00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy falls off his bike and lands on his right arm. He is taken to the Emergency Department where an X-ray reveals a mid-humeral shaft fracture. There is no sign of a growing haematoma, and the patient has a strong radial pulse with good perfusion. Doppler studies of the arm show no evidence of bleeding.
      What is the most probable condition that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Mid-Humeral Shaft Fractures

      Mid-humeral shaft fractures can result in nerve damage, leading to various symptoms. Here are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand: This is likely due to damage to the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      2. Atrophy of the deltoid muscle: This may occur in shoulder dislocation or compression of the axilla, leading to weakness of adduction and loss of sensation over a small patch of the lateral upper arm.

      3. Inability to flex the wrist: This is controlled by the median nerve, which is more likely to be damaged in a supracondylar fracture.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is innervated by the ulnar nerve, which can be compressed at the medial epicondyle of the humerus, causing ulnar entrapment.

      While compartment syndrome can also occur with mid-humeral shaft fractures, it is unlikely if no major bleeding was observed. It is important to be aware of these potential nerve injuries and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      720.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Infraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries

      The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.

      The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.

      The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.

      The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.

      The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.

      Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.

      Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      106.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
      What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:

      Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.

      Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.

      Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.

      Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.

      Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a car accident. She is alert and receives initial resuscitation in the ED. She has an open fracture of the left tibia and is seen by the orthopaedic surgery team.
      Later during the day, she undergoes an intramedullary nailing procedure for fixing her fractured tibia. Seven days after the surgery, the patient complains of gradually worsening severe pain in the left leg.
      Upon examination, she is found to be febrile and the wound area is not markedly erythematosus and there is no discharge from the wound site. There is no left calf tenderness and no swelling. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count and inflammatory markers, and a blood culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. An X-ray and leg Doppler ultrasound imaging reveal no subcutaneous gas. An urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) report prompts the surgeon to take this patient urgently back to theatre.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteomyelitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Postoperative Patient with Severe Pain and Fever

      Possible diagnoses for a postoperative patient with sudden onset of severe pain and fever include infection in the overlying tissue or in the bone itself. Cellulitis and necrotising fasciitis are less likely, while osteomyelitis is the most probable diagnosis, as indicated by the urgent request for an MRI and the need for surgical intervention. Osteomyelitis requires prolonged intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement, and an MRI would typically show bone marrow oedema. A deep vein thrombosis is less likely due to the absence of clinical signs and ultrasound imaging findings. Cellulitis would present with superficial redness and less severe pain, while necrotising fasciitis would show subcutaneous gas on imaging. A surgical wound infection is possible but would typically involve pus discharge and not prompt urgent surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain that has been worsening over the past 3 months. She reports that the pain is particularly severe at night and she has recently noticed a painful lump in her right thigh. Although she denies any fever or weight loss, she has been experiencing a cough. Upon examination, a radiograph reveals a characteristic blastic and destructive intramedullary lesion with periosteal reaction and a sizable soft tissue mass. What is the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiotherapy followed by a wide excision of the lesion

      Correct Answer: Order a whole-body bone scan, computed tomography (CT) chest and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the entire femur

      Explanation:

      Approach to a Patient with Suspected Osteosarcoma

      Suspected osteosarcoma requires a systematic approach to establish a diagnosis and stage the disease before initiating treatment. The patient’s history and examination may suggest osteosarcoma, but staging is necessary to determine the extent of the disease and guide treatment decisions.

      The next step is to stage the patient, which involves a CT chest, a bone scan, and an MRI of the involved bone. Biopsy is required to obtain tissue diagnosis and institute therapy. Treatment of osteosarcoma involves a multidisciplinary team approach and may require preoperative multi-agent chemotherapy to downstage the tumour. The aim of surgical resection is to aim for limb salvage and limb preservation.

