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Question 1
Correct
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What is the most frequently observed condition in PANDAS?
Your Answer: OCD
Explanation:PANDAS: A Disorder Linked to Streptococcal Infections
PANDAS, of Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections, is a condition that affects children who develop sudden onset of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and/of tic disorders like Tourette’s Syndrome after contracting strep infections such as Strep throat of Scarlet Fever. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has identified five criteria for diagnosing PANDAS, including the presence of OCD and/of tic disorder, pediatric onset of symptoms, episodic course of symptom severity, association with group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, and association with neurological abnormalities. The anti streptococcal DNAse B (Anti DNAse-B) titre is commonly used to determine if there is immunologic evidence of a previous strep infection. PANDAS is linked to basal ganglia dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has a 10 year history of treatment resistant bipolar disorder, currently stabilized on lithium. She lives independently but has noticed a gradual weight gain of 10 pounds over the past year and is worried about it.
What is the next step in addressing her weight gain concerns?Your Answer: Advise dietary counselling and exercise
Explanation:To optimize the effectiveness of weight control measures, it is recommended to provide dietary counseling and encourage exercise to patients on clozapine before weight gain occurs. Nonetheless, if the patient is stable on clozapine, these interventions should still be implemented as a first step.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder?
Your Answer: Prevalence is higher in females
Explanation:Children experience a particular symptom more frequently than adults do.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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Among the given options, which delusion is the least probable to be observed during a manic episode?
Your Answer: Belief that people are inserting thoughts into their minds
Explanation:Mood congruent delusions are commonly observed in affective disorders such as depression and bipolar disorder, whereas mood incongruent delusions are more typical of schizophrenia. In mania, psychotic experiences are often consistent with the individual’s mood, which is known as mood congruent. Conversely, mood incongruent psychotic experiences are either unrelated to mood of in opposition to the prevailing mood.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the statistical test that is represented by the F statistic?
Your Answer: Chi squared test
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 6
Correct
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A case-control study was conducted to determine if exposure to passive smoking during childhood increases the risk of nicotine dependence. Two groups were recruited: 200 patients with nicotine dependence and 200 controls without nicotine dependence. Among the patients, 40 reported exposure to parental smoking during childhood, while among the controls, 20 reported such exposure. The odds ratio of developing nicotine dependence after being exposed to passive smoking is:
Your Answer: 2.25
Explanation:Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the most prevalent mental disorder observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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If a woman with a history of mild depression comes to the clinic and reports that she is pregnant, and has been in remission for 5 months after taking sertraline 50mg, what would you suggest?
Your Answer: Reduce to sertraline 25mg and continue
Correct Answer: Withdraw the sertraline and monitor
Explanation:Although sertraline can be used to treat depression during pregnancy, it is important to note that no psychotropic medication is completely safe. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid medication if possible and carefully consider the risk versus benefit. In cases of mild depression, it may be reasonable to explore non-medication options.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of delirium?
Your Answer: Living alone
Explanation:Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established on lithium carbonate, once daily, for prophylaxis of recurrent depression for several years and has had stable levels. She also suffers from ankylosing spondylitis for which she has been prescribed celecoxib for many years. Her lithium level was checked three days prior to her appointment and was 0.6 mmol/L.
When should her next lithium levels be checked?Your Answer: In three months
Explanation:Patients taking lithium should be cautious when using celecoxib, an NSAID that has the potential to elevate lithium levels.
Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the estimated percentage of Japanese children who experience a one-year delay in their reading ability?
Your Answer: 16%
Explanation:Reading Difficulties in Japan: Evidence Against the Myth of Rarity
The prevalence of reading disabilities in a sample of 250 Japanese children aged 8.5-13.4 years was assessed using a standardized reading ability test. The results revealed that 16.4% of the children had a one-year delay in reading ability, while 15.2% had a two-year delay. These findings contradict Makita’s (1968) claim that reading disabilities are rare in Japan. The study highlights the need for further research and support for children with reading difficulties in Japan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about correlation?
