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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit after intentionally overdosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit after intentionally overdosing on 60 paracetamol tablets over a period of 12 hours. She presents with abdominal pain and nausea and has a history of depression and anxiety. The patient is started on acetylcysteine treatment and is reviewed the following day. The blood results at 24 hours into admission show a pH of 7.29 (7.35 - 7.45), lactate of 1.9 mmol/L (0.9 - 1.6), paracetamol levels of 2 (< 3), creatinine of 155 µmol/L (55 - 120), prothrombin time of 18 secs (10-14 secs), ALT of 90 u/L (3 - 40), and bilirubin of 39 µmol/L (3 - 17). What is the next most definitive step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Discharge home with hepatology follow up

      Correct Answer: Referral for liver transplant

      Explanation:

      In cases of paracetamol overdose, liver transplantation may be necessary if certain criteria are met, such as an arterial pH below 7.3, 24 hours after ingestion. This patient has shown signs of severe hepatotoxicity and meets the criteria for referral to a liver transplant. It is not appropriate to discharge them with hepatology follow-up alone.

      Metabolic acidosis is a serious indicator of paracetamol overdose and can be managed with supportive treatment such as intravenous sodium bicarbonate. However, this will not cure hepatotoxicity. Dialysis may be necessary for refractory acidosis, but it will not reverse the damage caused by the overdose. The most definitive treatment is a liver transplant.

      This patient has already received acetylcysteine treatment, which replaces glutathione stores used up in the metabolism of paracetamol. However, they have not shown complete hepatocellular recovery, so repeated acetylcysteine treatment is not necessary.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 2 - A new drug, Dangerex, is being tested as an antidepressant with a lower...

    Correct

    • A new drug, Dangerex, is being tested as an antidepressant with a lower risk of overdose and suicide. In phase 1 and 2 trials, 500 mg of the drug was administered intravenously to elderly volunteers. Shortly after, the plasma concentration was measured at 3 mg/L. What is the volume of distribution of Dangerex in litres?

      Your Answer: 200

      Explanation:

      The causes of anaemia vary and can be attributed to different factors. One possible cause is hereditary elliptocytosis (HE) heterozygote, which is usually asymptomatic and does not cause haemolysis. Thalassaemia and sickle cell anaemia, on the other hand, can lead to gallstones and have specific blood film changes that can aid in diagnosis. For instance, thalassaemia is characterized by microcytic hypochromic red cells, while sickle cell anaemia is characterized by sickle cells.

      Autoimmune haemolysis, meanwhile, would show a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). If a patient has a family history of anaemia, numerous spherocytes, and a negative DAT, it is likely that they have hereditary spherocytosis. It is also important to ask about a history of neonatal jaundice.

      Knowing the different causes of anaemia and their specific symptoms can help in the diagnosis and treatment of the condition. Proper diagnosis is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department feeling extremely unwell. He has experienced multiple episodes of diarrhea and has vomited once. Norovirus is suspected. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg and all other observations are stable. His baseline creatinine from 3 months ago was 90 µmol/l. The following are his blood results:
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 5.5 mmol/l
      Urea 21 mmol/l
      Creatinine 156 µmol/l
      Which of his regular medications should be discontinued immediately based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Caution should be exercised when using metformin in patients with acute kidney injury due to its potential to cause lactic acidosis. In such cases, it is recommended to discontinue nephrotoxic medications like NSAIDs, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors. Although lactic acidosis is rare, it is still important to consider it in exams. Direct oral anticoagulants may increase the risk of bleeding due to accumulation, but their dosage can be adjusted without discontinuing them entirely. Statins can be continued with close monitoring unless the AKI is caused by rhabdomyolysis or unexplained muscle pains. Bisoprolol is not directly harmful to the kidneys, but it may be withheld in severe AKI to avoid reducing kidney perfusion due to hypotension. However, in this case, the patient is not hypotensive, so immediate discontinuation is not necessary.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department by her father. She claims to have swallowed 20 tablets of ferrous sulphate that she found in the family medicine cabinet.

      What are the symptoms of acute iron poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Acute Iron Toxicity and Treatment with Desferrioxamine

      Acute iron toxicity is a rare occurrence, but it can happen when someone ingests too many iron tablets. These tablets are often brightly colored and can be mistaken for candy, making accidental ingestion more likely. When someone experiences acute iron toxicity, they may suffer from necrotizing gastritis, severe vomiting, gastrointestinal hemorrhage, diarrhea, and circulatory collapse.

