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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an outstretched hand and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to Accident and Emergency and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture. The skin is intact and there is only minor swelling below the elbow, with normal distal pulses.
Which of the following problems is this child most likely to experience?Your Answer: Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist)
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Supracondylar Humeral Fractures
Supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, depending on the location and severity of the fracture. The following are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:
1. Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion: This is most likely due to damage to the median nerve, which innervates these fingers and the flexors in the forearm.
2. Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder: This is unlikely to be caused by a closed supracondylar fracture, as the cutaneous innervation in that area is a branch of the axillary nerve.
3. Atrophy of the extensor muscles of the forearm: This is a result of damage to the radial nerve, which is responsible for the extensor mechanisms of the arm.
4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is most likely due to an ulnar nerve injury, which could occur due to an injury of the medial humeral epicondyle.
5. Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist): This is caused by lack of circulation in the forearm due to brachial artery damage, leading to tissue death and fibrosis of the muscles. However, this diagnosis can be ruled out if there are distal pulses and lack of excessive swelling.
In summary, supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, and it is important to identify and manage them appropriately to prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after injuring his right upper arm while playing at the park. According to his friend who witnessed the incident, the boy fell off the monkey bars and landed on his right side. The boy is experiencing significant pain and is hesitant to move his arm.
What is the most frequent observation in patients with a Salter-Harris fracture?Your Answer: Fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis
Explanation:Understanding Salter-Harris Fractures: Types and Characteristics
Salter-Harris fractures are a common type of injury in children that involve the growth plate. These fractures are classified into five different types based on their characteristics. The most common type is a type II fracture, which involves a fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis. This type of fracture occurs in up to 75% of all Salter-Harris fractures.
Another type of fracture is a transverse fracture through the growth plate, which is relatively rare and occurs in approximately 5% of all cases. A crush fracture, known as a Salter-Harris type V, is an uncommon type of injury that damages the growth plate by direct longitudinal compression. This type of fracture carries a poorer prognosis than the other classes.
It is important to note that Salter-Harris fractures can only occur in children before the fusion of the physis and must involve the growth plate by definition. However, greenstick fractures, which are incomplete fractures that only involve one of the bony cortices, do not affect the growth plate and are not included in the classification.
In summary, understanding the different types and characteristics of Salter-Harris fractures is crucial in diagnosing and treating these injuries in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Infraspinatus
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries
The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.
The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.
The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.
The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.
The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.
Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.
Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl attends the Minor Injuries Unit, having ‘twisted’ her left ankle during a hockey match. She played on after the injury and has come to see you after the game ended, as her ankle has become increasingly swollen and painful.
She has walked into the Emergency Department unaided. There is marked swelling around the left ankle. There is some tenderness anterior to the lateral malleolus. Otherwise, there is no bony tenderness on examination of the ankle, foot and knee.
Select the most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Arrange an X-ray of the foot
Correct Answer: Advise analgesia, rest, ice and elevation, then discharge the patient
Explanation:Management of Ankle Sprains in the Emergency Department
Ankle sprains are a common presentation in the Emergency Department. The initial management of ankle sprains involves analgesia, rest, ice and elevation. X-ray imaging is not indicated unless the patient meets the Ottawa ankle rules, which include the inability to weight-bear and point tenderness at specific areas.
In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for X-ray imaging and can be discharged with standard therapy for sprains. Compressive bandaging is no longer recommended, and first-line therapy should include paracetamol and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
The patient’s symptoms and signs suggest an injury of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL), which is commonly damaged in inversion injuries of the ankle. Referral to orthopaedics is not necessary at this time, and ankle traction is not indicated unless there is an obvious deformity or displaced fracture.
In summary, the management of ankle sprains in the Emergency Department involves careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and adherence to the Ottawa ankle rules to determine the need for X-ray imaging. Standard therapy for sprains should include analgesia, rest, ice and elevation, with consideration of first-line pharmacotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand. He had a similar incident to the previous patient, where he fell onto an outstretched hand while playing basketball. He is experiencing pain in the wrist, particularly below the thumb. X-rays are taken, including AP, lateral, and scaphoid views, but no fracture is seen.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Application of a sling
Correct Answer: Application of a scaphoid plaster and sling
Explanation:Application of Scaphoid Plaster and Sling for Fracture Treatment
A scaphoid fracture is typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in pain over the base of the thumb. Although special views of the scaphoid are required to confirm the injury, treatment is necessary in the absence of radiographic findings. A scaphoid plaster and sling are commonly used for immobilization, and the plaster should be removed after 14 days for repeat X-rays. If a fracture is detected, a new cast is applied, and a follow-up appointment is scheduled in four weeks. However, if no evidence of a fracture is found, the patient may have suffered a sprain, and no further follow-up is necessary unless symptoms persist. To avoid unnecessary immobilization, a CT or MRI scan may be ordered, with MRI being more sensitive. Slings are not recommended for scaphoid fractures. Repeat X-rays should be taken in 10-14 days, as bone resorption around the fracture allows for better visualization. Discharging the patient without further action is not recommended, as scaphoid fractures may not be immediately apparent and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?