      Offering amputation of the affected limb is not appropriate before staging the disease and obtaining a tissue diagnosis. Biopsy will ultimately provide tissue diagnosis and guide subsequent treatment. Repeating radiographs in 3 months to look for progression would be inappropriate. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and wide excision should not be performed prior to staging the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor after undergoing a mastectomy to remove a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor after undergoing a mastectomy to remove a cancerous lump in her breast. She reports experiencing weakness in her left shoulder and difficulty lifting her arm above her head since the surgery. Her husband has also observed that her left scapula is protruding, indicating a winged scapula. Which muscle is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Scapula Winging: Understanding the Relationship

      The serratus anterior muscle plays a crucial role in stabilizing the scapula. Damage to this muscle can result in winging of the scapula, which can be caused by direct damage or damage to the long thoracic nerve. On the other hand, damage to the infraspinatus, deltoid, teres major, or pectoralis minor muscles does not cause winging of the scapula. Understanding the relationship between these muscles and scapula winging can help diagnose and treat injuries or conditions affecting the shoulder and upper back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.
      Which one of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Correct Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament tear

      Explanation:

      There are several injuries that can affect the thumb and wrist. One common injury is a tear of the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL), also known as skier’s thumb. This injury can cause pain and weakness in grasping or pinching movements. Another ligament that can be injured is the radial collateral ligament (RCL), which is important for pinch. RCL injuries typically occur during sports or after a fall onto the radial aspect of the thumb and hand.

      A Bennett fracture is another serious injury that can affect the thumb. This is an oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, often caused by a blow on a partially flexed first metacarpal. It can cause severe pain and swelling, and usually requires surgical intervention.

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath of the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus muscles. This can cause pain, tenderness, and swelling over the thumb side of the wrist, as well as difficulty gripping. Corticosteroid injections are often used to manage this condition.

      Finally, a scaphoid fracture can occur from a fall onto an outstretched hand, causing pain and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the wrist. Treatment typically involves a scaphoid cast to immobilize the wrist and prevent complications such as avascular necrosis, non-union, and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are an orthopaedic senior house officer and are seeing a patient referred by her general practitioner. He has stated in his letter that the patient has vertebral tenderness at the level of the spine of her scapula, which you confirm by examination.
      What level is this vertebrae if the patient is in her 60s?

      Your Answer: C8

      Correct Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Identifying Vertebral Levels: Landmarks and Importance in Clinical Scenarios

      Being able to identify the vertebral level is crucial in clinical scenarios, especially following trauma. It allows for effective communication with clinicians who may not be on site or at a distant tertiary center. To identify the level of the vertebral spine, certain landmarks can be used. The spine of the scapula is at T3, the most inferior aspect of the scapula is at T7, the most superior aspect of the iliac crest is at L4, and the posterior superior iliac spine is at S2. C7 is the level of the vertebra prominens, making it a useful landmark for orientation. The spine of the scapula is not found at T1, but it is found at T2. Knowing these landmarks and their corresponding vertebral levels is essential for effective communication and diagnosis in clinical scenarios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      973.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of severe pain at night due to her osteoarthritis. She has been suffering from this condition for the past 12 years and had a total knee replacement surgery on her right knee last year, which significantly improved her pain. However, for the past two months, she has been experiencing excruciating pain in her left knee. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and peptic ulcer disease and is currently taking 4 g of paracetamol daily. She tried using topical capsaicin last month, which provided some relief, but she is now seeking alternative pain management options. The patient has normal liver function tests and no history of liver disease.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's pain?

      Your Answer: Add codeine

      Explanation:

      Pain Management Options for a Patient with Knee Osteoarthritis

      When managing the pain of a patient with knee osteoarthritis, it is important to consider their medical history and current medication regimen. In this case, the patient is already taking non-opioids and topical capsaicin is not providing sufficient relief. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) analgesic ladder, the next step would be to add a weak opioid such as codeine or tramadol.

      Offering morphine modified-release would not be appropriate as it is a strong opioid and should only be considered after trying a weak opioid first. Aspirin and ibuprofen are not recommended due to the patient’s history of peptic ulcer disease.

      While a total knee replacement may ultimately be necessary to alleviate the patient’s pain, a pharmacological approach should be attempted first. This will involve assessing the patient’s fitness for surgery and anesthesia before proceeding with any surgical intervention. By managing the patient’s pain with medication, their quality of life can be improved while they await further treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury to her left anatomical snuffbox. Which structures are more likely to be affected by an injury to the anatomical snuffbox?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Snuffbox and Nerve and Artery Relations in the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral side of the wrist, bounded by tendons and limited above by the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the scaphoid and the trapezium and is crossed by the radial artery.