      Fortunately, there is a treatment for acute iron toxicity. Desferrioxamine is an iron chelating agent that can bind with iron in the body. If the ingested iron is still in the stomach, desferrioxamine can be given enterally via an NG tube to prevent absorption and eliminate the iron-desferrioxamine complex in the feces. If the iron has already been absorbed into the body, desferrioxamine can be given intramuscularly or intravenously to bind with the iron in the intravascular and extravascular fluid compartments. The iron-desferrioxamine complex is then excreted in the urine.

      In summary, acute iron toxicity can be a serious condition, but it can be treated with desferrioxamine. It is important to be cautious when taking iron tablets and to keep them out of reach of children to prevent accidental ingestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 5 - What is the mode of action of calcium carbonate in the management of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of calcium carbonate in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enhance bone mineralisation

      Explanation:

      Calcium and Vitamin D Supplementation for Osteoporosis

      Calcium and vitamin D supplementation are often prescribed to patients with osteoporosis as an adjunct to other treatments such as bisphosphonates. While it is not considered an adequate treatment on its own, it can enhance bone mineralisation and promote calcium uptake from the gut. Calcium can be given orally in various forms such as calcium carbonate, calcium gluconate, or calcium lactates. However, calcium carbonate is the most commonly used preparation in osteoporosis, often combined with vitamin D in medications like Adcal D3 or Calcichew D3 forte.

      Despite its benefits, oral calcium supplementation can have adverse effects such as a chalky taste that is poorly tolerated and gastrointestinal disturbances. Hypercalcaemia is a rare side effect, except in patients with other underlying conditions such as malignancy or hyperparathyroidism. On the other hand, vitamin D helps correct any deficiency or insufficiency and promotes calcium uptake from the gut. Vitamin D deficiency is common in elderly and institutionalised patients, and if severe, it can lead to osteomalacia with an elevated alkaline phosphatase on blood testing.

      In summary, calcium and vitamin D supplementation are useful adjuncts to other treatments for osteoporosis. While calcium enhances bone mineralisation, vitamin D corrects any deficiency and promotes calcium uptake from the gut. However, oral calcium supplementation can have adverse effects, and vitamin D deficiency is common in certain patient populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in a magazine and ordered a test through an online laboratory, which showed a low level. He had a history of morphine addiction for the past 4 years and had recently started treatment at a detox clinic, where he was taking methadone orally. He smoked 15 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To come back once his detoxification regimen is over

      Explanation:

      Management of Low Testosterone in a Patient on Methadone

      When managing a patient on methadone with low testosterone levels, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Methadone use inhibits the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in men, leading to low testosterone levels. Therefore, advising the patient to come back after detoxification is necessary before considering any treatment options.

      Starting oral or intramuscular depo testosterone is not appropriate at this point. Instead, it is recommended to have the patient stop smoking and repeat the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) tests after stopping methadone. These tests will help determine if there are any other causes for testosterone deficiency that need to be addressed.

      In conclusion, managing low testosterone levels in a patient on methadone requires a thorough understanding of the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Advising the patient to come back after detoxification and repeating FSH and LH tests are important steps in managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - As part of a palliative care attachment for final-year medical students, the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a palliative care attachment for final-year medical students, the consultant is discussing non-pharmacological options for managing pain symptoms. The focus is on herbal therapies that have been clinically proven to provide analgesic benefits in palliative care.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capsaicin

      Explanation:

      Natural Remedies for Pain Relief: A Look at Capsaicin, Arnica, Cod Liver Oil, Clove Oil, and Echinacea

      When it comes to managing pain, many people turn to natural remedies. Among these remedies are capsaicin, arnica, cod liver oil, clove oil, and echinacea. Capsaicin, which is found in chilli peppers, has been shown in several studies to be effective in treating neuropathic-type pain. Arnica, on the other hand, has been found to be no more effective than placebo for pain relief. Cod liver oil, when taken with NSAIDs, has not been shown to have a significant analgesic effect for osteoarthritis pain compared to placebo. Clove oil is commonly used for dental pain, gastrointestinal upset, nausea, and vomiting, but there is no published research on its pain relief properties. Finally, echinacea is often used for colds and respiratory infections, but there is no published research on its analgesic effects. While natural remedies can be a helpful addition to pain management, it’s important to do your research and consult with a healthcare professional before trying any new treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 8 - What is the most appropriate description of how furosemide works? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate description of how furosemide works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of NKCC2

      Explanation:

      Loop Diuretics and their Mechanisms of Action

      Loop diuretics are commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure, liver cirrhosis, and kidney disease. The primary mechanism of action of loop diuretics is the inhibition of NKCC2, the luminal Na-K-2Cl symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This inhibition results in increased excretion of sodium, calcium, and magnesium, leading to a reduction in fluid volume. Furosemide is the first choice loop diuretic for the treatment of fluid retention.

