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Question 1
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the clinic with symmetrical polyarthritis affecting her fingers, wrists and elbows. She also reports significant morning stiffness which lasts for up to 90 minutes and is finding it very difficult to get up for work in the morning. There is a history of deep vein thrombosis during her second pregnancy, but no other significant past medical history. Her only medication of note is the oral contraceptive pill.
On examination, she has evidence of active synovitis affecting her wrists and the small joints of her fingers.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 193 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Rheumatoid factor Positive
Anti-nuclear factor Weakly positive
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis: Differential Diagnosis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a common autoimmune disorder that affects the joints, causing morning stiffness and small joint polyarthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor is present in 70% of patients, while anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis and can be useful in rheumatoid factor-negative cases.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, seronegative arthritis, and polymyalgia rheumatica. However, in this case, there are no other features to suggest SLE, one episode of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is insufficient to suggest antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, the patient is seropositive for rheumatoid factor ruling out seronegative arthritis, and there is no story of proximal muscle pain which could be suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica. Therefore, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is most likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a swollen and painful first metatarsophalangeal joint that has been bothering him for a week. He reports that the pain became unbearable last night. The patient denies any fever or toe injuries. Upon examination, the joint appears red, swollen, and warm to touch. The patient has a history of gout, peptic ulcer, and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg once a day for gout prophylaxis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine
Explanation:Managing Gout Attacks in Patients on Allopurinol: Options and Considerations
When a patient on allopurinol develops a gout attack, it is important to manage the acute inflammation while continuing the prophylactic treatment. Here are some options and considerations:
– Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine: Colchicine can be used for acute treatment, but allopurinol should not be stopped.
– Increase allopurinol dose: The dose may need to be increased up to 600 mg for better prophylaxis, but not during an acute attack.
– Stop allopurinol and recommence two weeks after acute inflammation settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. It should be continued at the same dose.
– Stop allopurinol and start non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): NSAIDs can control acute pain, but not appropriate for patients with a history of peptic ulcer.
– Stop allopurinol and recommence at a higher dose after acute inflammation has settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. The dose can be reviewed and increased after the attack has settled down.In summary, managing gout attacks in patients on allopurinol requires a careful balance between acute treatment and prophylaxis. Each option should be considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
What could be the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies
The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.
Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis
Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her long-standing seropositive arthritis affecting her hands, knees, and hips. Her arthritis is linked to another chronic condition she also experiences.
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) arthritis
Explanation:Seropositive and Seronegative Arthritis: Types and Characteristics
Seropositive arthritis is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid factor, an antibody targeted against the Fc portion of immunoglobulins. While rheumatoid factor can be present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seropositive SLE generally indicates more severe disease progression. On the other hand, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and enteropathic arthritis are all seronegative arthritis, meaning that rheumatoid factor is classically not present.
Reactive arthritis is usually precipitated by a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection occurring before the onset of arthritic symptoms. The classic triad of reactive arthritis is conjunctivitis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, and urethritis. The condition may be self-limiting, but in some patients, it may become chronic or recur frequently.
Psoriatic arthritis is classically found in patients with psoriasis, but in around 1 in 6 people, it may present many years before psoriatic skin symptoms. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of an inflammatory nature characterized by sacroiliac joint involvement and linked to the HLA-B27 antigen. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects the spine and lower limb joints. Approximately 1 in 5 people with inflammatory bowel disease will develop the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.
She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)
Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)
Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)
Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)
Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)
Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)
Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)
Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)
Arterial blood gases on air:
pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)
pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)
pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)
ECG Sinus tachycardia
Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe
Urinalysis:
Blood +++
Protein ++
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mixed connective tissue disease
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.
