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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

      Your Answer: Injected ketamine

      Correct Answer: Cannabis

      Explanation:

      Class B substances are elevated to the status of Class A when they are administered through injection.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      47.1
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  • Question 2 - What methods have been proven to be successful in addressing problem gambling? ...

    Correct

    • What methods have been proven to be successful in addressing problem gambling?

      Your Answer: Naltrexone

      Explanation:

      Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions

      Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.

      Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      6.2
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  • Question 3 - What factors are known to contribute to false positive outcomes for cannabis on...

    Incorrect

    • What factors are known to contribute to false positive outcomes for cannabis on drug screening tests?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine, bupropion, and metformin

      Correct Answer: Efavirenz, promethazine, and ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Drug Screening

      Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.

      People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.

      Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which item is excluded from the scope of the Misuse of Drugs Act...

    Incorrect

    • Which item is excluded from the scope of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971?

      Your Answer: Minor tranquilizer

      Correct Answer: Amyl nitrite

      Explanation:

      Poppers, also known as liquid gold, amyl of butyl nitrite, are not considered illegal to purchase of possess under the MDA. They are commonly sold in sex shops, joke shops, and other retail locations frequented by young people, such as pubs, clubs, tobacconists, music stores, and clothing shops. While the legality of poppers has not been fully tested in court, the Medicines Control Agency has classified them as a medicine and therefore subject to the Medicines Act 1968. This means that only licensed outlets, such as chemists, are permitted to sell the drug. Additionally, poppers are not regulated under the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016.

      Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)

      The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.

      The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.

      It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.

      Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient in his late 60s with a long standing dependence on alcohol...

    Correct

    • A patient in his late 60s with a long standing dependence on alcohol attends his GP complaining of dizziness and abdominal pain. He explains that he has had a cold for a few days and thinks it may be connected. He attended the substance misuse clinic two weeks ago and was prescribed a medication to help him remain abstinent from alcohol. He assures you that he has been abstinent from alcohol for the past two weeks. Based on his presentation, which of the following would you suspect he has been prescribed by the clinic?:

      Your Answer: Disulfiram

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide and clomethiazole are medications prescribed for managing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 6 - Which statement accurately describes alcohol withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: For hallucinations associated with delirium tremens, haloperidol is the preferred antipsychotic

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing delirium tremens, the initial treatment option should be oral lorazepam. If symptoms persist of the individual declines oral medication, alternative options such as parenteral lorazepam of haloperidol should be offered, as recommended by NICE CG100.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 7 - In Korsakoff syndrome, which aspect of memory is most significantly impacted? ...

    Correct

    • In Korsakoff syndrome, which aspect of memory is most significantly impacted?

      Your Answer: Episodic

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.

      Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 8 - NICE recommends which treatment as the initial approach for opioid detoxification? ...

    Incorrect

    • NICE recommends which treatment as the initial approach for opioid detoxification?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone of buprenorphine.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 9 - What is the most prevalent criminal activity among individuals with drug dependence, as...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent criminal activity among individuals with drug dependence, as reported by the National Treatment Outcomes Research Study (NTORS)?

      Your Answer: Actual bodily harm

      Correct Answer: Shoplifting

      Explanation:

      The majority of individuals in a sample undergoing drug misuse treatment disclosed engaging in criminal activities other than drug possession within the 3 months prior to initiating treatment. Shoplifting was the most frequently reported offense.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 10 - What is the main cannabinoid responsible for the psychoactive effects of cannabis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main cannabinoid responsible for the psychoactive effects of cannabis?

      Your Answer: Tetrahydrocannabinol

      Explanation:

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana, grass, pot, weed, tea, of Mary Jane, is a plant that contains over 60 unique cannabinoids. The primary psychoactive component of cannabis is delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (Delta 9-THC), which is rapidly converted into 11-hydroxy-delta 9-THC, the active metabolite in the central nervous system. Specific cannabinoid receptors, including CB1 and CB2 receptors, have been identified in the body. CB1 receptors are found mainly at nerve terminals, where they inhibit transmitter release, while CB2 receptors occur mainly on immune cells and modulate cytokine release. The cannabinoid receptor is found in highest concentrations in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and cerebellum, with lower concentrations in the cerebral cortex. Cannabis use has been associated with the amotivational syndrome, characterized by apathy, anergy, weight gain, and a lack of persistence in tasks requiring prolonged attention of tenacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 11 - What combination of substances is included in Suboxone? ...

    Correct

    • What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?