      The radial nerve can be damaged by a midshaft humerus fracture, leading to wrist drop, but it does not pass over the anatomical snuffbox. The median nerve can be compressed when passing through the carpal tunnel, causing tingling and numbness in the hand, but it has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar nerve can be compressed in the cubital fossa, leading to numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers, but it also has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar artery is on the medial side of the wrist and has no relation to the snuffbox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is worried about her chances of developing osteoporosis, as her mother and sister experienced pelvic fractures due to osteoporosis after menopause. What is the most effective test to determine her likelihood of developing osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a common condition among postmenopausal women, with a high risk of fractures. Genetic predisposition, lack of exercise, and immobility are some of the contributing factors. To diagnose osteoporosis, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is a commonly used test to measure bone density. It compares the patient’s bone density with that of their peer group to estimate the risk of fractures. The T-score and Z-score are used to interpret the results. A T-score higher than −1 is normal, between −1 and −2.5 is osteopenia, and below −2.5 is osteoporotic. A Z-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of individuals of the same sex, age, weight, and ethnicity.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis may suggest osteopenia, but a DEXA scan is needed for a diagnosis. Pelvic X-ray is used to detect pelvic fractures. Serum alkaline phosphatase is normal in osteoporosis patients, while serum calcium is useful in ruling out alternative diagnoses.

      In conclusion, early diagnosis of osteoporosis is crucial to prevent fractures and improve quality of life. DEXA scan is the gold standard for measuring bone density, while other tests may be used to rule out alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken to the Emergency Department where X-rays were taken. A radiologist examined the films and observed a single fracture of the carpal bone that articulates with the majority of the base of the third metacarpal bone.
      Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Capitate

      Explanation:

      The Carpal Bones: An Overview of the Bones in the Wrist

      The wrist is composed of eight small bones known as the carpal bones. These bones are arranged in two rows, with each row containing four carpal bones. The proximal row includes the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform, while the distal row includes the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.

      The capitate bone is located in the center of the wrist and articulates with the base of the third metacarpal bone. The trapezium bone is the most lateral bone in the distal row and articulates with the base of the first metacarpal bone. The hamate bone is the most medial bone in the distal row and articulates with the fourth and fifth metacarpal bones.

      The pisiform bone is a small, seed-shaped bone located on the medial side of the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones. The triquetrum bone is also located in the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones.

      Understanding the anatomy of the carpal bones is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain, swelling, and bruising after an inversion injury while playing football. What clinical signs would indicate the need for an ankle X-ray?

      Your Answer: Inability to weight-bear alone

      Correct Answer: Inability to weight-bear and pain over the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules for X-rays in Ankle and Foot Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are used to determine whether an X-ray is necessary for ankle and foot injuries. If there is pain in the malleolar zone plus bony tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or inability to weight-bear immediately post-injury and in the ED, an ankle X-ray is required. However, inability to weight-bear alone is not an indication for an X-ray, but a thorough assessment is necessary to rule out a bony injury. For foot X-rays, pain in the midfoot and bony tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular bone, or inability to weight-bear, are indications. Pain alone is not an indication for an ankle X-ray, and bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal does not warrant an X-ray. Understanding these rules can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about X-rays for ankle and foot injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In elderly patients with acute limb compartment syndrome, which symptom is a late...

    Incorrect

    • In elderly patients with acute limb compartment syndrome, which symptom is a late sign indicating a poor prognosis and is associated with local tissue hypoxia caused by increased pressure within an unyielding osseo-fascial compartment?

      Your Answer: Paraesthesia within distribution sensory nerves

      Correct Answer: Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Recognizing and Treating Compartment Syndrome: Early Signs and Prognosis

