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  • Question 1 - Which statement about nail changes is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about nail changes is accurate?

      Your Answer: Bacterial endocarditis is the most common cause of splinter haemorrhages

      Correct Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Common Nail Changes and Their Causes

      Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:

      Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.

      Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.

      White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.

      Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.

      Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.6
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tinea corporis

      Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes

      Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:

      Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.

      Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.

      Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.6
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis I

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations

      There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.

      Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.

      Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.

      Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.

      Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old nursing home resident with a history of hypothyroidism and heart failure presents to you with a complaint of dry, itchy skin that is particularly bothersome on her legs. Upon examination, you observe erythematosus, dry skin on her legs with an unusual pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asteatotic eczema

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Asteatotic Eczema, Contact Dermatitis, Lichen Planus, Scabies, and Venous Ulceration

      Asteatotic eczema is a skin condition that commonly affects elderly individuals due to over-washing and dry winter climate. It can also be associated with diuretic use and hypothyroidism. The condition causes dry, itchy skin with a unique crazy paving pattern on the limbs. Treatment involves using emollients and mild topical steroids.

      Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, is caused by friction and environmental factors such as cold or exposure to chemicals like detergents and solvents. It typically affects the hands and does not display the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.

      Lichen planus is characterized by a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape. It presents with a lace-like pattern, unlike the crazy paving pattern seen in asteatotic eczema.

      Scabies is an itchy rash caused by mites that burrow under the skin’s surface. It often affects the very young and elderly, particularly those who live in crowded areas or institutional care. It presents with burrows, particularly on the web spaces between fingers, followed by a hypersensitivity rash. Treatment involves using topical insecticides like 5% permethrin.

      Finally, venous ulceration is present on the lower limbs and can be itchy if associated with venous eczema. However, the legs often display a brown pigmentation of haemosiderin, and a venous ulcer would not present as described in this question.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics of these common skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
      Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?

      Your Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?

      Your Answer: Tinea capitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia

      Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.

      Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.

      On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

      In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old retired farmer has switched his General Practitioner (GP) and comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired farmer has switched his General Practitioner (GP) and comes in for a check-up. During the appointment, he asks for a review of several lesions on his forehead.

      Upon examination, he is bald and has multiple scaly, crusted lesions on his mid-frontal scalp, along with a keratinous horn with a smooth base on the helix of his right ear. He mentions that he had similar lesions on his scalp before. These were treated with a cream that made the lesions worse for four weeks before completely resolving when the treatment was finished.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

      Correct Answer: Actinic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Lesions: Actinic Keratosis, Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis, Basal Cell Carcinoma, Lentigo Maligna, and Seborrhoeic Keratosis

      Skin lesions can be difficult to differentiate, but understanding their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment. Actinic keratosis is a pre-malignant condition that is more common in sun-exposed patients, often presenting as scaly lesions on bald areas. Treatment with Efudix may initially worsen the lesions before improving. Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis is a benign condition characterized by a tender, firm lesion on the ear due to pressure from sleeping on that side. It is treated with strong topical steroids and is not associated with a keratinous horn. Basal cell carcinoma is a common skin cancer associated with sun exposure, presenting with telangiectasia and a rolled edge. Lentigo maligna is a malignant lesion associated with sun exposure, typically pigmented and occurring on the face. Seborrhoeic keratosis is a common benign lesion that can mimic other lesions, but is not associated with sun exposure and is often found on the back, appearing stuck-on rather than scaly. Understanding the characteristics of these skin lesions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with a melanoma on his left hand, which measures 1.5 cm. He is booked in to have surgery to remove it.
      During the excision biopsy what margin size will be taken?

      Your Answer: 3 mm

      Correct Answer: 2 mm

      Explanation:

      Surgical Margins for Skin Cancer Excision

      When removing skin cancer through excision biopsy, it is important to use appropriate surgical margins to ensure complete removal of the cancerous cells. The size of the margin depends on the type and thickness of the cancer.