      Your Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 12 - A newly admitted elderly patient on the ward attends ward round. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A newly admitted elderly patient on the ward attends ward round. They are found to have been on lorazepam 4 mg QDS for a number of years. Your consultant asks you to convert this to diazepam so that the patient can be slowly weaned off benzodiazepines. Select the correct equivalent dose of diazepam:

      Your Answer: 20mg QDS

      Correct Answer: 40mg QDS

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines and Addiction

      Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognised method for testing illicit substances?

      Your Answer: Urine

      Correct Answer: Nasal mucus

      Explanation:

      Testing for drugs cannot be done through nasal mucus.

      Drug Testing

      There are two main approaches to testing for illicit substances: immunoassays and lab testing. Immunoassays are a cheap and quick screening method, but not very specific. Lab testing is more accurate but time-consuming and expensive. Drug testing can be done through urine, saliva, blood, hair, and sweat, although hair and sweat are rarely used in mental health settings.

      False positives can occur when testing for illicit substances, so it’s important to check that patients are not taking other medications that could produce a false positive result. For example, common medications that can lead to false positive results include dimethylamylamine, ofloxacin, bupropion, phenothiazines, trazodone, and methylphenidate for amphetamines/methamphetamines; sertraline and efavirenz for benzodiazepines and cannabis; topical anesthetics for cocaine; codeine, dihydrocodeine, and methadone for opioids; lamotrigine, tramadol, and venlafaxine for PCP; and amitriptyline, bupropion, buspirone, chlorpromazine, fluoxetine, sertraline, and verapamil for LSD.

      In summary, drug testing is an important tool in mental health settings, but it’s crucial to consider potential false positives and medication interactions when interpreting results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 14 - Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal? ...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is typically not associated with opiate withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 15 - If a disheveled and disoriented homeless man presents with an unsteady gait and...

    Correct

    • If a disheveled and disoriented homeless man presents with an unsteady gait and a lateral rectus palsy, what medication would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 16 - Which statement about phencyclidine intoxication is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about phencyclidine intoxication is accurate?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus is a common feature

      Explanation:

      PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic

      Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.

      PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

      PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following conditions is not a recognized cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not a recognized cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: AIDS

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 18 - What is the most probable cause of withdrawal symptoms in an opioid-dependent patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of withdrawal symptoms in an opioid-dependent patient who has not completed their detox program when starting a particular medication?

      Your Answer: Dihydrocodeine

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old female has been smoking marijuana for 15 years. Her usage has...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female has been smoking marijuana for 15 years. Her usage has gradually escalated and she now spends $150 a day on marijuana which she obtains through theft and shoplifting. She does not consume any other substances and does not excessively drink alcohol. She comes to your clinic for detoxification.
      What is the symptom group that she is least likely to exhibit?

      Your Answer: Anxiety, restlessness, sweating

      Correct Answer: Dilated pupils and diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      The symptom clusters mentioned are commonly associated with cannabis withdrawal, with the exception of dilation of pupils and diarrhea, which are more commonly associated with opiate withdrawal. This has led to calls for cannabis withdrawal to be recognized as a clinically significant issue and included in future diagnostic criteria.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in exploring pharmacological maintenance therapy in conjunction with psychosocial interventions. What would be your recommendation for the most suitable choice?

      Your Answer: Diamorphine

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 21 - A 54 year old man is admitted to hospital following a hip fracture....

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man is admitted to hospital following a hip fracture. In view of a shortage of theatre space his operation is delayed. Three days following admission the nurse becomes concerned by his change in presentation. She has noticed that the man has become increasingly agitated, and has a sustained tachycardia. He has also started complaining that he is hearing people talking about him despite him being in a side room. Which of the following do you most suspect?

      Your Answer: Ganser syndrome

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      The man’s symptoms of agitation and hallucinations could be attributed to a psychotic illness, but the presence of a sustained tachycardia suggests another underlying condition. Based on the delayed presentation and the complete set of symptoms, delirium tremens is the most probable explanation. While meningitis is a possibility, it is less likely than delirium tremens, which is a common condition.

      Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.

      Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 22 - What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine?

      Your Answer: Pupillary dilatation

      Correct Answer: Analgesia

      Explanation:

      PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic

      Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.

      PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.

      PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 23 - A middle-aged man presents to the emergency department with complaints of painful urination....

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man presents to the emergency department with complaints of painful urination. A dipstick test confirms the presence of blood in his urine. He reports using an illegal substance for several months but is unable to recall its name. What is the most probable cause of his urinary symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cannabis

      Correct Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      According to a study published in the Urology journal in May 2007, there have been instances where prolonged use of ketamine has resulted in ulcerative cystitis. This condition is considered a new clinical entity and has been documented in case reports.

