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  • Question 1 - Bordetella pertussis is spread via which of the following routes: ...

    Correct

    • Bordetella pertussis is spread via which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      Bordetella pertussis is a Gram negative coccobacillus that causes whooping cough. B. pertussis is spread via the respiratory droplet route and expresses fimbriae that aid their adhesion to the ciliated epithelium of the upper respiratory tract, and produce a number of exotoxins, causing the characteristic thickened bronchial secretions, paralysis of cilia and lymphocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer: Gastric malignancy

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori is a ubiquitous organism that is present in about 50% of the global population. Chronic infection with H pylori causes atrophic and even metaplastic changes in the stomach, and it has a known association with peptic ulcer disease. The most common route of H pylori infection is either oral-to-oral or faecal-to-oral contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has an elevated potassium level of 6.7 mmol/L. All of the following conditions may cause elevated potassium levels, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Beta-blockers

      Correct Answer: Bartter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bartter’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive renal tubular disorder characterized by hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, metabolic alkalosis, and hyperreninemia with normal blood pressure. The underlying kidney abnormality results in excessive urinary losses of sodium, chloride, and potassium. Bartter’s syndrome does not cause an elevated potassium level, but instead causes a decrease in its concentration (hypokalaemia). The other choices are causes of hyperkalaemia or elevated potassium levels. Renal failure, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), congenital adrenal hyperplasia, renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, tumour syndrome, and acidosis are non-drug causes of hyperkalaemia. On the other hand, drugs that can cause hyperkalaemia include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.Which of...

    Correct

    • Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: T-lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Innate, or non-specific, immunity is the immune system we are born with.There are three aspects of innate immunity:1. Anatomical barriers, such as:The cough reflexEnzymes in tears and skin oilsMucus – which traps bacteria and small particlesSkinStomach acid2. Humoral barriers, such as:The complement systemInterleukin-13. Cellular barriers, such as:NeutrophilsMacrophagesDendritic cellsNatural killer cellsAntibody production is part of the specific, or inducible immune response. T-lymphocytesare responsible for the cell mediated immune response which is part of specific, or inducible immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately describes the extensor pollicis brevis muscle?

      Your Answer: It flexes the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint

      Correct Answer: It lies on the medial side of abductor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      Extensor pollicis brevis is a short and slender muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm, extending from the posterior surface of radius to the proximal phalanx of thumb. It is one of the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus and extensor indicis muscles.Extensor pollicis brevis is a deep extensor of the thumb that lies deep to extensor digitorum muscle. It sits directly medial to abductor pollicis longus and posterolateral to extensor pollicis longus muscle. Just above the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis obliquely crosses the tendons of extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles.Extensor pollicis brevis is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor pollicis brevis receives its blood supply by posterior interosseous artery and perforating branches from the anterior interosseous artery, which are the branches of common interosseous artery. The common interosseous artery arises immediately below the tuberosity of radius from the ulnar artery.Together with extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis is in charge of extension of the thumb in the first metacarpophalangeal joint. It also extends the thumb in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. This movement is important in the anatomy of the grip, as it enables letting go of an object. As it crosses the wrist, extensor pollicis brevis also participates in the extension and abduction of this joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: Hand-foot syndrome

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCDBone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarctionAnaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in natureAplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte countInfection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially SalmonellaGrowth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweightHand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in childrenAcute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe diseasePulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCDAvascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusionCentral nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is strokeOphthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitisCardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atriumGastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involvedGenitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCDDermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)?

      Your Answer: HIT is a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.

      Correct Answer: HIT typically develops 5-10 days after starting heparin.

      Explanation:

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a prothrombotic disorder caused by antibodies that recognize complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin. HIT is frequently considered in the differential diagnosis of thrombocytopenia occurring in patients on heparin therapy. HIT is a challenging diagnosis because of routine heparin use in hospitalized patients, the common occurrence of thrombocytopenia. The process of heparin dependent IgG antibodies binding to heparin/platelet factor 4 complexes activates platelets and produces a hypercoagulable state. This syndrome typically develops 5-10 days (range 4-15 days) after heparin is commenced. It can occur with unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparin, or, rarely, fondaparinux. The diagnosis of HIT requires the combination of a compatible clinical picture and laboratory confirmation of the presence of heparin dependent platelet activating HIT antibodies. Discontinuation of heparin alone or initiation of a vitamin K antagonist alone like warfarin, is not sufficient to stop the development of thrombosis in patients with acute HIT. If there is moderate clinical suspicion for HIT, all sources of heparin must be discontinued and there must be consideration of anticoagulant treatment with a non-heparin drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following nerves provides sensory innervation to the anteromedial and anterosuperior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves provides sensory innervation to the anteromedial and anterosuperior aspects of the external ear?