Your Answer: Medial circumflex femoral
Explanation:Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance
The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.
The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury sustained during a football game. He cannot recall the exact cause of the injury. During the examination, you note a positive McMurray's's test and tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. What imaging modality would be the most beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer: MRI scan of the knee
Explanation:Best Imaging Modality for Knee Injury: MRI Scan
When a patient presents with knee pain, a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, a young patient with a positive McMurray’s’s test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint suggests a lateral meniscal tear. The best imaging modality for this patient is an MRI scan of the knee. This scan allows for visualization of soft tissues in the knee, making it more sensitive than a CT scan or X-ray. An ultrasound scan may also be useful for diagnosing soft tissue injuries, but a joint aspirate would not be indicated. A CT scan with contrast would not be helpful in this situation. Overall, an MRI scan is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing a knee injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old accountant complains of chronic pain on the lateral aspect of his right elbow that worsens during tennis, particularly when executing a backhand. Upon examination, it is observed that the pain is triggered by resisted wrist extension while the elbow is fully extended.
Which muscle attachment is likely to be affected?Your Answer: Extensor carpi radialis longus
Correct Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
Explanation:Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis: The Role of Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB)
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a prevalent overuse injury that causes tendinosis and inflammation at the origin of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) muscle. While several muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the elbow, the ECRB is the most commonly affected in this condition.
Repetitive pronation and supination with the elbow in extension can cause microtears at the ECRB origin, leading to inflammation and even radial nerve entrapment syndrome. Radiographs are usually normal, and an MRI may show increased signal intensity at the ECRB tendon, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.
Non-operative treatment, including activity modification, rest, ice, NSAIDs, and physical therapy, is successful in 95% of patients. However, it may take up to a year to be effective. Operative release and debridement of the ECRB origin are only considered in rare cases when non-operative treatment fails.
While other muscles, such as the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and anconeus, also attach to the lateral epicondyle, they are less likely to be involved in lateral epicondylitis. Understanding the role of the ECRB in this condition can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a suspected hip fracture after falling down the stairs at home. Upon examination, his left leg appears shortened and externally rotated. His vital signs are stable. X-rays are ordered and reveal an intracapsular neck of femur fracture. The patient is also found to have previous fractures, which he was not aware of. A bone mineral densitometry (BMD) scan is requested to determine if the patient has osteoporosis.
What T score value on BMD indicates a diagnosis of osteoporosis?Your Answer: < -2.5
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Osteoporosis: Definition, Diagnosis, and Management
Osteoporosis is a common bone disease characterized by a loss of bone mineral density, micro-architectural deterioration of bone tissue, and increased risk of fracture. This article provides an overview of osteoporosis, including its definition, diagnosis, and management.
Peak bone mass is achieved between the ages of 20 and 40 and falls afterwards. Women experience an acceleration of decline after menopause due to estrogen deficiency, resulting in uncoupling of bone resorption and bone formation. Osteoporosis in men is less common and often has an associated secondary cause or genetic risk factors.
Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T score falls to below −2.5, whereas T scores between −1.0 and −2.5 are indicative of osteopenia. Values of BMD above −1.0 are regarded as normal. Management includes lifestyle advice and drug treatments such as bisphosphonates, hormone replacement therapy, calcium and vitamin D replacement supplements, calcitonin, raloxifene, parathyroid hormone, strontium ranelate, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to understand osteoporosis, as it is the most common reason for fractures among the elderly. Lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking are common risk factors for developing osteoporosis. Regular bone density screenings and appropriate management can help prevent fractures and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the right kneecap. The patient reports difficulty bending the knee, and the symptoms are impacting his ability to work.
Based on the history and examination, the clinician suspects a diagnosis of 'housemaid's knee'.
