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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED complaining of pain in the spine and the onset of severe lower-leg weakness accompanied by a loss of sensation. On examination, he is found to have percussion tenderness of his spine, loss of sensation up to the umbilicus and a distended bladder. He has markedly reduced power of the lower legs with hyperreflexia. Which of the following should not be part of your management of this patient?
Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Correct Answer: Spinal X-rays
Explanation:Acute cord compression is a medical emergency. Typically, signs of segmental damage at the level of compression are usually combined with corticospinal tract dysfunction (e.g., hyperreflexia, Babinski’s sign and weakness) and sensory deficits below the level of compression. Symptoms include spinal pain that precedes the development of weak legs and sensory loss. There may be loss of bladder (and anal) sphincter control, manifesting as hesitancy, frequency and, finally, painless retention.
Spinal X-rays are rarely diagnostic. MRI is usually the investigation of choice and should not be delayed, but if not available consider doing a CT scan and myelography to confirm cord compression and fully define the level and extent of the lesion. If malignancy is the cause, it is important to give dexamethasone (oral or intravenous) while considering therapy more specific to the cause. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Your Answer: Lymphocyte-predominant
Correct Answer: Nodular sclerosing
Explanation:The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:
1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis
2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis
4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?
Your Answer: Low corrected calcium
Explanation:Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.
TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.
Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He is otherwise asymptomatic and of note has had no associated eye pain or headaches. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease but he is otherwise well. On examination he has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil responds poorly to light but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are:
– ischaemic optic neuropathy
– occlusion of central retinal vein or artery
– vitreous haemorrhage
– retinal detachment.
Central retinal artery occlusion is due to thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis). Features include afferent pupillary defects, and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Correct
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An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?
Your Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Her medical notes state that she developed a skin rash after taking penicillin a few years ago. She has a CURB score of 4 and adverse prognostic features. Which of the following would be an appropriate empirical antibiotic choice?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin and clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Cefotaxime and erythromycin
Explanation:Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases and is an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
The CURB-65 is used as a means of deciding the action that is needed to be taken for that patient.
Score 3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unitRecent studies have suggested that the use of a beta-lactam alone may be noninferior to a beta-lactam/macrolide combination or fluoroquinolone therapy in hospitalized patients.
Therapy in ICU patients includes the following:
– Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam) plus either a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
– For patients with penicillin allergy, a respiratory fluoroquinolone and aztreonamTherefore the appropriate treatment would be Cefotaxime and erythromycin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10
Explanation:The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.
Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute chest pain for 3 hrs which associated with excessive sweating and vomiting. His past medical history was unremarkable but his father has passed away due to a heart attack at the age of 50. Examination findings were normal and ECG was also normal. He was pain free after 12 hours from admission. What is the most appropriate investigation that cab be done at this moment?
Your Answer: Echocardiography
Correct Answer: Troponin T
Explanation:The positive family history and the smoking make him an ideal candidate for a myocardial infarction. The chest pain is also a suggestive symptom. So troponin is needed to rule out MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals that he has chronic renal failure, for which he receives haemodialysis three times per week. Since one week prior to consultation, he has been on vacation and has missed two dialysis sessions. Examination reveals pulmonary oedema. His ECG shows no P waves, broad QRS complexes and peaked T waves. What should you do?
Your Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenously
Explanation:The patient is most likely complaining of the effects of hyperkalaemia, due to missing his dialysis sessions. Additionally, because the patient presents with a risk of cardiac arrest (based on pulmonary oedema and ECG findings), the best intervention is to give calcium gluconate that will address the hyperkalaemia as well as improve the cardiac condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with hypertension:
Your Answer: Liddle's syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that presents with hypertension usually in young patients, that do not respond to anti-hypertensive therapy and is later associated with hypokalaemia, low renin plasma, and low aldosterone levels as well. The other conditions listed do not present with hypertension and associated hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A defect in DNA gyrase can lead to which of the following cancerous conditions?
Your Answer: von Hippel-Lindau
Correct Answer: Xeroderma pigmentosum
Explanation:Xeroderma pigmentosum is an X-linked recessive condition, which is caused by mutations in DNA gyrase which further encodes the XP gene. The defect may lead to skin cancer at an early stage of life, especially at photo exposed sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of her having a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism causes such manifestations?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The best answer is cytomegalovirus. The mother was infected during the pregnancy and the baby has developed cytomegalo-inclusion syndrome. Histologically, it is identified by viral particles surrounded by lysosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of management options, she chooses to have radioiodine therapy. Which one of the following is the most likely adverse effect?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Approximately one third of patients treated with radioiodine therapy develop transient hypothyroidism. Unless a patient is highly symptomatic, thyroxine replacement may be withheld if hypothyroidism occurs within the first 2 months of therapy. If it persists for longer than 2 months, permanent hypothyroidism is likely and replacement with T4 should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?
Your Answer: Galactorrhoea
Correct Answer: Hypohydrosis
Explanation:Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
– Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
– Arthritis
– Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive
Explanation:Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.
ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.
Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.
Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
3. Age <2 years or >10 years
4. Male sex
5. CNS involvement
6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
7. non-Caucasian -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD8
Explanation:CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed αβ T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70 year old female presented with throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to see an oncologist, for suspected lymphoma. The boy had lymphadenopathy on presentation. His mother says that he's had a fever, night sweats and has experienced weight loss. The boy underwent a lymph node biopsy at the oncologist which suggests Burkitt's lymphoma. Which oncogene are you expecting to see after molecular testing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: c-MYC
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is a germinal centre B-cell-derived cancer that was instrumental in the identification of MYC as an important human oncogene more than three decades ago. Recently, new genomics technologies have uncovered several additional oncogenic mechanisms that cooperate with MYC to create this highly aggressive cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye. On examination, an erythematous blistering rash can be seen in the right trigeminal distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles. Features include a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself, and Hutchinson’s sign: a rash on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G1
Explanation:The duration of these cell cycle phases varies considerably in different kinds of cells. For a typical rapidly proliferating human cell with a total cycle time of 24 hours, the G1 phase might last about 11 hours, S phase about 8 hours, G2 about 4 hours, and M about 1 hour. The proliferation of most animal cells is similarly regulated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In particular, a decision point in late G1, called the restriction point in animal cells, is the point at which the cell becomes committed to the cell cycle and after which extracellular proliferation stimulants are no longer required.. Although the proliferation of most cells is regulated primarily in G1, some cell cycles are instead controlled principally in G2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A new blood test developed to screen individuals for cardiac failure was performed on 500 patients. The results were positive for 40 out of 50 patients with echocardiography-established heart failure. However, the test was also positive for 20 patients with no signs of heart failure. What is the positive predictive value of the test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.66
Explanation:Positive predictive value = TP (true positives) / [TP + FP (false positives)] = 40 / (40 + 20) = 0.66
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus
Explanation:The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. Her complete blood count, coagulation profile, and blood film are requested. The results are as follows: Hb: 8.6 g/dL, WCC: 2.3 x 10^9/L, Plts: 18 x 10^9/L, Coagulation profile: deranged, Blood film: bilobed large mononuclear cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:This is a picture of bone marrow failure secondary to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.
The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.
Other listed options are ruled out because:
1. Von Willebrand disease: may present with epistaxis and bleeding gums in severe cases but rarely with abnormalities on blood results.2. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: mostly seen in children.
3. Lymphoma: usually presents with rubbery enlargement of lymph nodes.
4. Warfarin overdose: no bilobed large mononuclear cells seen on blood film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30 yr. old male with Down's Syndrome was found to have a systolic murmur during routine clinical examination. Which of the following is the most common cardiac defect associated with Down's Syndrome which will explain this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endocardial cushion defect
Explanation:Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD) also known as endocardial cushion defect is the most common cardiac abnormality in Down’s Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A non-cyanosed 1-year-old female patient has a continuous murmur which is loudest at the left sternal edge. What pulse abnormality is most associated with patent ductus arteriosus if that's her suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse
Explanation:DIAGNOSIS:
A consensus definition for hemodynamically significant PDA is lacking. The diagnosis is often suspected clinically, when an infant demonstrates signs of excessive shunting from the arterial to pulmonary circulation. Continuous or a systolic murmur; note, a “silent” PDA may also occur when the ductus shunt is large enough that nonturbulent flow fails to generate a detectible murmur.
A low diastolic blood pressure (due to runoff into the ductus during diastole, more frequent in the most premature infants).
A wide pulse pressure (due to ductus runoff or steal)Hypotension (especially in the most premature infants)
Bounding pulses
Increased serum creatinine concentration or oliguria
Hepatomegaly -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma with ABVD chemotherapy is reviewed on the haematology ward. Six days ago, she was admitted with a fever of 38.9°C and was immediately started on piperacillin + tazobactam (Tazocin). Her blood picture on arrival was as follows: Haemoglobin: 10.1 g/dL, Platelets: 311 x 10^9/L, White cell count: 0.8 x 10^9/L, Neutrophils: 0.35 x 10^9/L, Lymphocytes: 0.35 x 10^9/L. After 48 hours, she remained febrile and tachycardic. Tazocin was stopped and meropenem in combination with vancomycin was prescribed. She still remains unwell today with a temperature of 38.4°C, heart rate of 96 bpm, and blood pressure of 102/66 mmHg. Respiratory examination is consistently unremarkable and blood and urine cultures have failed to show any cause for the fever. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amphotericin B
Explanation:This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for neutropenic sepsis, which is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy – usually chemotherapy occurring 7–14 days after. It is defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach is the same as mentioned in this case. However, if the patient still remains unwell, then an antifungal such as amphotericin B is started after risk-stratifying the patient and carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is, however, experiencing troublesome vomiting which is not responding to domperidone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a 5-HT3 antagonist
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered. For patients at low risk of these symptoms, drugs such as metoclopramide may be used. For high-risk patients, however, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident. His thyroid function testing is : TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5), Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25), Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2). Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome
Explanation:Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
– It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
– It is unimodal
– The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
– Its density has two inflection points.
– Its density is log-concave.
The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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