When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old teacher presents with complaints of lethargy and widespread aches and pains, particularly in the shoulders and hands. She has been absent from work for the past 5 months due to her symptoms. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Despite a brief course of steroids and anti-inflammatory medication, she has not experienced any improvement. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points in different muscle groups, but no evidence of joint disease. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:Understanding Fibromyalgia and Differential Diagnosis
Fibromyalgia is a functional condition that affects voluntary muscles, commonly presenting in females aged 20-40 years. It is characterized by multiple trigger points over soft tissues in the neck, intrascapular region, and spine, along with poor sleep patterns and fatigue. While there is no known cure, patients are encouraged to establish a regular sleep pattern and participate in a graded exercise program. Differential diagnosis is important to exclude other rheumatological conditions that may present similarly but have different treatment options. Polymyalgia rheumatica, polymyositis, hypothyroidism, and systemic lupus erythematosus are some of the conditions that need to be ruled out. Steroids are the mainstay of treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica, while hypothyroidism presents with different symptoms such as constipation, dry hair, and weight gain. Systemic lupus erythematosus typically presents with a butterfly rash over the face and other symptoms such as anaemia, pleuritic chest pain, and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Man with Purpura and Haematuria
The patient in question presents with a purpuric rash on the back, buttocks, and extensor surfaces of the lower limbs, as well as haematuria. The following is a differential diagnosis of possible conditions that could be causing these symptoms.
Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
The clinical presentation is entirely typical of HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria. It should be noted that platelet numbers are usually normal or raised in HSP, so thrombocytopaenia is not expected.Haemophilia A
This condition is not likely as it results in joint and muscle bleeding, which is not present in this case. Additionally, haemophilia would not cause haematuria.Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
While purpura is a symptom of ITP, a reduced platelet count is typically present. Without a discussion of platelet levels, it is difficult to justify a diagnosis of ITP. Additionally, ITP would not result in haematuria.Leukaemia
If acute leukaemia were causing the symptoms, thrombocytopaenia might be expected. However, the clinical presentation is more compatible with HSP, and thrombocytopaenia alone would not result in haematuria.Thalassaemia trait
There is no indication in the history to suggest this condition, and it would not result in purpura. Thalassaemia trait is typically asymptomatic.In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen and painful left thumb. The pain came on rapidly over the course of 24 hours, without history of trauma or injury. The patient describes the thumb as being extremely painful and particularly tender to touch. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, which is well controlled with metformin. He does not smoke, but drinks around ten pints of beer at weekends.
Examination reveals a swelling, erythema and tenderness over the first metacarpophalangeal joint. The clinician suspects a possible crystal arthropathy.
With regard to gout, which of the following statements is true?Your Answer: Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:Mythbusting Gout: Clarifying Common Misconceptions
Gout is a painful and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about gout, and the truth behind them:
1. Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia.
2. Gout may occur in those with elevated urate levels (although levels may be normal during an acute attack) such as those with haemolytic anaemia.
3. Gout only affects the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.
4. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, it is not the only joint affected.
5. Allopurinol is effective in the treatment of acute gout.
6. Acute gout is treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine or prednisolone, but not allopurinol. Allopurinol is effective in the prevention of gout because it reduces serum urate levels by blocking urate production (xanthine oxidase inhibition).
7. A diagnosis of gout is made if there are positively birefringent crystals in the joint aspirate.
8. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis that occurs as a result of deposition of negatively birefringent urate crystals in the joint.
9. All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate.
10. Although a raised serum urate can be used to support the diagnosis, many will not be raised. Similarly, if a patient has a raised serum urate, they do not automatically have the clinical picture of gout.In conclusion, it is important to dispel these common myths about gout in order to properly diagnose and treat this painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral ankle and wrist pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 5 days. She complains of fatigue and feelings of lack of energy. She mentions a dry cough and shortness of breath on exertion, lasting for more than a year. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits, except for the presence of a mild fever. There are several reddish, painful, and tender lumps on the anterior of the lower legs. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar masses of ,1 cm in diameter.
Which of the following test results is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer: Elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA)
Correct Answer: Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Explanation:Differentiating between Elevated Serum Markers in a Patient with Arthropathy and Hilar Lymphadenopathy
The presence of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy in a patient can be indicative of various underlying conditions. In this case, the patient’s elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses.