'Housemaid's knee' is characterized by inflammation of the:Your Answer: Popliteus bursa
Correct Answer: Prepatellar bursa
Explanation:Bursae of the Knee: Locations and Causes of Inflammation
The knee joint is surrounded by several small fluid-filled sacs called bursae, which act as cushions between bones, tendons, and muscles. However, these bursae can become inflamed due to repetitive stress or injury, causing pain and discomfort. Here are some of the bursae located around the knee joint and their associated conditions:
1. Prepatellar bursa: This bursa is located between the skin and the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repeated friction, such as in professions that require prolonged kneeling.
2. Popliteus bursa: This bursa lies between the popliteus tendon and the lateral condyle of the tibia and can become inflamed due to overuse or injury.
3. Suprapatellar bursa: This bursa can be felt during a knee exam and may become inflamed due to trauma or infection.
4. Infrapatellar bursa: This bursa is located below the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repetitive kneeling, hence the name clergyman’s knee.
5. Semimembranous bursa: This bursa is located at the back of the knee and can become inflamed due to injury or underlying conditions such as arthritis.
In conclusion, understanding the locations and causes of knee bursitis can help individuals take preventive measures and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 12
Correct
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An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the last 3 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints is noted. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. No biochemical abnormalities were detected on blood tests.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be affecting this patient?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritis: Understanding the Symptoms and Characteristics of Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Gout, and Osteomyelitis
Arthritis is a broad term that encompasses various conditions affecting the joints. It is important to differentiate between different types of arthritis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some characteristics and symptoms of common types of arthritis:
Osteoarthritis: This is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, particularly with ageing. It is characterized by erosion and loss of articular cartilage. Patients may experience deep, achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of movement. Osteoarthritis is an intrinsic disease of articular cartilage, not an inflammatory disease.
Pseudogout: Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease, this condition is more common in elderly people. It typically affects the knee joint and can cause acute attacks with marked pain, accompanied by meniscal calcification and joint space narrowing.
Rheumatoid arthritis: This condition typically involves small joints of the hands and feet most severely, and there is a destructive pannus that leads to marked joint deformity. It presents more with an inflammatory arthritis picture, with significant morning stiffness and pain that eases with activity.
Gout: A gouty arthritis is more likely to be accompanied by swelling and deformity, with joint destruction. The pain is not related to usage. In >90% of presentations, only one joint is affected, and in the majority of cases, that joint is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe.
Osteomyelitis: This represents an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Additionally, patients are usually systemically unwell with signs of infection present.
Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of different types of arthritis can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a match. The tournament doctor evaluates him on the sideline and the player reports difficulty with raising his arm. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the patient is unable to initiate abduction of the arm, but is able to continue the motion when the doctor assists with a few degrees of abduction.
What is the probable reason for the player's symptoms?Your Answer: Supraspinatus tear
Explanation:The patient is experiencing difficulty initiating abduction of their affected arm, but is able to actively complete the range of motion if the initial stages of abduction are performed for them. This is consistent with a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, which is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The supraspinatus is responsible for the initial 15 degrees of abduction, after which the deltoid muscle takes over. In contrast, damage to the infraspinatus or teres minor muscles would typically affect lateral rotation or adduction, respectively. A tear in the subscapularis muscle, which is responsible for adduction and medial rotation, is a possible diagnosis given the patient’s symptoms. Dysfunction in the deltoid muscle or axillary nerve would prevent full abduction of the arm, but this is not the case for this patient. Deltoid tears are rare and usually associated with traumatic shoulder dislocation or large rotator cuff injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a lag screw fixation of a medial malleolar fracture. The student attempts to remember the structures in the vicinity of the medial malleolus.
Which of the following is correct?Your Answer: The great saphenous vein lies posterior to the medial malleolus
Correct Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure passing behind the malleolus
Explanation:Anatomy of the Medial Malleolus: Clarifying Structures Passing Behind
The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass behind it, and their precise arrangement can be confusing. Here are some clarifications:
– The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most posterior structure passing behind the malleolus.
– The structures passing behind the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are: the tendon of the tibialis posterior, the tendon of the flexor digitorum longus, the posterior tibial vein, the posterior tibial artery, the tibial nerve, and the flexor hallucis longus.
– The tendon of the flexor digitorum longus lies immediately posterior to that of the tibialis posterior.
– The great saphenous vein passes in front of the medial malleolus where it can be used for emergency venous access.
– The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies anterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle.