      Compartment syndrome occurs when tissue pressure within an enclosed fascial compartment rises above capillary pressure, leading to reduced blood flow to distal tissues. While direct measurement of compartmental pressures is possible, clinical assessment is crucial. Treatment involves removing occlusive dressings, elevating the affected area, and performing fasciotomy if necessary. Complete anesthesia is a late sign and indicates poor prognosis due to myoneural necrosis. Paraesthesia, or abnormal sensation, is a relatively late sign, and progression to complete anesthesia indicates a worse prognosis. Distal pulses and capillary refill may be present even with significant increases in compartmental pressure. The earliest sign is severe pain on passive muscle stretch, followed by pink shiny skin and a feeling of pressure. Swollen leg is an early sign, and prompt diagnosis and treatment at this stage can lead to a good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after she slipped on a wet kitchen floor and fell onto her outstretched hand. Her X-ray shows a fracture within 2.5 cm of the distal radius, with dorsal displacement of the distal segment and avulsion of the ulnar styloid.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smith’s fracture

      Correct Answer: Colles’ fracture

      Explanation:

      Common Fractures of the Wrist: Colles’, Smith’s, Barton’s, and Chauffeur’s Fractures

      Fractures of the wrist are common injuries, with the most frequent being the Colles’ fracture. This type of fracture occurs within 2.5 cm of the wrist and is often seen in elderly women who suffer a fall onto an outstretched hand. The Colles’ fracture is characterized by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment, radial displacement of the hand, radial shortening due to impaction, and avulsion of the ulnar styloid. Treatment involves assessing the patient’s neurovascular status, followed by reduction and fixation of the fracture with a Colles’ plaster.

      Another type of wrist fracture is the Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture with ventral displacement of the distal fragment. This injury often results from a fall onto the back of the hand. A Barton’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius with associated dorsal or volar subluxation of the distal fragment, similar to a Colles’ or reverse Colles’ fracture. Finally, a Chauffeur’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process.

      In conclusion, wrist fractures are common injuries that can be classified into different types based on their location and displacement. Proper assessment and treatment are essential for optimal recovery and function of the affected wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      92.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has fallen and fractured the rib that contributes to the costal margin at the mid-axillary line on her left side.
      Which rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line?

      Your Answer: Ninth rib

      Correct Answer: Tenth rib

      Explanation:

      The Tenth Rib and the Costal Margin

      The tenth rib plays an important role in forming the costal margin. This margin is the lower edge of the ribcage, and it helps to protect the organs in the abdomen. Specifically, the tenth rib forms the costal margin at the mid-axillary line. It is important to note that the eighth, seventh, and ninth ribs do not form the costal margin. Additionally, the eleventh and twelfth ribs are shorter than the tenth rib and do not reach as far as the mid-axillary line. Understanding the anatomy of the ribcage and the costal margin can be helpful in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man fell off his motorbike and sustained a fracture to his left tibia, which was treated with an intramedullary nail. He developed severe pain that was unresponsive to morphine during the night after his surgery. The pain worsened and was accompanied by a tingling sensation and a sensation of tightness in his leg. On examination, his left leg was swollen and tense, and he experienced pain when his toes were passively flexed. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Raise the limb and monitor in 2 hours

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate fasciotomy

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases, leading to ischaemic injury. The classical symptoms of compartment syndrome include increasing pain, paraesthesiae, and other signs of ischaemia. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to the loss of the affected limb.

      The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is usually a clinical one. However, if any doubt exists, compartment pressures can be measured. If the pressure is greater than 30 mmHg, immediate decompression by fasciotomy is necessary.

      Treatment should not be delayed if compartment syndrome is suspected. Delaying treatment may lead to the loss of the limb. Opioid analgesia may be prescribed to help with the patient’s pain, but it will not treat the underlying problem.

      If a patient presents with classical symptoms of acute ischaemia of the leg, they should be assessed for the six Ps: pain, pallor, pulseless, paraesthesiae, paralysis, and perishingly cold. If these symptoms are present, immediate fasciotomy is necessary.

      After treatment, the patient should be monitored for pain levels over the next 24 hours. Raising the limb and monitoring it in 2 hours can also be helpful. However, the most important thing is to recognize the signs of compartment syndrome and seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a lag screw fixation of a medial malleolar fracture. The student attempts to remember the structures in the vicinity of the medial malleolus.
      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately posterior to the tibial nerve in this region

      Correct Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure passing behind the malleolus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Medial Malleolus: Clarifying Structures Passing Behind

      The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass behind it, and their precise arrangement can be confusing. Here are some clarifications:

      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most posterior structure passing behind the malleolus.
      – The structures passing behind the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are: the tendon of the tibialis posterior, the tendon of the flexor digitorum longus, the posterior tibial vein, the posterior tibial artery, the tibial nerve, and the flexor hallucis longus.
      – The tendon of the flexor digitorum longus lies immediately posterior to that of the tibialis posterior.
      – The great saphenous vein passes in front of the medial malleolus where it can be used for emergency venous access.
      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies anterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle.
      – The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately anterior to the tibial nerve in this region.