      Other diuretics, such as spironolactone, work by blocking aldosterone receptors, resulting in potassium retention and sodium excretion. Angiotensin receptor blockers, on the other hand, work by antagonizing angiotensin 1 receptors. Indapamide’s primary mode of action is by blocking net calcium inflow, while thiazides such as hydrochlorothiazide block the thiazide-sensitive Na Cl co-transporter.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective in treating fluid retention by inhibiting NKCC2, resulting in increased excretion of sodium, calcium, and magnesium. Other diuretics work through different mechanisms, such as blocking aldosterone receptors or angiotensin 1 receptors. the mechanisms of action of these diuretics is crucial in selecting the appropriate treatment for patients with fluid retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatric unit with an acute episode of psychosis. After assessment, he is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. The consultant psychiatrist plans to initiate pimozide 2 mg daily. What baseline investigation and regular monitoring are required for this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Pimozide: An Effective Antipsychotic with Cardiac Risks

      Pimozide is a potent antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and psychosis. It works by blocking multiple neurotransmitter receptors, including dopamine D2 receptors, serotonin receptors, and acetylcholine receptors. However, its significant dopamine antagonistic properties can cause severe extrapyramidal side effects such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. Pimozide is also associated with the development of cardiac arrhythmias, including prolongation of the QT interval and supraventricular tachycardias. This can lead to sudden deterioration into ventricular tachycardia, torsades de pointes, and even ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, baseline recording of the ECG and monthly review are mandatory while taking the drug, and any change in the QT interval duration should prompt discontinuation or reduction of the drug. Patients with pre-existing prolongation, concurrent use of other drugs that prolong the QT interval, or congenitally extended QT durations should not be started on this drug.

      Pregnancy is not a contraindication for the use of antipsychotic drugs, but women taking dopamine antagonists in the third trimester may deliver babies displaying transient extrapyramidal side effects. Most antipsychotic drugs do not affect renal function significantly, but pre-existing renal failure necessitates dose reduction. Pimozide is not known to be toxic to the lungs, and baseline chest x-ray is not required. While pimozide is an effective antipsychotic medication, its cardiac risks must be carefully monitored to prevent potentially fatal arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a one-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a one-week history of diarrhoea, resulting in dehydration. He appears confused and drowsy, without significant medical history. Suddenly, a healthcare assistant alerts the team after the patient experiences a full-body seizure, lasting for two minutes. His latest blood tests reveal abnormal levels of Na+, K+, Bicarbonate, Ca2+, and Mg2+. What is the best initial approach to manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for severe or symptomatic hypokalemia is saline with 40 mmol potassium chloride administered over 6 hours. However, since this man only has mild hypokalemia, oral supplementation would typically suffice. It is important to note that hypokalemia is more likely to cause arrhythmias, paralysis, and rhabdomyolysis rather than seizures.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 11 - An 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a fever and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a fever and difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of osteoarthritis, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease, and takes atorvastatin, amlodipine, and codeine regularly. During the examination, she appears unwell, and there are splinter haemorrhages on her nails. A systolic murmur in the mitral area is audible. Her vital signs are a pulse of 100/min, a respiratory rate of 18/min, a blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, and a temperature of 38°C. The diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis is made based on clinical findings, and blood cultures reveal Streptococcus viridans. Appropriate IV fluids and gentamicin are administered, and she recovers from the infection. However, a few days later, she develops acute tubular necrosis.

      What is the most likely cause of her acute tubular necrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage

      The correct answer is Gentamicin. This aminoglycoside antibiotic is known to be nephrotoxic and can cause acute tubular necrosis, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment.
      Amlodipine is not associated with kidney damage.
      Codeine is also not known to be nephrotoxic, but may require dose adjustment in patients with kidney disease to prevent toxicity.
      Dehydration can cause acute kidney injury, but in this case, the patient has received appropriate IV fluids.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.