– The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately anterior to the tibial nerve in this region.Understanding the anatomy of the medial malleolus and the structures passing behind it is important for medical professionals who may need to access or treat these structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and swollen knee joint. The issue began approximately 24 hours ago. His temperature is currently 38.2°C and blood cultures have been collected and sent for testing. During the examination, the knee is extremely sensitive, and the pain is causing limited mobility. This patient has no significant medical history and this is his first occurrence of this type of problem.
What would be your next course of action?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Correct Answer: Aspirate knee joint and send for cell count, microscopy and culture
Explanation:Management of Acutely Hot and Swollen Knee Joint: Aspiration, Antibiotics, and Arthroscopy
Any patient presenting with an acutely hot and swollen joint should be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise. To diagnose and treat this condition early, the knee joint should be aspirated and the aspirate should be analyzed for white cells and microorganisms. IV antibiotics are necessary after the knee joint has been aspirated to increase the yield of the knee aspiration. Blood cultures have already been taken and further cultures are not required at this stage. An ultrasound scan of the knee may reveal increased joint fluid and swelling suggestive of infection or inflammation, but it will not confirm any infection. After the knee aspiration, if there was any pus, an arthroscopy and washout of the joint should be done to clear the joint of the infective fluid and protect the articular junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?Your Answer: Weakness of wrist flexion of the left hand
Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function
Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall from a horse. She complains of pain in the left lower limb.
Examination of the patient reveals dry mucous membranes and tachycardia. Her left thigh is swollen and tender, and an X-ray confirms fracture of the left femur.
Which of the following statements regarding a fracture of the femur is CORRECT?Your Answer: Fracture of the femoral neck just distal to the head (subcapital fracture) is not associated with avascular necrosis of the head of the femur.
Correct Answer: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft are typically associated with shortening of the limb.
Explanation:Femoral Fractures: Myths and Facts
Femoral fractures are common and can have serious consequences. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding these injuries. Here are some facts to help dispel these myths:
Myth: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft do not cause limb shortening.
Fact: Unimpacted fractures of the femoral shaft are typically associated with shortening of the limb due to muscle contractions.Myth: Subcapital fractures of the femoral neck do not cause avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Fact: Intracapsular fractures of the femoral neck can disrupt the blood supply to the femoral head and cause avascular necrosis.Myth: Pertrochanteric fractures of the femur are always associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Fact: Pertrochanteric fractures lie outside of the line of attachment of the hip joint capsule and are not typically associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.Myth: Closed fractures of the femoral shaft do not cause significant blood loss.
Fact: Fractures of the femoral shaft can cause significant blood loss into the soft tissue of the thigh.Myth: Traction splints should always be applied to distal supracondylar fractures of the femur.
Fact: Application of a traction splint to a supracondylar fracture of the distal femur may cause disimpaction of the fracture and damage to the popliteal artery.By understanding the facts about femoral fractures, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An older man tries to lift a heavy shopping bag but experiences sudden pain in his shoulder. As a result, he feels soreness in the area of the greater tuberosity of the humerus. He notices that he cannot initiate abduction when he tries to move his shoulder, but can continue to abduct once the arm is lifted away from his side. The shoulder flexion and extension can be performed normally, and the humerus medial and lateral rotation is also unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis for the tendon injury?
Your Answer: Subscapularis
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:Muscles of the Shoulder: Functions and Roles
The shoulder joint is a complex structure that relies on several muscles to perform its various movements. Here are some of the key muscles involved in shoulder movement and their functions:
Supraspinatus: This muscle initiates the first 15-20 degrees of abduction of the arm. After this point, the middle fibers of the deltoid take over. The supraspinatus is also part of the rotator cuff.
Infraspinatus: Along with the teres minor, the infraspinatus is a lateral rotator of the humerus. It is also part of the rotator cuff.
Deltoid: The deltoid muscle assists with shoulder abduction after the first 15-20 degrees, which is initiated by the supraspinatus.
Subscapularis: This muscle inserts into the lesser tuberosity of the humerus and is a medial rotator of the humerus. It also helps stabilize the shoulder joint as part of the rotator cuff.
Biceps brachii: This muscle is responsible for flexion of the arm and forearm, as well as supination of the forearm. However, it does not play a role in abduction of the humerus.
Understanding the functions and roles of these muscles can help with injury prevention and rehabilitation, as well as improving overall shoulder strength and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68-year-old lady presents following a fall on her outstretched hand (FOOSH). She has marked pain around the wrist joint with bony tenderness on palpation. A wrist X-ray demonstrates a fracture of the distal radius with anterior (palmar) displacement of the distal fragment. There is no neurovascular compromise.