Elevated serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is a common finding in sarcoidosis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with or without pulmonary fibrosis is the most typical radiological sign of sarcoidosis. Additionally, acute arthropathy in sarcoidosis patients, known as Löfgren syndrome, is associated with erythema nodosum and fever.
On the other hand, elevated cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA) is present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with necrotising granulomatous lesions in the upper and lower respiratory tract and renal glomeruli. It is not typically associated with hilar lymphadenopathy.
Hyperuricaemia and elevated double-stranded (ds) DNA antibody are not relevant to this case, as they are not associated with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperglycaemia is also not a factor in this case.
In conclusion, the combination of arthropathy and hilar lymphadenopathy can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Elevated serum markers can help differentiate between potential diagnoses, such as sarcoidosis and GPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old known intravenous (iv) drug user presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fever, morning stiffness, and joint pain. The patient reports a constant, dull pain in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints bilaterally, with an intensity of 3/10. Her medical history is unremarkable, but her family history includes a skin condition and rheumatoid arthritis. The patient consumes 15 alcoholic units per week and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.1 °C. The DIP joints are warm and swollen, and there is symmetric nail pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's current presentation?
Your Answer: Gram positive cocci on synovial fluid analysis
Correct Answer: Appearance of a silver, scaly rash
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritides: Understanding Clinical and Laboratory Findings
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, and it can be challenging to distinguish between the various types that exist. However, by considering the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis.
For instance, psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory subtype of arthritis that often affects the DIP joints, sausage digits, and nails. The classic X-ray finding of psoriatic arthritis is the pencil in a cup appearance, although it is not specific to the disease. In contrast, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by PIP and MCP joint involvement, wrist and cervical spine pain, and positive rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.
Septic arthritis is a medical emergency that usually involves large joints and is associated with high fever, chills, and rapid joint destruction. Synovial fluid analysis may reveal Gram-positive cocci in cases of septic arthritis caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative joint disease that is associated with subchondral cyst formation, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation. It typically affects the DIP and PIP joints and large weight-bearing joints, but it is not an inflammatory arthritis.
In summary, understanding the clinical and laboratory findings associated with different types of arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of warm, swollen, and painful knuckles, as well as large subcutaneous nodules near her elbows. She also reports experiencing joint stiffness lasting more than an hour in the morning. Upon examination, her PIP joints are hyperextended, and her DIP joints are flexed. If a biopsy were performed on the nodules, what would be the most likely histological appearance?
Your Answer: Darkly pigmented synovium with an exuberant, villous growth
Correct Answer: Fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells
Explanation:Differentiating Connective Tissue Pathologies: Histological Characteristics
Connective tissue pathologies can present with a variety of clinical features, making it important to understand their histological characteristics for accurate diagnosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by swan neck deformity, subcutaneous nodules, and enlarged knuckles. The histological composition of subcutaneous nodules is areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells.
Gouty tophi, on the other hand, present as an amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages.
A cystic space caused by myxoid degeneration of connective tissue is more typical of a ganglion cyst.
Nodular tenosynovitis is a well-encapsulated nodule of polygonal cells within a tendon sheath.
Lastly, pigmented villonodular synovitis is characterized by a darkly pigmented synovium with an exuberant, villous growth.
Understanding the histological characteristics of these connective tissue pathologies can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis
Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student midwife presents with increasing pain and swelling of the ring finger of her left hand. The pain and swelling started two days ago and is now extremely uncomfortable to the point the patient has been avoiding using the left hand altogether. She cannot remember injuring the affected area, and is usually fit and well, without medical conditions to note except an allergy to peanuts.
On examination, the affected finger is markedly swollen and erythematosus, with tenderness to touch – especially along the flexor aspect of the finger. The patient is holding the finger in slight flexion; attempts at straightening the finger passively causes the patient extreme pain. The patient is diagnosed with tenosynovitis.