      Understanding the anatomy of the medial malleolus and the structures passing behind it is important for medical professionals who may need to access or treat these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      618.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman fell down some stairs and fractured the neck of her right femur. Fracture of the femoral neck may lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head as a result of the interruption of which artery?

      Your Answer: Lateral circumflex femoral

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Lower Body: Functions and Importance

      The lower body is supplied with blood by various arteries, each with its own specific function. The medial circumflex femoral artery, for instance, is responsible for providing blood to the femoral neck. However, in cases of femoral neck fractures, this artery may be ruptured, leading to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      The first perforating branch of the deep femoral artery, on the other hand, supplies the posterior compartment of the thigh, including the hamstrings. Meanwhile, the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery, is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall.

      The internal pudendal artery, on the other hand, is the primary source of blood to the perineum. Lastly, the lateral circumflex femoral artery supplies the lateral thigh and hip, although the primary supply to the head of the femur usually comes from the medial femoral circumflex. Understanding the functions and importance of these arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to the lower body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with a painful left hip and difficulty walking. Imaging revealed a fracture of the left femoral head and a compression fracture of the T10 vertebra. She had no significant medical history prior to this incident.
      What is the most probable underlying condition in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteoporosis: A Disease of Reduced Bone Mass

      Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by reduced bone mass, leading to increased porosity of the skeleton and a higher risk of fractures. This patient is likely suffering from osteoporosis with accelerated bone loss, which can be exacerbated by physical inactivity and decreased muscle mass. While osteoporosis can be localized to a specific bone or region, it can also affect the entire skeleton as a manifestation of a metabolic bone disease. The most common forms of osteoporosis are senile and postmenopausal osteoporosis, which are characterized by critical loss of bone mass that makes the skeleton vulnerable to fractures.

      Other conditions, such as osteogenesis imperfecta, acute osteomyelitis, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and metastatic breast carcinoma, can also affect bone health but present differently and have different underlying causes. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of osteoporosis to prevent and manage this disease effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rotator cuff tendonitis

      Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in a bent position. She finds it challenging to extend it without using her other hand, and occasionally hears a clicking sound when she does so.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal joint

      Correct Answer: Trigger finger

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Conditions: Trigger Finger, Dupuytren’s Contracture, and Osteoarthritis

      Trigger Finger: A common cause of hand pain and disability, trigger finger occurs when the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This results in a fixed flexion of the finger, which pops back suddenly when released. It may be due to trauma or have no obvious cause. Treatment may include corticosteroid injection or tendon release surgery.

      Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes a fixed flexion contracture of the hand, making it difficult to straighten the affected fingers.

      Osteoarthritis: A degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis may cause deformity and pain in the affected joint, but not the symptoms of trigger finger.

      Other possible hand conditions include cramp and tetany, which may cause muscle spasms and tingling sensations. It is important to seek medical attention for any persistent hand pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a match. He arrived at the Emergency Department in visible discomfort with a deformed right shoulder that appeared flattened and drooped lower than his left. An X-ray revealed an anterior dislocation.
      What is the name of the nerve that passes around the surgical neck of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Anterior branch of the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Branches and their Innervations in the Upper Limb

      The upper limb is innervated by various nerves that originate from the brachial plexus. Each nerve has specific branches that innervate different muscles and areas of the arm. Here are some important nerve branches and their innervations in the upper limb:

      1. Anterior branch of the axillary nerve: This nerve branch winds around the surgical neck of the humerus and innervates the teres minor, deltoid, glenohumeral joint, and skin over the inferior part of the deltoid.

      2. Median nerve: This nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and innervates the muscles of the anterior forearm, as well as the skin over the palmar aspect of the hand.