      Your Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      Sensory innervation to the external ear is supplied by both cranial and spinal nerves. Branches of the trigeminal, facial, and vagus nerves (CN V, VII, X) are the cranial nerve components, while the lesser occipital (C2, C3) and greater auricular (C2, C3) nerves are the spinal nerve components involved. The lateral surface of the tympanic membrane, the external auditory canal, and the external acoustic meatus are all innervated by nervus intermedius (a branch of CN VII), the auriculotemporal nerve (CN V3), and the auricular branch of the vagus nerve. The concha receives split innervation from nervus intermedius, the auricular branch of the vagus nerve, and the greater auricular (spinal) nerve. Beyond the concha, the anteromedial and anterosuperior parts of the pinna are innervated by the auriculotemporal nerve, and a portion of the lateral helix by the lesser occipital nerve. The greater auricular nerve provides innervation to the area of the pinna inferolateral to the lobule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement of her blood glucose level is done and found to be grossly elevated. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. A fixed rate insulin infusion is given as part of her treatment.Which of these is an action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis

      Correct Answer: Stimulates lipogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is an anabolic hormone. Its actions can be broadly divided into:Lipid metabolismProtein metabolism andCarbohydrate metabolismFor lipid metabolism, insulin:Stimulates lipogenesisInhibits lipolysis by lipaseFor carbohydrate metabolism, insulin:Decreases gluconeogenesisStimulates glycolysisPromotes glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissuePromotes glycogen storageIncreases glycogenesisDecreases glycogenolysisProtein metabolism:Stimulates protein synthesisAccelerates net formation of proteinStimulates amino acid uptakeInhibits protein degradationInhibits amino acid conversion to glucose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You've been asked to visit a 20-year-old patient  who has been complaining of stomach pain,...

    Correct

    • You've been asked to visit a 20-year-old patient  who has been complaining of stomach pain, diarrhoea, and bloating. The  GP recently saw the patient and is now looking into numerous possible reasons for stomach hypermotility.Which of the following factors contributes to increased stomach motility?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is a peptide hormone that aids in gastric motility by stimulating the generation of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach. G-cells in the stomach’s pyloric antrum, the duodenum, and the pancreas release it.The following stimuli cause the release of gastrin:Stimulation of the vagus nerveHypercalcaemiastomach bloatingProteins that have been partially digested, particularly amino acids.The presence of acid and somatostatin inhibits the release of gastrin.Gastrin’s main actions are as follows:Gastric parietal cells are stimulated to release hydrochloric acid.ECL cells are stimulated to produce histamine.Gastric parietal cell maturation and fundal growth stimulationCauses the secretion of pepsinogen by the gastric chief cells.Improves antral muscle mobility stimulates gastric contractionsIncreases gastric emptying rate and stimulates pancreatic secretionGallbladder emptying is induced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into...

    Correct

    • A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into cardiac arrest. What changes in the ECG may indicate the incident of cardiac arrest in this patient?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves and broad QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Severe hyperkalaemia can result in a heart attack or a life-threatening arrhythmia. T waves become narrow-based, pointed, and tall if hyperkalaemia is not treated. The QRS complex widens and eventually merges with the T wave, resulting in a classic sine-wave electrocardiogram. Ventricular fibrillation and asystole are likely to follow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the effect of activated vitamin D on the renal handling of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the effect of activated vitamin D on the renal handling of calcium:

      Your Answer: Increases calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule

      Explanation:

      Activated vitamin D acts to:GUT:increase calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (the main action)KIDNEYS:increase renal calcium reabsorption (in the distal tubule via activation of a basolateral Ca2+ATPase pump), increase renal phosphate reabsorption, inhibit 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity in the kidneys (negative feedback)PARATHYROID GLANDS:inhibit PTH secretion from the parathyroid glands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a...

    Correct

    • In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a VF cardiac arrest.During an adult VF arrest, which of the following points should be treated with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: After the 3 rd shock, once chest compressions have been resumed

      Explanation:

      In non-shockable (PEA/asystole) cardiac arrests, adrenaline should be given as soon as circulatory access is gained. The dose is 1 mg via IV or IO (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000).Once chest compressions have been resumed after the third shock in a shockable (Vf/pVT) cardiac arrest, adrenaline should be administered. The dosage is one milligram (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000)It should be given every 3-5 minutes after that (i.e. alternate loops) and without interrupting chest compressions.Systemic vasoconstriction is caused by the alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline, which raises coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures.Adrenaline’s beta-adrenergic effects are inotropic (increased myocardial contractility) and chronotropic (increased heart rate), and they can increase coronary and cerebral blood flow. However, concomitant increases in myocardial oxygen consumption and ectopic ventricular arrhythmias (especially in the absence of acidaemia), transient hypoxemia due to pulmonary arteriovenous shunting, impaired microcirculation, and increased post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction may offset these benefits.Although there is no evidence of long-term benefit from its use in cardiac arrest, the improved short-term survival reported in some studies justifies its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis...