About which one of the following conditions should the presence of acute migratory tenosynovitis in young adults, particularly women aged 20, alert the doctor?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Correct Answer: Disseminated gonococcal infection
Explanation:Migratory tenosynovitis can be caused by disseminated gonococcal infection in younger adults, particularly women. It is important to test for C6-C9 complement deficiency. Rheumatoid arthritis can also cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory and is usually found in the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. Scleroderma can cause tenosynovitis, but it is not migratory either. Fluoroquinolone toxicity may increase the risk of tendinopathy and tendon rupture, but it does not cause migratory tenosynovitis. Reactive arthritis can cause tendinitis, but it is more prevalent in men and is not migratory. It is a rheumatoid factor-seronegative arthritis that can be linked with HLA-B27.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents for review, complaining of pain in his knees. There is also stiffness in his fingers and he finds it difficult to use his computer. There is a history of hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 10 mg, and type II diabetes, for which he takes metformin. He had been given a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis some years ago but has had no recent symptoms. On examination, he has a body mass index (BMI) of 34; blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and he has swelling and bony deformity of both knees. There is crepitus and anterior knee pain on flexion. Examination of the hands reveals Heberden’s nodes.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 120 g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Rheumatoid factor Negative
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
X-ray of both knees reveals reduced joint space, subchondral sclerosis and cyst formation and osteophytes within the joint space.
Which of the following fits best with the diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:The woman in the picture appears to have osteoarthritis, which is commonly seen in overweight individuals affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees. The changes in her hands also suggest osteoarthritis. Treatment options include weight reduction, pain relief medication like paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, or knee replacement surgery. Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as her ESR and rheumatoid factor are normal. Seronegative arthritis is also unlikely as it is associated with raised inflammatory markers, which are not present in this case. Enteropathic arthropathy is unlikely as there are no recent symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease. Osteoporosis is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause knee or finger pain, but rather presents following a fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.
Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.
Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.
Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.
Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old construction worker complains of worsening pain in his feet over the past two weeks, describing it as feeling like he is walking on gravel. He also reports experiencing lower back pain.
The patient recently returned from a trip to Spain two months ago and recalls having a brief episode of urethral discharge, but did not seek medical attention for it.
What is a possible diagnosis?Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is characterized by a combination of symptoms including seronegative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The condition is often associated with sacroiliitis and painful feet, which reflects plantar fasciitis. Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella, as well as following non-specific urethritis.
Gonococcal arthritis, on the other hand, tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis. It is important to note that reactive arthritis is not contagious and cannot be spread from one person to another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms
A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 35-year-old male executive presents to you after being referred from the Emergency department. He has been experiencing a painful and swollen left knee for the past 24 hours. He denies any history of joint problems or trauma. Additionally, he has noticed redness and soreness in both eyes over the last two days. He is a non-smoker, married, and consumes about 10 units of alcohol weekly. He recently returned from a business trip to Amsterdam two weeks ago.
During examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, and he has a brown macular rash on the soles of his feet. His left knee is hot, swollen, and tender to palpate, while no other joint appears to be affected.
Investigations reveal Hb 129 g/L (130-180), WBC 14.0 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 75 mm/hr (0-15), Plasma sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144), Plasma potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Plasma urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Blood cultures without growth after 48 hours, and Urinalysis without blood, glucose, or protein detected. Knee x-ray shows soft tissue swelling around the left knee.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is typically characterized by a combination of three symptoms: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and seronegative arthritis. This type of arthritis usually affects the large weight-bearing joints, such as the knee and ankle, but not all three symptoms are always present in a patient. Reactive arthritis can be triggered by either a sexually transmitted infection or a dysenteric infection. One of the most notable signs of this condition is the appearance of a brown macular rash known as keratoderma blennorrhagica, which is usually seen on the palms and soles.
The main treatment for reactive arthritis involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These medications can help to alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with the condition. Additionally, antibiotics may be prescribed to individuals who have recently experienced a non-gonococcal venereal infection. This can help to reduce the likelihood of that person developing reactive arthritis. Overall, the symptoms and treatment options for reactive arthritis can help individuals to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:NSAIDs for Gout Treatment
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and night sweats. He reported feeling generally down. Upon further questioning, he mentioned experiencing stiffness and pain in his shoulders and neck, particularly in the morning and lasting for about half an hour.