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year old woman reported hearing voices instructing her to harm herself. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old woman reported hearing voices instructing her to harm herself. She is currently not employed, having left her job two years ago. What substance is most likely responsible for her dependence?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Amphetamines

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of Schneider’s first rank symptom, which is characterized by actions perceived as influenced of made by external agents. It is important to note that amphetamines can cause drug-induced psychosis, which can mimic schizophrenia. While benzodiazepines are not known to induce schizophrenia, there have been reports of auditory hallucinations during benzodiazepine withdrawal. On the other hand, GHB is not associated with drug-induced schizophrenia, and while opiates may cause hallucinations, they do not typically result in Schneider’s first rank symptoms. It is important to consider the possibility of a dual-diagnosis scenario, where the patient may have both a drug dependency and schizophrenia, which may have been triggered by drug use of stress, but is not solely drug-induced.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 25 - If a woman undergoing methadone detoxification informs you that she is four months...

    Incorrect

    • If a woman undergoing methadone detoxification informs you that she is four months pregnant, what actions should you take?

      Your Answer: Add in a benzodiazepine

      Correct Answer: Maintain the same dose of methadone

      Explanation:

      The process of detoxing from methadone can last for several months, while detoxing from buprenorphine is typically faster and can be completed in less than a week, although it usually takes a few weeks. The primary objective in this scenario is to achieve stability. According to NICE guidelines, stability is prioritized over reducing the dosage. However, if the woman insists, detoxification could be supported during her second trimester, but it would not be the preferred approach.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 26 - What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is utilized to prevent...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the opioid antagonist that is utilized to prevent relapse in individuals who were previously dependent on opioids?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Correct Answer: Naltrexone

      Explanation:

      By acting as an antagonist to opioid receptors, naltrexone inhibits the pleasurable effects of opiates when consumed.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 27 - What patient history factors indicate a diagnosis of Marchiafava-Bignami disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What patient history factors indicate a diagnosis of Marchiafava-Bignami disease?

      Your Answer: High blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Alcoholism

      Explanation:

      Marchiafava-Bignami Disease: A Rare Disorder Associated with Alcoholism and Malnutrition

      Marchiafava-Bignami disease is a rare condition that is commonly observed in individuals with alcoholism and malnutrition. The disease is characterized by the progressive demyelination and subsequent necrosis of the corpus callosum, which can lead to a range of nonspecific clinical symptoms such as motor of cognitive disturbances. The course of the disease can be either acute of chronic, and patients may experience dementia, spasticity, dysarthria, and an inability to walk. The outcome of the disease is unpredictable, with some patients lapsing into a coma and dying, while others may survive for many years in a demented state, of even recover.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old male patient is brought to the local Accident and Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient is brought to the local Accident and Emergency Department by a family member. He has a history of alcohol dependence. Over the past few hours, the patient has been experiencing confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations. He also has a fever, is experiencing a rapid heartbeat, and has high blood pressure. The family member informs you that the patient recently made the decision to quit drinking.
      When was the patient's last alcoholic drink most likely consumed?

      Your Answer: 4-7 days ago

      Correct Answer: 48-72 hours

      Explanation:

      The vignette depicts delirium tremens (DTs), which is characterized by confusion, hallucinations, and autonomic hyperactivity. Typically, these symptoms appear 2 to 3 days after cessation of alcohol consumption and can worsen over the next few days. Mild withdrawal symptoms such as anxiety, tremors, headache, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, and sweating may occur within 6 hours of stopping drinking. Hallucinations may occur 12-24 hours after cessation, and seizures may occur within 24 to 48 hours.

      Benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide, are commonly used to treat alcohol withdrawal, with a reducing regime. Lorazepam, due to its short half-life, is preferred as the first-line treatment for DTs. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess alcohol withdrawal.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 29 - What is true about acamprosate? ...

    Correct

    • What is true about acamprosate?

      Your Answer: It acts as a glutamatergic NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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  • Question 30 - What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as stated by the UK Department of Health?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No amount of alcohol is considered safe at any point in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy and Alcohol

      The advice on safe drinking levels during pregnancy varies, but the most recent recommendation is to abstain from alcohol completely. According to NICE, pregnant women of those planning a pregnancy should avoid alcohol altogether to minimize risks to the fetus. This aligns with the UK Chief Medical Officers’ Alcohol Guidelines Review from 2016. It is recommended to follow this guideline to ensure the safety of the developing baby.

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      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Substance Misuse/Addictions (18/29) 62%
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