      It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is seen in the geriatric clinic for review. He has developed a symmetrical tremor and bradykinesia. His general practitioner is concerned that he may have developed Parkinson’s disease. He has a long medical history and is on various medications. You are concerned that his presentation may be related to a drug-induced effect, rather than a primary neurological disease.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Parkinsonism: Understanding the Effects of Common Medications

      Drug-induced parkinsonism is a condition that can be caused by certain medications. One such medication is metoclopramide, which acts as a dopamine antagonist and can prevent dopamine from binding to receptors in the basal ganglia, leading to Parkinsonian-like symptoms. Other medications that can cause this condition include typical and atypical anti-psychotics, as well as certain antiemetics.

      However, not all medications have this effect. Cyclizine, for example, is a H1-histamine receptor blocker and is not implicated in the development of drug-induced parkinsonism. Similarly, gabapentin, simvastatin, and tramadol are not known to cause this condition.

      It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to differentiate between drug-induced parkinsonism and Parkinson’s disease, as the former can present with bilateral symptoms. By being aware of the effects of common medications, healthcare professionals can better manage their patients’ conditions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 13 - What is the mechanism of action of teriparatide in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of teriparatide in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enhance osteoblast activity

      Explanation:

      The Role of Parathyroid Hormone in Calcium Regulation and Bone Health

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s calcium levels and bone health. It facilitates the absorption of calcium from the gut, reabsorption of calcium from the renal tubule, and bone resorption through osteoclastic activity. However, chronically high levels of PTH can lead to rapid bone resorption and osteoporosis in conditions like primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Interestingly, short bursts of high-concentration PTH treatment can stimulate osteoblast activity more than osteoclast activity, promoting bone formation. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, is a second- or third-line treatment for osteoporosis. While it is more expensive than bisphosphonates, it may be a suitable option for patients who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates or have recurrent fractures despite treatment.

      Overall, PTH is a vital hormone in regulating calcium levels and maintaining bone health. While high levels of PTH can be detrimental to bone health, short bursts of PTH treatment can promote bone formation. Teriparatide is a potential treatment option for osteoporosis in select patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A woman you are treating for tuberculosis describes how, since starting treatment, she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman you are treating for tuberculosis describes how, since starting treatment, she has noticed that her urine has turned orange.

      What medication is causing this change in urine color?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after he saw him convulsing on the floor of the bathroom. On arrival, he is found unresponsive to sternal rub. His vitals are:

      Temperature: 37.5°C
      Pulse: 120/min
      Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
      Respiratory rate: 14/min
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      Physical examination reveals hot and dry skin. The patient’s pupils are dilated and minimally responsive to light. ECG shows a QRS duration of 130ms. His past medical history is significant for depression, alcohol dependence, marijuana use, and occasional IV drug use.

      What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is the appropriate treatment for tricyclic antidepressant overdose, as it widens QRS and causes arrhythmia. Thiamine is used to treat Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in alcoholics. Flumazenil reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, while naloxone treats opioid intoxication.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - A 43-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations. The patient has...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with palpitations. The patient has a history of hypertension and is taking lisinopril, but is otherwise healthy. She reports a fluttering sensation in her chest but denies any shortness of breath.
      Upon examination, the patient's pulse is 160 bpm and regular. Her blood pressure is 136/94 mmHg, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. There is no evidence of pedal edema, and her chest is clear.
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus tachycardia with narrow complexes. Vagal maneuvers are attempted but prove ineffective.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in treating this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Management of Regular Narrow Complex Tachycardia: Adenosine as First-Line Treatment

      When faced with a patient presenting with a regular narrow complex tachycardia, the first step in management is to assess their hemodynamic stability and rule out cardiac ischemia or failure. If the patient is stable, vagal maneuvers can be attempted, but if they are unsuccessful, the next step is to administer adenosine as a rapid IV bolus under continuous ECG monitoring. The initial dose is 6mg, followed by up to two further doses of 12mg if necessary. If adenosine is successful in restoring sinus tachycardia, the diagnosis is likely to be a re-entry paroxysmal SVT. If the tachycardia persists, the diagnosis may be atrial flutter, and expert help should be sought. Rate control with agents such as beta-blockers may be considered.