What would be the most appropriate investigation to perform in this case?Your Answer: Muscle biopsy
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnosis of Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that causes pain and stiffness in proximal muscle groups, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. While other potential diagnoses such as infections or neoplasia should be considered, PMR is typically characterised by raised levels of inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Treatment with corticosteroids usually results in rapid improvement, and lack of response to steroids may indicate a need to re-evaluate the diagnosis. Autoantibody screening and nerve conduction velocity tests are not helpful in diagnosing PMR, while muscle biopsy may be performed to exclude polymyositis. A temporal artery biopsy may be considered if the patient has symptoms of giant cell arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old retired general practitioner (GP) has been experiencing increasing swelling and tenderness of the right knee. Symptoms have been progressively worsening over four days. There is no history of trauma, and he has had no similar symptoms previously. The patient suspects that he may have pseudogout of the knee.
What is the most common tissue for calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition in patients with pseudogout?Your Answer: Cartilage
Correct Answer: Synovium
Explanation:Sites of Crystal Deposition in Pseudogout
Pseudogout is a condition characterized by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in various tissues of the body. The most common site of deposition is the synovial fluid, which can lead to joint inflammation and pain. However, CPPD crystals can also be deposited in other tissues such as cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and bursae.
Cartilage is another common site for CPPD crystal deposition, and pseudogout is also known as chondrocalcinosis. Deposition in the ligaments and tendons is possible but less common than in the synovium. Bursae deposition is also possible but less common than synovium deposition.
In summary, while CPPD crystals can be deposited in various tissues in pseudogout, the synovium is the most common site of deposition, followed by cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and bursae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness, fatigue, weight loss, and elevated ESR levels?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differentiating between Rheumatic Diseases: A Case Study
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly population, presenting as pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips. In contrast, polymyositis is an autoimmune connective tissue disease that results in proximal muscle weakness. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells, causing bone pain, renal failure, and anaemia. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory, symmetrical polyarthropathy that tends to cause joint stiffness and pain within the small joints, as well as causing fatigue. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative arthritis that commonly affects the knee, hip, spine, and hands.
In this case study, the patient presented with shoulder stiffness, fatigue, low-grade fever, and anaemia. A diagnosis of PMR was made clinically and with the aid of a raised ESR. Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which should be reduced gradually once symptoms are controlled to avoid the risks of chronic steroid use.
It is important to differentiate between these rheumatic diseases as they have different underlying causes, presentations, and treatments. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations are necessary for accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with the doctor, the doctor observed a rash on both cheeks. A kidney biopsy sample showed deposits of immunoglobulin, C3, and fibrinogen in the basement membrane. Her serum analysis revealed elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that predominantly affects young women. It is characterized by a photosensitive butterfly-shaped rash on the face and joint manifestations. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, SLE does not cause severe destruction of joints. SLE is a multisystem condition that can affect many systems, including haematological, renal, respiratory, and cardiac systems. The underlying pathological mechanism of damage in SLE is immune complex deposition, which produces antibodies against several nuclear components of the body, especially against double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and dsDNA are associated with SLE, as is a low C3 and C4. The immunoglobulin, C3 and fibrinogen deposits found in this patient are classic of the immune complex deposition seen in SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness that improves with physical activity. As she enters her 30s, she develops arthritis in her hips and shoulders, and by her 40s, she notices reduced mobility in her lumbar spine. She has no significant medical issues. What condition is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:The symptoms described suggest a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, a chronic form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton. Diagnosis is made using the modified New York criteria, which includes clinical and radiological criteria. HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis on MRI play a major role in the recently proposed ASAS diagnostic algorithm. Radiographic sacroiliitis is required for eligibility for anti-TNF treatment. Other conditions, such as pseudogout, Lyme disease, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis, are unlikely diagnoses. Timely diagnosis requires a high index of suspicion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman had chronic inflammatory disease that affected her spine, sacroiliac joints and large peripheral joints. X-rays confirmed a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.
