 3 years. He presents with lethargy, muscle aches and pain in his lower back.   Arterial blood sampling reveals a metabolic acidosis. Serum potassium is 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), and urine pH is 5.1 (> 5.3).   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis-type II

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely RTA type II, due to decreased proximal bicarbonate reabsorption, which leads to metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hyperchloremia, and <6 urine pH .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 24 - A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for 2 hours. Which of the following ECG findings is an indication for thrombolysis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads

      Explanation:

      Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with evidence of ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI) or presumably new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) presenting within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if there are no contraindications to fibrinolysis. STEMI is defined as new ST elevation at the J point in at least two contiguous leads of 2 mm (0.2 mV) or more in men or 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in women in leads V2-V3 and/or 1 mm (0.1 mV) or more in other contiguous limb leads.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 65 yr. old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of 40 bpm. Which of the following answers is associated with the least risk of asystole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: exfoliative skin rash

      Explanation:

      Clostridium species do not present with an exfoliative skin rash. C. perfringens is a common aetiology in necrotizing infections (gas gangrene) as well as food poisoning, which often also includes diarrhoea. C. difficle causes diarrhoea. C. tetany and C. botulinum have neurotoxins that can lead to paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are graphical tools to assess and compare clinical performance of a group of care professionals or care institutions on a quality indicator against a benchmark. Incorrect construction of funnel plots may lead to erroneous assessment and incorrect decisions potentially with severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of feeling generally unwell, with fatigue, arthralgia and pruritis. She had recently finished a 5 day course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection but there was no other significant past medical history. She had no significant findings on clinical examination except for a widespread erythematous rash. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 12.6 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 13.0 × 109/l (eosinophilia) Platelets 390 × 109/L, Creatinine 720 μmol/L, Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 22.0 mmol/L, Urinalysis Protein ++ blood + What is the most important investigation to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of drug-induced acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis with the classic triad of symptoms of rash, joint pain and eosinophils in the blood, associated with non-specific symptoms of fever and fatigue. This can be confirmed with renal biopsy showing interstitial oedema with a heavy infiltrate of inflammatory cells and variable tubular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a large swollen right knee, after playing football with his son. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee joint. What should be the most appropriate first step of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous factor IX concentrate

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (Christmas disease), is the deficiency of clotting factor IX and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The factor IX level dictates the disease severity and established arthropathy is usually seen in those with severe disease.

      The aforementioned patient’s history and presentation is consistent with the development of hemarthrosis. Joint aspiration is not recommended. The treatment, therefore, should be intravenous replacement of the deficient clotting factor with plasma-derived factor IX concentrate.

      The other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Joint aspiration is not preferred over the administration of clotting factor as the first step of management.
      2. DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase factor VIII levels transiently in those with mild haemophilia A and is useful prior to minor surgical procedures in such patients.
      3. Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor and is used in the treatment of haemophilia A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms

      Explanation:

      Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation

      -Sinus node dysfunction
      -Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
      -Chronic bifascicular block
      -After acute phase of myocardial infarction
      -Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
      -Post cardiac transplantation
      -Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
      -Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
      -Patients with congenital heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
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