Select the most appropriate initial management option.Your Answer: Referral to orthopaedics for reduction under anaesthetic
Explanation:Treatment Options for Smith’s Fracture
Smith’s fracture, also known as a reverse Colles’ fracture, is a type of wrist fracture where the distal radius fragment is displaced anteriorly/volarly. The following are treatment options for this type of fracture:
Reduction under local anaesthesia: This method is not recommended for best cosmetic and functional results.
Reduction under anaesthetic: This method involves either a manipulation under anaesthetic (MUA) or an open reduction and fixation (ORIF) for best cosmetic and functional results.
Application of a scaphoid cast and referral to Fracture clinic: This method is not indicated for prompt reduction and possibly fixation.
Application of a backslab plaster of Paris cast and referral to Fracture clinic the next day: This method is not appropriate for prompt reduction and possibly fixation.
Application of a backslab plaster of Paris cast and referral to Fracture clinic in 2-6 weeks: This method is not appropriate for prompt reduction and possibly fixation.
Treatment Options for Smith’s Fracture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old diabetic man experiences a gradual burning and tingling sensation in his right hand. He observes that his symptoms are more severe at night, frequently waking him up, and can only be alleviated by hanging his arm outside of the bed. Which nerve compression is likely responsible for this man's symptoms?
Your Answer: Medial cutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Nerve Compression: Symptoms and Special Tests
Nerve compression can cause a range of symptoms, from pain and weakness to numbness and tingling. Here are some key things to know about nerve compression and how it affects different nerves in the body.
The Median Nerve: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The median nerve runs through the carpal tunnel, and compression of this nerve can cause pain, paraesthesiae, and weakness in the distribution of the median nerve. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common condition that can be caused by pregnancy, diabetes, and other factors. Special tests to detect carpal tunnel syndrome include TINel’s sign, Phalen’s test, and motor assessment.
The Radial Nerve: Hand and Arm Pain
Compression of the radial nerve can lead to pain in the back of your hand, near your thumb, and you may not be able to straighten your arm.
The Lateral Cutaneous Nerve: Reduced Sensation
Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve can lead to reduced sensation on the lateral aspect of the forearm.
The Ulnar Nerve: Numbness and Tingling
Compression of the ulnar nerve can lead to numbness and tingling in the fifth finger and half of the fourth finger.
The Medial Cutaneous Nerve: Elbow and Forearm Pain
Compression of the medial cutaneous nerve can lead to pain at the elbow and forearm.
By understanding the symptoms and special tests associated with nerve compression, you can better identify and manage these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor after undergoing a mastectomy to remove a cancerous lump in her breast. She reports experiencing weakness in her left shoulder and difficulty lifting her arm above her head since the surgery. Her husband has also observed that her left scapula is protruding, indicating a winged scapula. Which muscle is likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:Muscles and Scapula Winging: Understanding the Relationship
The serratus anterior muscle plays a crucial role in stabilizing the scapula. Damage to this muscle can result in winging of the scapula, which can be caused by direct damage or damage to the long thoracic nerve. On the other hand, damage to the infraspinatus, deltoid, teres major, or pectoralis minor muscles does not cause winging of the scapula. Understanding the relationship between these muscles and scapula winging can help diagnose and treat injuries or conditions affecting the shoulder and upper back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Meniscal tear
Explanation:A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.
A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.
Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.
Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.
Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
Which one of the following is the most likely injury?Your Answer: De Quervain tenosynovitis
Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear
Explanation:There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.
A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.
De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.
Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman was assaulted with a bat during a domestic altercation. The attack caused an oblique fracture in the middle of the humerus.
Which nerve is most likely to be damaged during a midshaft humeral fracture?Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and runs alongside the deep brachial artery in the spiral groove of the humeral shaft. It is susceptible to damage during midshaft humeral fractures, resulting in loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the hand and weakness in wrist extension. The ulnar nerve is located medially to the radial nerve and is not typically affected by midshaft humeral fractures. However, it can be injured by a fracture of the medial epicondyle, resulting in weakness in wrist flexion and loss of adduction and sensation in the medial aspect of the hand. The axillary nerve branches closer to the shoulder and is prone to injury with shoulder dislocation, causing weakness in the deltoid muscle. The median nerve is not located near the midshaft of the humerus but can be injured in various ways, resulting in sensory and motor deficits. The musculocutaneous nerve passes over the brachialis muscle and can be affected by entrapment or upper brachial plexus injury, causing weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination and sensory loss on the radial aspect of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the A&E with a painful shoulder injury he sustained while playing basketball. Upon examination, you discover an anterior dislocation of his right shoulder. What pre- and post-relocation test must you perform?