    Correct

    • Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The brachialis muscle is a prime flexor of the forearm at the elbow joint. It is fusiform in shape and located in the anterior (flexor) compartment of the arm, deep to the biceps brachii. The brachialis is a broad muscle, with its broadest part located in the middle rather than at either of its extremities. It is sometimes divided into two parts, and may fuse with the fibres of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, or pronator teres muscles. It also functions to form part of the floor of the cubital fossa.The brachialis is primarily supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6). In addition, a small lateral portion of the muscle is innervated by the radial nerve (C7).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney disease.Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is correct?

      Your Answer: It is only produced in the kidney

      Correct Answer: It protects red blood cell progenitors from apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the formation of red blood cells (red cell production). It is mostly produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney, which are located near the PCT. It is also produced in the liver’s perisinusoidal cells, however this is more common during the foetal and perinatal periods.The kidneys produce and secrete erythropoietin in response to hypoxia. On red blood cells, erythropoietin has two main effects:- It encourages stem cells in the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.- It protects red blood cell progenitors and precursors from apoptosis by targeting them in the bone marrow.As a result of the increased red cell mass, the oxygen-carrying capacity and oxygen delivery increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An ambulance transports a 23-year-old woman who has taken a witnessed overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance transports a 23-year-old woman who has taken a witnessed overdose of her mother's diazepam tablets. She has no significant medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis.In this case, what is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE FIRST DRUG TREATMENT?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil IV 0.5 mg

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil IV 200 μg

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that can be helpful in some overdose situations. It works quickly (in less than a minute), but the effects are fleeting, lasting less than an hour. The dose is 200 micrograms every 1-2 minutes with a maximum dose of 3 milligrams per hour.Flumazenil should be avoided by patients who are addicted to benzodiazepines or who take tricyclic antidepressants because it can cause withdrawal symptoms. It can cause seizures or cardiac arrest in these situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following muscles laterally rotates the hip? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles laterally rotates the hip?

      Your Answer: Gluteus medius

      Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      External (lateral) rotation at the hip joint is produced by the gluteus maximus together with a group of 6 small muscles (lateral rotators): piriformis, obturator internus, superior and inferior gemelli, quadratus femoris and obturator externus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus longus.Peroneus longus receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Oedema can occur as a result of any of the following WITH THE...

    Correct

    • Oedema can occur as a result of any of the following WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:

      Your Answer: Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure

      Explanation:

      Oedema is defined as a palpable swelling produced by the expansion of the interstitial fluid volume. A variety of clinical conditions are associated with the development of oedema, including heart failure, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome. The development of oedema requires an alteration in capillary dynamics in a direction that favours an increase in net filtration and also inadequate removal of the additional filtered fluid by lymphatic drainage. Oedema may form in response to an elevation in capillary hydraulic pressure (which increases the delta hydraulic pressure) or increased capillary permeability, or it can be due to disruption of the endothelial glycocalyx, decreased interstitial compliance, a lower plasma oncotic pressure (which reduces the delta oncotic pressure), or a combination of these changes. Oedema can also be induced by lymphatic obstruction since the fluid that is normally filtered is not returned to the systemic circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The flow of ions across a cell membrane causes electrical activity in biological...

    Correct

    • The flow of ions across a cell membrane causes electrical activity in biological tissues. Excitable tissues are specialized tissues that may generate a significant electrical signal called an action potential, which is followed by a refractory period.Which set of ion channels is responsible for the refractory period? 

      Your Answer: Sodium channels

      Explanation:

      A refractory period follows each action potential. The absolute refractory time and the relative refractory period are two divisions of refractory periods. Because the sodium channels seal after an AP, they enter an inactive state during which they cannot be reopened regardless of membrane potential, this time occurs.The sodium channels slowly come out of inactivation during the relative refractory period that follows. During this time, a stronger stimulus than that required to initiate an action potential can excite the cell. The strength of the stimulus required early in the relative refractory period is relatively high, and it steadily decreases as more sodium channels recover from the inactivation of the refractory period.Nodes of Ranvier are periodic holes in a myelinate axon when there is no myelin and the axonal membrane is exposed. There are no gated ion channels in the portion of the axon covered by the myelin sheath, but there is a high density of ion channels in the Nodes of Ranvier. Action potentials can only occur at the nodes as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Incorrect