      It is important to note that synchronised DC shock is only appropriate if the patient has adverse features such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure. In this case, the patient is stable, and therefore adenosine is the preferred treatment.

      It is also important to avoid using rate-limiting calcium channel and β-blockers together when managing arrhythmias, as they may cause severe atrioventricular block and hypotension. Lidocaine is not appropriate for the management of supraventricular arrhythmias, and IV magnesium is only used in the treatment of polymorphic VT such as torsade de pointes.

      In summary, adenosine is the first-line treatment for regular narrow complex tachycardia in stable patients, with synchronised DC shock reserved for those with adverse features. Other agents such as beta-blockers may be considered if necessary, but caution should be exercised when combining different classes of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for follow-up. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for follow-up. She has been diagnosed with PCOS and is experiencing irregular and heavy menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on her face and torso, and acne. Currently, she is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but intends to switch to Dianette. What is the primary mechanism of action of Dianette?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testosterone receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Cyproterone Acetate and Ethinyloestradiol for PCOS Treatment

      Cyproterone acetate and ethinyloestradiol are two active ingredients that are commonly used in the treatment of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). This medication works by reducing androgen synthesis through negative feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovary axis and by inhibiting androgen-synthesising enzymes. It is effective in reducing hirsutism and acne, but it does not have a positive impact on weight in patients with PCOS.

      One of the main benefits of using cyproterone acetate and ethinyloestradiol is that it can help to reduce the symptoms of PCOS. However, there are also some potential long-term adverse effects associated with its use. These include an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and oestrogen-related cancers such as breast cancer. Therefore, it is important to carefully weigh the benefits and risks of using this medication before starting treatment. Overall, cyproterone acetate and ethinyloestradiol can be an effective treatment option for PCOS, but it should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with confusion and involuntary leg muscle jerks. He is too agitated to provide his medical history. Upon examination, his heart rate is 150/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 147/92 mmHg, and temperature 37.9 ºC. He appears sweaty, clammy, and has a resting tremor. Cardiovascular examination is normal, and a neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old patient visits their dentist complaining of jaw pain and non-healing gingival...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old patient visits their dentist complaining of jaw pain and non-healing gingival lesions with visible areas of the mandible. The patient has recently started taking a new medication. Which drug could be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Medication-Induced Complications: Common Side Effects to Watch Out For

      Alendronate: A rare complication of bisphosphonate therapy, osteonecrosis of the jaw is identified by non-healing gingival lesions, with exposure of mandible or maxilla bone, and patients may present with pain and secondary infection. Treatment is often conservative, with analgesia and infection control, although some patients require debridement.

      Bisoprolol: Beta-blockers may cause bradycardia, bronchospasm, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Carbamazepine: This medication may cause cardiac arrhythmias, visual changes, and agranulocytosis.

      Doxycycline: Tetracyclines are related to staining of the teeth in children and phototoxicity that requires the patient to wear high-factor sunblock.

      Phenytoin: Gingival hyperplasia and inflammation may be caused by phenytoin.

      It is important to consider that with any presentation to hospital, particularly less usual symptoms or signs, that medications may be a cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 20 - Drugs X and Y can both act upon a receptor Z to inhibit...

    Incorrect

    • Drugs X and Y can both act upon a receptor Z to inhibit a biological effect by decreasing the activity of an intracellular signalling pathway.
      At its maximal concentration, drug X can completely inhibit the intracellular signalling pathway. However, drug Y can only inhibit around half the effect, even at maximal concentration.
      What term would you use to describe the action of drug Y?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Partial agonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists and Antagonists: Effects and Types

      Agonists are drugs that bind to receptors and cause an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. The efficacy of agonism is determined by the drug’s ability to provoke maximal or sub-maximal receptor activity. Full agonists can provoke maximal receptor activity, while partial agonists can only provoke sub-maximal receptor activity. The degree of receptor occupancy is also a factor in determining the effects of an agonist. The affinity of the drug for the receptor and the concentration determine the degree of occupancy. Even low degrees of receptor occupancy can achieve a biological response for agonists.

      On the other hand, antagonists are ligands that bind to receptors and inhibit receptor activity, causing no biological response. The effects of an antagonist are determined by the degree of receptor occupancy, the affinity to the receptor, and the efficacy. A relatively high degree of receptor occupancy is needed for an antagonist to work. Antagonists have zero efficacy in prompting a biological response.