Your Answer: Examine radial nerve function in the affected arm
Correct Answer: Examine axillary nerve function in the affected arm
Explanation:Assessing Vascular and Nerve Injury in Anterior Shoulder Dislocation: Important Tests to Consider
When examining a patient with anterior shoulder dislocation, it is crucial to assess for vascular and nerve injury in the affected arm. One way to test nerve function is by assessing sensation in the regimental patch area over the deltoid muscle. An X-ray before and after relocation is necessary to check for fractures and confirm successful reduction. If there is vascular injury, it will be evident from the examination of the limb, and urgent referral to surgeons is required. Checking the brachial pulse is acceptable to assess for vascular injury, and examining axillary nerve function before and after relocation is mandatory. Ultrasound of the affected limb may be helpful in identifying soft tissue injuries, but it is not as crucial as the other tests mentioned. Overall, a thorough assessment of vascular and nerve function is essential in managing anterior shoulder dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in a 24-year-old professional off-road motorcyclist who suffered a complete fracture during a race?
Your Answer: Flexor digitorum longus
Correct Answer: Flexor hallucis longus
Explanation:Muscles and Bony Features of the Foot
The foot is a complex structure that contains numerous muscles and bony features. Here are some important details about the muscles and their attachments:
Flexor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates on the fibula and inserts onto the plantar surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It passes underneath the sustentaculum tali, which has a groove for the tendon of this muscle.
Flexor Hallucis Brevis: This intrinsic muscle of the foot originates from the plantar surface of the cuboid and lateral cuneiform bones and tendon of the tibialis posterior muscle. It inserts on the lateral and medial sides of the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Extensor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the proximal one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and related surface of the lateral tibial condyle. It inserts via dorsal digital expansions into the bases of the distal and middle phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Extensor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates from the middle one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and adjacent surface of the interosseous membrane. It inserts on the dorsal surface of the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Flexor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the medial side of the posterior surface of the tibia and inserts onto the plantar surfaces of the bases of the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Understanding the muscles and bony features of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating foot injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe pain at night due to her osteoarthritis. She has been suffering from this condition for the past 12 years and had a total knee replacement surgery on her right knee last year, which significantly improved her pain. However, for the past two months, she has been experiencing excruciating pain in her left knee. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and peptic ulcer disease and is currently taking 4 g of paracetamol daily. She tried using topical capsaicin last month, which provided some relief, but she is now seeking alternative pain management options. The patient has normal liver function tests and no history of liver disease.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's pain?Your Answer: Add aspirin
Correct Answer: Add codeine
Explanation:Pain Management Options for a Patient with Knee Osteoarthritis
When managing the pain of a patient with knee osteoarthritis, it is important to consider their medical history and current medication regimen. In this case, the patient is already taking non-opioids and topical capsaicin is not providing sufficient relief. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder, the next step would be to add a weak opioid such as codeine or tramadol.
Offering morphine modified-release would not be appropriate as it is a strong opioid and should only be considered after trying a weak opioid first. Aspirin and ibuprofen are not recommended due to the patient’s history of peptic ulcer disease.
While a total knee replacement may ultimately be necessary to alleviate the patient’s pain, a pharmacological approach should be attempted first. This will involve assessing the patient’s fitness for surgery and anesthesia before proceeding with any surgical intervention. By managing the patient’s pain with medication, their quality of life can be improved while they await further treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures
Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:
1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.
2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.
3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.
4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.
While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired labourer visits his General Practitioner complaining of generalised pains in his hands. During the consultation, he mentions that the pain is more severe in the morning and after prolonged use. What clinical indication in his hands indicates the presence of osteoarthritic changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heberden nodes
Explanation:Common Hand Deformities and Their Causes
Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard nodes are bony growths that indicate osteoarthritis in the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. Arachnodactyly is characterized by long, thin fingers and is often seen in patients with Marfan syndrome. Claw hand is caused by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints, usually due to an ulnar nerve lesion. Dupuytren’s contracture results in a flexion deformity of the fingers due to thickening of the palmar fascia, often affecting the little and ring fingers. Trigger finger occurs when nodules form on the tendons, causing them to get caught and leading to difficulty in extending and flexing the finger. All of these conditions can cause pain and discomfort in the hand, and may require medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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