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Sinusitis

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo is a highly contagious infection of the superficial epidermis that most commonly affects young children but can occur in any age group. In children it is the most common bacterial skin infection and it is the third most common skin disease overall, behind dermatitis and viral warts.The commonest causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenesis the second commonest and causes fewer cases, either alone or in combination withS. aureus.The streptococcal form tends to be commoner in warmer, more humid climates. (Hirschmann JV. Impetigo: etiology and therapy. Curr Clin Top Infect Dis. 2002;22:42–51.)Impetigo is most commonly spread by direct person-to-person contact, and can spread rapidly through families and school classes. It can also, less commonly, be spread by indirect contact.There are two main forms of impetigo:Non-bullous impetigo – lesions usually start as tiny pustules or vesicles that evolve rapidly into honey-crusted plaques that tend to be under 2 cm in diameter. These can be itchy but are rarely painful.Bullous impetigo – lesions have a thin roof and tend to rupture spontaneously. This type is more likely to be painful and may be associated with systemic upset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old male presents to your clinic with the complaint of recurrent fevers...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents to your clinic with the complaint of recurrent fevers over the past three months. On documentation of the fever, it is noted that the fever increases and decreases in a cyclical pattern over a 1-2 week period. After the appropriate investigations, a diagnosis of Pel-Ebstein fever is made. Which ONE of the following conditions is most likely to cause this patient's fever?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      The release of cytokines from Reed-Sternberg cells can cause fever in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma, which increases and decreases in a cyclical pattern of 1 to 2 weeks. This is called Pel-Ebstein or Ebstein-Cardarelli fever, specifically seen in Hodgkin lymphoma. The fever is always high grade and can reach 40 degrees or higher.Cyclical fever in other conditions is common but is not termed as Pel-Ebstein fever. This term is reserved only with Hodgkin lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary...

    Incorrect

    • An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary calcium and incidence of hip fractures among post-menopausal women. The following are the data obtained from the study:No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium: 500No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium and suffered a hip fracture: 10No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo: 500No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo and suffered a hip fracture: 25Compute for the absolute risk reduction of a hip fracture.

      Your Answer: None of the other options

      Correct Answer: 0.03

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is computed as the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treatment group (ART).ARR = ARC-ARTARR = (25/500) – (10/500)ARR = 0.03

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      76.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - On which of the following is preload primarily dependent? ...

    Correct

    • On which of the following is preload primarily dependent?

      Your Answer: End-diastolic volume

      Explanation:

      Preload refers to the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes before contraction. It is therefore related to muscle sarcomere length. The sarcomere length cannot be determined in the intact heart, and so, other indices of preload are used, like ventricular end-diastolic volume or pressure. The end-diastolic pressure and volume of the ventricles increase when venous return to the heart is increased, and this stretches the sarcomeres, which increase their preload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following neurotransmitter and receptor combinations is present at the neuromuscular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neurotransmitter and receptor combinations is present at the neuromuscular junction:

      Your Answer: Noradrenaline acting at beta receptors

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine acting at nicotinic receptors

      Explanation:

      At the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released from the prejunctional membrane which acts on cholinergic nicotinic receptors on the postjunctional membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his upper volar forearm. Upon further exploration and observation, it was revealed that the nerve that innervates the pronator teres muscle has been damaged. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged in the case?

      Your Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Correct Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator teres syndrome (PTS) is caused by a compression of the median nerve (MN) by the pronator teres (PT) muscle in the forearm. The median nerve, C6 and C7, innervates the pronator teres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates gluteus medius.​The gluteus...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates gluteus medius.​The gluteus medius muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Correct Answer: Superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      Gluteus minimus is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.Gluteus medius is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.Gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?

      Your Answer: >5 mg

      Correct Answer: >10 mg

      Explanation:

      An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:TremorAgitationSweatingInsomniaHeadacheIncreased body temperatureIncreased blood pressureDiarrhoea and vomitingLess common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:SeizuresAcute psychosisThyroid stormTachycardiaArrhythmiasComaThe continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.TSH levels in the blood are low.If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following are physiological effects of thyroid hormones except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are physiological effects of thyroid hormones except:

      Your Answer: Increased glycogenesis

      Explanation:

      Thyroid hormones have multiple physiological effects on the body. These include:1. Heat production (thermogenesis)2. Increased basal metabolic rate3. Metabolic effects: (a) Increase in protein turnover (both synthesis and degradation are increased, although overall effect is catabolic)(b) Increase in lipolysis(c)Increase in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis4. Enhanced catecholamine effect – Increase in heart rate, stroke volume and thus cardiac output5. Important role in growth and development

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      15.6
      Seconds

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