The majority of patients with this disease are positive for which one of the following molecules?Your Answer: HLA-Cw6
Correct Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:The Role of Human Leukocyte Antigens in Autoimmune Diseases
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) play a crucial role in the development of autoimmune diseases. Different HLAs are associated with specific autoimmune conditions. For example, HLA-B27 is present in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis, as well as reactive arthritis and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-Cw6 is associated with psoriasis vulgaris, while HLA-B8 is linked to hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease). HLA-DR4 is associated with rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes mellitus, and HLA-DR2 is linked to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in Japanese people, multiple sclerosis, and Goodpasture syndrome. Understanding the role of HLAs in autoimmune diseases can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease has been experiencing lower back pain, stiffness, and buttock pain for the past six months. He notices that his pain improves after playing squash on Saturdays. He has tested positive for HLA-B27 and his blood tests, including C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate, are normal except for a mild hypochromic microcytic anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Arthritis: Ankylosing Spondylitis, Osteoarthritis, Prolapsed Intervertebral Disc, Reactive Arthritis, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the sacroiliac joints, causing pain and stiffness that improves with exercise. It may also involve inflammation of the colon or ileum, which can lead to inflammatory bowel disease in some cases. The presence of the HLA-B27 gene is often associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is unlikely in younger individuals and is not linked to bowel disease. Prolapsed intervertebral disc is characterized by severe lower back pain and sciatica, but stiffness is not a typical symptom. Reactive arthritis is usually triggered by a recent GI illness or sexually transmitted infection and is associated with arthritis, a psoriatic type rash, and conjunctivitis. Finally, rheumatoid arthritis rarely affects the sacroiliac joints as the primary site. It is important to understand the differences between these types of arthritis to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which joint is usually spared from osteoarthritis?
Your Answer: First metacarpophalangeal joint
Correct Answer: Elbow joint
Explanation:Osteoarthritis in the Hand and Elbow
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a prevalent form of arthritis that commonly affects the hand, particularly the joints. The joints may exhibit several deformities, including the development of small bone spurs called nodes. These nodes are referred to as Heberden’s nodes when they occur at the joint next to the fingernail and Bouchard’s nodes when they occur at the middle joints. The base of the thumb may also appear squared off, accompanied by swelling and tenderness. Soft tissue laxity can result in instability at the base of the thumb.
In contrast, elbow OA is relatively uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Correct
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You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history of recurrent episodes of asymmetrical joint pains involving his knees, ankles and elbows. Two to four joints tend to be affected at any one time and each joint may be affected from two to four weeks each time.
In the last decade he has also had recurrent painful mouth sores. On this occasion, he also complains of a severe occipital headache, mild abdominal pain and some discomfort on passing urine.
On examination, his temperature is 38°C. His left knee and right ankle joints are painful, swollen and tender. Superficial thrombophlebitis is noted in the right leg.
Investigations show:
Hb 99 g/L (130-180)
WCC 11.6 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
ESR 60 mm/hr (0-15)
Plasma sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
Plasma potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Plasma urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Plasma creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)
Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Behçet's syndrome
Explanation:Behçet’s Syndrome
Behçet’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms. These symptoms include recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, seronegative arthritis, central nervous system symptoms, fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. The condition is often marked by periods of exacerbations and remissions, which can make it difficult to manage.
One of the most common symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome is the presence of oral and genital ulcers that recur over time. These ulcers can be painful and may make it difficult to eat or engage in sexual activity. Uveitis, or inflammation of the eye, is another common symptom of the condition. This can cause redness, pain, and sensitivity to light.
Seronegative arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that does not show up on blood tests, is also associated with Behçet’s syndrome. This can cause joint pain and stiffness, as well as swelling and inflammation. Central nervous system symptoms, such as headaches, confusion, and seizures, may also occur.
Other symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome include fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. These symptoms can vary in severity and may come and go over time. Managing Behçet’s syndrome can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many people are able to live full and active lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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