      There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. Competitive antagonists have a similar structure to agonists and bind to the same site on the same receptor. When the competitive antagonist binds to the receptor, it reduces the binding sites available to the agonist for binding. Non-competitive antagonists have a different structure to the agonist and bind to a different site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. This prevents the normal consequences of agonist binding, and biological actions are prevented.

      In summary, agonists and antagonists have different effects on receptors, and their efficacy and degree of receptor occupancy determine their biological response. Competitive and non-competitive antagonists have different structures and binding sites on the receptor, resulting in different mechanisms of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 36-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after taking an unknown substance...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after taking an unknown substance during a night out. He has a history of depression. Upon examination, his GCS is 13/15, his pupils are dilated and divergent, and he is tachycardic with a heart rate of 110/min. His blood pressure is 124/70 mmHg, and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with a prolonged QTc duration of 480 msec. He appears dehydrated. What substance is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Amitriptyline overdose, a tricyclic antidepressant that blocks histamine, cholinergic and alpha 1 receptors. Symptoms include dilated pupils, dry skin, confusion, urinary retention, tachycardia, and potentially prolonged QTc interval and widened QRS complex leading to ventricular arrhythmias. Serotonin syndrome is a possible effect of sertraline overdose, while cocaine toxicity produces sympathetic effects such as agitation, increased heart rate and blood pressure, but would not cause a reduced GCS or altered QRS duration on ECG.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female student visits the dentist complaining of a painful mouth and...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female student visits the dentist complaining of a painful mouth and is given a prescription for an antibiotic to treat a dental abscess. The dentist advises her to avoid consuming any alcohol during the course of the treatment due to the possibility of experiencing severe hangovers. What is the name of the antibiotic prescribed to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Disulfiram-like Reaction with Metronidazole and Alcohol

      A disulfiram-like reaction may happen when metronidazole is taken with alcohol, leading to an unpleasant systemic response caused by the buildup of acetaldehyde in the body. This reaction can result in symptoms such as facial flushing, headache, palpitations, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting. In severe cases, large doses of alcohol can cause arrhythmias, hypotension, and even collapse. It is important to avoid consuming alcohol while taking metronidazole to prevent this reaction from occurring. Proper communication with healthcare providers and adherence to medication instructions can help prevent adverse reactions and ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - What term is used to describe reactions that can render a drug inactive?...

    Incorrect

    • What term is used to describe reactions that can render a drug inactive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolism

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics: How Drugs are Processed by the Body

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the processes involved in how drugs are processed by the body. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of the drug from the gut lumen and entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, which can affect its ability to interact with its target. Metabolism involves the body’s processes to change the drug molecule, usually by deactivating it during reactions in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of the drug from the body.

      Drug metabolism typically takes place in the liver and involves two phases. Phase 1 involves an initial reaction, often oxidation, but drugs can also be modified by reduction or hydrolysis. Many drugs will maintain some therapeutic activity after this step. Phase 2 involves the drug being conjugated, often to a glutathione, methyl, or acetyl group. This conjugation step usually inactivates the drug by making it more soluble and suitable for excretion via the kidneys. pharmacokinetics is important in determining the effectiveness and safety of drugs in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man with multiple sclerosis has been taking methadone for relief of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with multiple sclerosis has been taking methadone for relief of painful muscle spasms. He has been struggling to accept his condition, and chronic pain has caused him to feel depressed. His doctor has prescribed him amitriptyline at night to help with depression and sleep. During a routine check-up, an ECG is performed.
      What ECG abnormality could potentially be caused by a drug interaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long QT syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Effects of Methadone: Understanding the Risks

      Methadone is a commonly used medication for pain management, but it can have potential cardiac effects that must be considered when prescribing it to patients. One such effect is an increase in the QT interval, which can lead to torsades de pointes. Therefore, caution must be exercised when prescribing methadone to patients who are taking other medications that could potentiate this effect, such as antidepressants and anti-psychotics.

      However, it is important to note that methadone is not associated with other cardiac conditions such as first-degree heart block, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, or supraventricular tachycardia. These conditions are more commonly caused by other medications such as b blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, and amiodarone, or underlying medical conditions such as ischaemic heart disease and thyrotoxicosis.