Your Answer: Correlation can take any value between 0-10
Correct Answer: Complete absence of correlation is expressed by a value of 0
Explanation:Stats: Correlation and Regression
Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A study examines the benefits of adding an intensive package of dialectic behavioural therapy (DBT) to standard care following an episode of serious self-harm in adolescents. The following results are obtained:
Percentage of adolescents having a further episode
of serious self harm within 3 months
Standard care 4%
Standard care and intensive DBT 3%
What is the number needed to treat to prevent one adolescent having a further episode of serious self harm within 3 months?Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:The number needed to treat (NNT) is equal to 100. This means that for every 100 patients treated, one patient will benefit from the treatment. The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is 0.01, which is the difference between the control event rate (CER) of 0.04 and the experimental event rate (EER) of 0.03.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the diagnosis criteria for depression according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer: A diagnosis of a 'single episode depressive disorder' (ICD-11 6A70) should never be applied to individuals who have ever experienced a manic or hypomanic episodes
Explanation:Individuals who have ever experienced manic or hypomanic episodes should not be diagnosed with a ‘single episode depressive disorder’ (ICD-11 6A70).
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the SCOFF questionnaire?
Your Answer: It is specifically aimed at identifying bulimia nervosa
Correct Answer: The negative predictive value of the SCOFF is 99.3%
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the law that suggests that increasing the number of beds in mental institutions can lead to a decrease in serious crimes and incarceration rates within a society?
Your Answer: Penrose's law
Explanation:Penrose’s Law: Increasing Mental Hospital Beds Can Reduce Crime Rates
In 1939, Lionel Penrose conducted a cross-sectional study across 18 European countries, including the Nordic region. His research revealed a significant inverse relationship between the number of mental hospital beds and the number of prisoners. Additionally, he found a strong negative correlation between the number of mental hospital beds and the number of deaths attributed to murder. Based on his findings, Penrose argued that increasing the number of mental institution beds could potentially reduce serious crimes and imprisonment rates. This theory, known as Penrose’s Law, suggests that providing adequate mental health care can have a positive impact on society’s overall safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Withdrawal reflects enhanced neurotransmission in type A gamma-aminobutyric acid pathways
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine is as effective as benzodiazepines in the acute treatment of the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
Explanation:A study has found that starting with a dose of 800 mg of Carbamazepine per day is just as effective as using Oxazepam for treating acute alcohol withdrawal. However, Phenytoin has been shown to be ineffective in treating seizures related to alcohol withdrawal. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are caused by a decrease in neurotransmission through type A gamma-aminobutyric pathways and an increase in neurotransmission through N-methyl-D-aspartate pathways. For more information, refer to the article Management of Drug and Alcohol Withdrawal by Kosten TR and O’Connor PG in the New England Journal of Medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a mother who experiences feelings of sadness and tearfulness two days after giving birth to her second child, despite having no prior history of mental health issues?
Your Answer: Postpartum depression
Correct Answer: Baby blues
Explanation:Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period
The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.
However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.
Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What intervention has been proven to effectively decrease suicidal behavior?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A young woman with a history of violence is characterized by her probation officer as impulsive and irresponsible. She has been detained for domestic violence against her partner and has several convictions for theft-related crimes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.
The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.
Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.
The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.
The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the recommended initial treatment for a patient with generalised anxiety disorder who has not shown improvement with psychological therapy?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:If Sertraline were included in the list of options, it would be a preferable choice.
Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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To which topic do the McNaughten rules pertain?
Your Answer: Diminished responsibility
Correct Answer: Not guilty by reason of insanity
Explanation:McNaughten held a belief that his safety was in danger from the political party of Prime Minister Peel, leading him to attempt an assassination. However, in the process, he unintentionally caused the death of Peel’s secretary.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the classification of dysthymic disorder according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer: A duration of at least 1 year of symptoms is required for a diagnosis in adults
Correct Answer: Brief periods of normal mood may occur, but these cannot exceed two months to be consistent with a diagnosis
Explanation:Dysthymia is a type of mood disorder characterized by persistent low-grade depressive symptoms that last for at least two years. Although there may be brief periods without symptoms, there has never been a prolonged period of two months of more without symptoms since the onset of the disorder. While treatment for dysthymia can be effective, the results may be modest and short-lived, and the course of the disorder can be challenging. Dysthymia often begins in childhood of adolescence and is associated with a higher likelihood of substance misuse and co-occurring personality disorders, particularly when onset occurs before the age of 21. Co-occurring disorders are common in individuals with dysthymia.