      3. Lateral cutaneous nerve: This nerve is a continuation of the posterior branch of the axillary nerve and sweeps around the posterior border of the deltoid, innervating the skin over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      4. Posterior interosseous nerve: This nerve is a branch of the radial nerve and does not wind around the surgical neck of the humerus. It innervates the muscles of the posterior forearm.

      5. Radial nerve: This nerve winds around the midshaft of the humerus and innervates the muscles of the posterior arm and forearm, as well as the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm.

      Understanding the innervations of these nerve branches is important in diagnosing and treating upper limb injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old girl attends the Minor Injuries Unit, having ‘twisted’ her left ankle...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl attends the Minor Injuries Unit, having ‘twisted’ her left ankle during a hockey match. She played on after the injury and has come to see you after the game ended, as her ankle has become increasingly swollen and painful.
      She has walked into the Emergency Department unaided. There is marked swelling around the left ankle. There is some tenderness anterior to the lateral malleolus. Otherwise, there is no bony tenderness on examination of the ankle, foot and knee.
      Select the most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Advise analgesia, rest, ice and elevation, then discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Ankle Sprains in the Emergency Department

      Ankle sprains are a common presentation in the Emergency Department. The initial management of ankle sprains involves analgesia, rest, ice and elevation. X-ray imaging is not indicated unless the patient meets the Ottawa ankle rules, which include the inability to weight-bear and point tenderness at specific areas.

      In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for X-ray imaging and can be discharged with standard therapy for sprains. Compressive bandaging is no longer recommended, and first-line therapy should include paracetamol and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

      The patient’s symptoms and signs suggest an injury of the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL), which is commonly damaged in inversion injuries of the ankle. Referral to orthopaedics is not necessary at this time, and ankle traction is not indicated unless there is an obvious deformity or displaced fracture.

      In summary, the management of ankle sprains in the Emergency Department involves careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and adherence to the Ottawa ankle rules to determine the need for X-ray imaging. Standard therapy for sprains should include analgesia, rest, ice and elevation, with consideration of first-line pharmacotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department the morning after a fall on the dry ski slope. She fell with her thumb outstretched and caught it in the matting on the slope surface.
      Upon examination, the thumb is swollen and bruised, and she experiences difficulty making a pinching movement between her index finger and thumb. A palpable mass is present on the ulnar aspect of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. A plain X-ray shows no fracture or dislocation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Simple thumb dislocation

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)

      Explanation:

      Common Hand Injuries and Diagnostic Considerations

      Ruptured Ulnar Collateral Ligament (UCL):
      The UCL provides stability to the ulnar side of the MCP joint of the thumb. Injuries typically occur from forced abduction of the thumb or repetitive abduction movements. Diagnosis is made through X-ray to rule out associated fractures and lateral stress testing. Ultrasound or MRI may be required for further evaluation. Surgical repair is necessary due to the functional importance of the UCL, although partial tears may be managed with a thumb spica splint and physiotherapy.

      Ruptured Radial Collateral Ligament (RCL):
      The mechanism of injury is more consistent with a UCL injury, and swelling is localized to the ulnar aspect of the MCP joint.

      Scaphoid Fracture:
      Typically caused by a Fall Onto an Outstretched Hand (FOOSH), scaphoid injuries present with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain on axial compression of the thumb, tenderness over the scaphoid tubercle, or pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist.

      Simple Thumb Dislocation:
      The thumb is bruised and swollen but not deformed. X-ray does not show any fracture or dislocation.

      Undisplaced Proximal Phalanx Fracture:
      The X-ray shows no evidence of fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the right kneecap. The patient reports difficulty bending the knee, and the symptoms are impacting his ability to work.
      Based on the history and examination, the clinician suspects a diagnosis of 'housemaid's knee'.
      'Housemaid's knee' is characterized by inflammation of the:

      Your Answer: Suprapatellar bursa

      Correct Answer: Prepatellar bursa

      Explanation:

      Bursae of the Knee: Locations and Causes of Inflammation

      The knee joint is surrounded by several small fluid-filled sacs called bursae, which act as cushions between bones, tendons, and muscles. However, these bursae can become inflamed due to repetitive stress or injury, causing pain and discomfort. Here are some of the bursae located around the knee joint and their associated conditions:

      1. Prepatellar bursa: This bursa is located between the skin and the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repeated friction, such as in professions that require prolonged kneeling.