      Ultimately, the individual risk of cardiac effects must be weighed against the potential benefits of methadone for each patient. Healthcare providers must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current medications, and overall health status before prescribing methadone for pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being admitted to the hospital. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being admitted to the hospital. The patient complains of experiencing itchy, raised red bumps on their skin. These symptoms began about 24 hours after taking their discharge medication for the first time and have progressively worsened over the past few days. The patient has no prior history of this type of reaction. Upon examination, faint pink raised patches are observed on the trunk and upper arms. Which medication is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is often caused by aspirin.

      The most likely cause of the patient’s urticarial rash is aspirin, which is known to be a common trigger for this condition. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and metformin are not typically associated with urticaria, although they may cause other side effects such as nausea, hypotension, and gastrointestinal disturbance, respectively. It is important to consider the potential side effects of any medication when evaluating a patient’s symptoms.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After a heated argument, the patient ingested a packet of her father's depression medication and locked herself in her room. When the door was forced open, she was found lying on the floor in a drowsy state. As part of her evaluation, an electrocardiogram was performed, revealing a sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, PR interval of 100ms, QRS of 150ms, and QTc interval of 420ms. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In tricyclic overdose, the QRS complex widens and can lead to ventricular tachycardia. IV sodium bicarbonate can be given to achieve cardiac stability. SSRIs do not widen the QRS but prolong the QT. DC cardioversion is not appropriate in this case. IV dextrose is not useful in reversing toxicity. IV lorazepam is used for seizures but not needed currently. Flecainide is contraindicated in tricyclic overdose.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old male with severe learning difficulties is brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with severe learning difficulties is brought into the emergency department by his parents after accidentally overdosing on paracetamol. He was found 20 minutes ago to have mistakenly ingested 18 grams of paracetamol after briefly being unsupervised. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give activated charcoal and then N-acetylcysteine if indicated by paracetamol levels

      Explanation:

      If a patient has ingested paracetamol within 1 hour and it is not a staggered overdose, activated charcoal should be administered to prevent further absorption of the drug. In this scenario, there is no immediate need for N-acetylcysteine (NAC) as the chronology of the overdose is clear from the collateral history provided by concerned parents. However, NAC may be required later. It is important to administer activated charcoal immediately as there is only a small window of opportunity to prevent further absorption of paracetamol. Gastric lavage is not necessary in cases where activated charcoal is available as it has been shown to be a more effective intervention.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - You are a second-year medical student in the Ophthalmology clinic and have been...

    Incorrect

    • You are a second-year medical student in the Ophthalmology clinic and have been asked to review a patient’s optic discs and retina. Which one of the following agents should be used to dilate the patient’s pupils?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tropicamide

      Explanation:

      Ophthalmic Drugs: Uses and Functions

      Tropicamide, a mydriatic, is commonly used to dilate pupils for examination by blocking muscarinic receptors on the iris sphincter. Cyclopentolate, another mydriatic, has a longer duration of action and may not be preferred for patients who will experience reduced vision for a longer period. Pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, is a miotic that constricts the pupil and is used to treat glaucoma. Adrenaline eye drops are used to investigate Horner’s syndrome and have no dilating effect on normal eyes. Tetracaine, a local anesthetic, is used to numb the cornea for procedures such as foreign body removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - The INR of a patient who has recently started treatment for tuberculosis drops...

    Incorrect

    • The INR of a patient who has recently started treatment for tuberculosis drops from 2.6 to 1.3. Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible? Also, can you identify the medication if the patient is 65 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin induces P450 enzymes, which leads to an increase in warfarin metabolism and a subsequent decrease in INR.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man, who has recently started a new relationship, presented with depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, who has recently started a new relationship, presented with depression. He reported a decrease in libido, which was affecting his relationship. The physician decided to initiate testosterone therapy after conducting some blood tests.
      Which of the following routes should not be used to administer testosterone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (iv)

      Explanation:

      Different Routes of Testosterone Administration and their Risks

      Testosterone is a hormone that can be administered through various routes, each with its own risks and benefits. Intravenous administration is not recommended due to the risk of emboli formation and respiratory distress. Oral preparations are available but can be toxic to the liver, making transdermal formulations a safer option. Transdermal delivery can be achieved through gels, skin patches, or matrix patches, but absorption can vary. Intramuscular injections, such as undecanoate, release the drug slowly over a period of 2-6 weeks. Buccal tablets that adhere to the mucosa can also be used, but may cause buccal ulcers. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each route of administration when choosing a testosterone formulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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