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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After discovering that a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has developed tics while taking lisdexamfetamine, and having previously experienced similar results with methylphenidate, a discussion with the parents leads to the decision to try a different medication. Which of the following options would be the most suitable choice?
Your Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:A long-acting version of methylphenidate is Medikinet XL, which is recommended for ADHD cases where stimulant use leads to complications with tics.
ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is not among the four interpersonal difficulties outlined in IPT?
Your Answer: Role confusion
Explanation:Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.
IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.
The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of 10 year olds affected by encopresis?
Your Answer: 0.04%
Correct Answer: 1.60%
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which subtype of Niemann-Pick disease is typically only seen in adults?
Your Answer: Type D
Correct Answer: Type E
Explanation:Niemann-Pick disease is a group of inherited diseases where lipids accumulate in the cells of the liver, spleen, and brain. Niemann-Pick Type C (NPC) is the most relevant type for psychiatric presentations, with about one-third of cases presenting in adolescence of adulthood. Symptoms include progressive ataxia/dystonia, cognitive decline, and atypical psychotic symptoms. There are four other types of Niemann-Pick disease, each with their own causes and symptoms. Type A and B have a lack of sphingomyelinase and present in early childhood of mid-childhood/adolescence, respectively. Type C has reduced sphingomyelinase activity and can present at any age, with symptoms including enlarged liver and spleen, learning difficulties, seizures, and slurred speech. Type D is a variant of Type C and has similar symptoms. Type E has reduced sphingomyelinase activity and presents in adulthood with similar symptoms to the other types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum levels for different medications. Which of the following falls outside the typical range for an elderly patient?
Your Answer: Valproate 60 mcg/ml
Correct Answer: Lithium - 1.3 mmol/L
Explanation:Here are some possible ways to rewrite the given optimal therapeutic ranges:
– The recommended therapeutic levels for olanzapine are between 20 and 40 nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).
– To achieve optimal treatment outcomes, clozapine levels should be maintained within the range of 350 to 500 ng/mL.
– The therapeutic window for quetiapine spans from 100 to 1000 ng/mL, depending on the patient’s condition and response.
– Valproate therapy is typically effective when the serum concentration falls between 50 and 100 micrograms per milliliter (mcg/mL).Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What does the term diagnostic overshadowing refer to in the context of learning disabilities?
Your Answer: The reluctance of clinicians to diagnose depression in patients with a learning disability
Correct Answer: The assumption that the presence of a learning disability explains the entire patient's behaviour
Explanation:Diagnostic Shadowing: The Danger of Assuming One Condition Explains All
Diagnostic shadowing refers to the risk of assuming that a single condition can account for all of a patient’s behavior of symptoms. This can lead to misdiagnosis and inappropriate treatment. For instance, a patient with a learning disability may be assumed to be aggressive solely due to their disability, when in fact they may have an underlying condition such as schizophrenia that has not been identified. Failing to recognize this underlying condition can result in ineffective treatment and a failure to address the root cause of the patient’s behavior. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for diagnostic shadowing and to consider all possible explanations for a patient’s symptoms. By doing so, they can provide more accurate diagnoses and better care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about St John's Wort?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may cause early development of macular degeneration
Explanation:St John’s Wort, like other antidepressants, can lead to hypomania. While it is generally better tolerated than SSRIs, it is not recommended due to uncertainty about its active ingredient. There are potential risks associated with its use, including early macular degeneration and a risk of bleeding. Common side effects include dry mouth, nausea, constipation, fatigue, dizziness, headache, and restlessness. These considerations are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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