      2. Popliteus bursa: This bursa lies between the popliteus tendon and the lateral condyle of the tibia and can become inflamed due to overuse or injury.

      3. Suprapatellar bursa: This bursa can be felt during a knee exam and may become inflamed due to trauma or infection.

      4. Infrapatellar bursa: This bursa is located below the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repetitive kneeling, hence the name clergyman’s knee.

      5. Semimembranous bursa: This bursa is located at the back of the knee and can become inflamed due to injury or underlying conditions such as arthritis.

      In conclusion, understanding the locations and causes of knee bursitis can help individuals take preventive measures and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with...

    Correct

    • A radiologist examines the ankle and foot X-rays of an elderly man with a suspected ankle fracture. A fracture of the talus is noted, with the fracture line interrupting the subtalar joint.
      With which of the following bones does the talus articulate at the subtalar joint?

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      Articulations of the Talus Bone in the Foot

      The talus bone is a key component of the foot, connecting to several other bones through various joints. Here are the articulations of the talus bone in the foot:

      Subtalar Joint with Calcaneus
      The subtalar joint connects the talus bone to the calcaneus bone. This joint allows for inversion and eversion of the foot.

      Talocalcaneonavicular Joint with Calcaneus and Navicular
      The talocalcaneonavicular joint is a ball-and-socket joint that connects the talus bone to the calcaneus and navicular bones. The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament completes this joint, connecting the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus to the plantar surface of the navicular bone.

      Medial Malleoli of Tibia
      The talus bone also articulates with the medial malleoli of the tibia bone. This joint allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot.

      Lateral Malleoli of Fibula
      The lateral malleoli of the fibula bone also articulate with the talus bone. This joint allows for lateral stability of the ankle.

      No Direct Articulation with Lateral Cuneiform
      The talus bone does not directly articulate with the lateral cuneiform bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his outstretched arm, resulting in a heavy fall. The team doctor examines him and notices a loss of contour in his right shoulder. Additionally, the man experiences numbness in the C5 dermatome of his right shoulder, which is commonly referred to as the regimental badge area. Which nerve is the most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in Upper Limb Trauma

      The upper limb is susceptible to various nerve injuries following trauma. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries that can occur in the upper limb:

      Axillary nerve: Shoulder dislocation can cause injury to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Sensation in the skin innervated by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve can be tested as an alternative.

      Radial nerve: Mid-humeral shaft fractures can damage the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      Ulnar nerve: Cubital tunnel syndrome and fracture of the medial epicondyle can cause ulnar nerve injury, leading to weakness in wrist flexion and a claw hand deformity.

      Median nerve: Supracondylar humerus fractures, wearing a tight forearm case, wrist laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome can injure the median nerve, causing sensory loss and motor deficits such as loss of pronation in the forearm, weakness in wrist flexion, and loss of thumb opposition.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, while the cutaneous distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is located more distally to the hand.

      In conclusion, understanding the common nerve injuries that can occur in upper limb trauma is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      149.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniscal tear

      Explanation:

      A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.

      A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.

      Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.

      Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.

      Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents after she fell off a swing. She reports that she was able to brace her fall with her left hand. In the Emergency Department, the patient’s vitals are stable. Examination of the left upper extremity demonstrates tenderness above the elbow, with evidence of soft tissue swelling. A plain film demonstrates a supracondylar fracture of the left humerus.
      Which of the following structures is most at risk?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Brachial artery

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Potential Vascular and Nerve Injuries in Supracondylar Fractures of the Humerus

      Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are more common in children than in adults and can result in significant vascular and nerve injuries. The brachial artery, located anteriorly to the humerus, is at significant risk for injury resulting in compartment syndrome or Volkmann’s contracture. The radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm, runs along the radial groove in the midshaft of the humerus and is more likely injured in midshaft fractures or after prolonged compression of the posterior aspect of the arm. The median nerve may also be injured in supracondylar fractures, but is less likely to be affected than the brachial artery or ulnar nerve. The ulnar artery and radial artery are distal continuations of the brachial artery and are not directly injured in supracondylar fractures of the humerus. Understanding the potential vascular and nerve injuries associated with supracondylar fractures is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      18.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (12/30) 40%
Passmed