      For melanomas, a 2 mm margin is used for the initial excision biopsy. After calculating the Breslow thickness, an additional wide excision is made with margins ranging from 1 cm to 2 cm, depending on the thickness of the melanoma. A 1 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring 1.0–4.0 mm, while a 2 cm margin is used for melanomas measuring >4 mm.

      Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) requires a 4 mm excision margin, while basal-cell carcinoma (BCC) requires a 3 mm margin.

      Using appropriate surgical margins is crucial for successful removal of skin cancer and preventing recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash on her face, characterised by dark-coloured lesions with periodic background scaling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals well-defined patches of flaky skin which is yellow and dry on the scalp. There is also flaking in the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and behind the ears. The patient’s eyelids are also red and inflamed. They report itchiness and discomfort.
      Given the likely diagnosis of this patient, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Emollients

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrheic Dermatitis and Psoriasis

      Seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis are two common skin conditions that can cause discomfort and irritation. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage symptoms and improve overall skin health.

      Ketoconazole is the preferred medication for treating seborrheic dermatitis in adults. It is available as a 2% cream and should be applied once or twice daily for at least four weeks. Antifungal shampoo can also be used on the scalp. For infants with seborrheic dermatitis, clotrimazole is a suitable option and should be applied 2-3 times a day for up to four weeks.

      Emollients are often used to relieve symptoms of psoriasis by moisturizing dry skin and reducing itching. They can be used before starting steroid treatment for psoriasis. It is important to avoid using soap and shaving creams on the face, as they can exacerbate irritation. Instead, non-greasy emollients or emollient soaps can be used as an alternative.

      Topical steroids are commonly used to treat psoriasis by reducing skin inflammation. Mild topical steroids can be used on the face or skinfolds. It is important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider and to use these medications as directed.

      In summary, there are several treatment options available for managing seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis. By working with your healthcare provider, you can find the best approach to improve your skin health and overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because she is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because she is concerned about patches of depigmentation on her skin. There are patches on the back of her hands and her elbows, but she is particularly concerned about depigmentation around her mouth and affecting her breasts. Her only other past history of note is a tendency to gain weight over the past few months. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
      Depigmented skin areas fluoresce bright blue-white on Wood’s lamp inspection.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions: Vitiligo, Lichen Planus, Leprosy, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Idiopathic Hypomelanosis

      Vitiligo: This condition is characterized by depigmentation and is often associated with autoimmune diseases such as hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, and alopecia. It is caused by the destruction of melanocytes in the interfollicular dermis and can be treated with phototherapy, corticosteroids, and tacrolimus ointment.

      Lichen Planus: This condition presents as a pruritic, papular eruption with a violaceous color and polygonal shape, often with a fine scale.

      Leprosy: This infectious disease is caused by Mycobacterium leprae and is most commonly found in South East Asia, Africa, and South America. Diagnosis requires the presence of reddish patches or hypopigmented areas of skin with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the presence of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies.

      Pityriasis Versicolor: This common skin complaint is caused by the proliferation of the yeast Malassezia furfur and presents as flaky, discolored patches mainly on the chest and back.

      Idiopathic Hypomelanosis: This condition is characterized by flat, white spots on the shins and forearms, typically appearing as part of the aging process and possibly due to sun damage. However, the age and distribution of the patient make this diagnosis doubtful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition?

      Your Answer: 1% hydrocortisone for infantile eczema

      Correct Answer: Surgical excision for a cavernous haemangioma 3 cm × 4 cm on the arm

      Explanation:

      Cavernous Haemangiomas and Alopecia Areata: Conditions and Treatment Options

      Cavernous haemangiomas are benign growths that typically appear within the first two weeks of life. They are usually found on the face, neck, or trunk and are well-defined and lobulated. Surgical excision is not recommended, but treatment may be necessary if the growths inhibit normal development, such as obstructing vision in one eye. Treatment options include systemic or local steroids, sclerosants, interferon, or laser treatment.

      Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in discrete areas. Treatment options include cortisone injections into the affected areas and the use of topical cortisone creams. It is important to note that both conditions require medical attention and treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, individuals with cavernous haemangiomas and alopecia areata can manage their conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to Dermatology

      Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily

      Explanation:

      Management of Psoriasis: Next Steps and Referral Considerations

      Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidance. For a patient who has already received eight weeks of once-daily potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue, the next step is to stop the steroid and start twice-daily vitamin D analogue. Steroids should not be applied at the same site for more than eight weeks, after which patients require a 4-week ‘treatment break’. If there is still no improvement in symptoms at the end of the 4-week steroid-free break, twice-daily steroids can be trialled or a coal tar preparation can be started.

      Referral to Dermatology may be necessary if the patient is severely affected by psoriasis or struggling to manage the condition. However, starting the next stage of treatment, which is twice-daily vitamin D analogue, would be the most appropriate while awaiting secondary care review.

      Continuing steroids for a further four weeks would result in an excessively long duration of steroid treatment and risk side-effects such as skin thinning. Patients should have a minimum of four weeks steroid-free after an 8-week treatment course.

      While some patients with severe psoriasis may require an ultra-potent steroid, this patient has already received eight weeks of a potent steroid and requires a 4-week steroid-free break. Following this, it may be appropriate to trial a short course of an ultra-potent steroid or to retrial the potent steroid twice daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Permethrin cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner aspect of his forearm. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Lichen planus is a skin disorder that has an unknown cause but is likely autoimmune. On the other hand, lichen sclerosus is characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly seen on the vulva of elderly women. Scabies, which typically affects children and young adults, causes widespread itching and linear burrows on finger sides, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrist. Eczema usually presents as an itchy, red rash in the flexural areas, while psoriasis is characterized by itchy white or red patches on the extensor surfaces. These are some of the most common skin disorders and their distinct characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment. A few of the blisters have burst, resulting in a sore, exposed region. The base of one of the erosive lesions is scraped for Tzanck test. Upon examination, acantholytic keratinocytes with significant hyperchromatic nuclei are detected under the microscope.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions on Tzanck Smear: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex, Chickenpox, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      When examining a patient’s bullous skin lesions on a Tzanck smear, it is important to distinguish between various skin conditions. In the case of acantholytic keratinocytes, the most likely diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris. This autoimmune disorder is caused by an antibody against intraepithelial desmosomal junctions, resulting in the separation of keratinocytes and the formation of intraepithelial blisters.

      Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and chickenpox can also present with multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear. However, these conditions are caused by viral infections rather than autoimmune disorders.

      Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is caused by an antibody against the dermal-epidermal junction. The associated blisters are sub-epidermal in location and do not contain acantholytic keratinocytes.

      In summary, a Tzanck smear can provide valuable information in diagnosing various skin conditions, including pemphigus vulgaris, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, chickenpox, and bullous pemphigoid. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old carpenter presents with a complaint of widespread pruritus that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He has no significant medical history, but is currently staying at his sister's house due to marital issues. He reports that the itching is most severe at night. Upon examination, he has several linear erythaematous lesions on the backs of his hands and between his fingers.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 h

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation

      Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but is more prevalent in individuals with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.

      While emollient cream can be applied regularly from the neck down, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, 5% Hydrocortisone cream applied twice daily to the hands will not address the underlying infestation. Oral antihistamines may provide relief from the symptomatic itch, but they do not treat the underlying infestation.

      In cases where Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment for scabies. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off. It is important to follow the instructions carefully and consult a healthcare professional if symptoms persist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne

      Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:

      Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.

      Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.

      Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.

      Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules, and comedones. She experienced acne during her adolescent years, and it has continued to persist. Her weight and menstrual cycle are normal, and there is no hirsutism. What is a probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Aetiology of Acne: Factors and Myths

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects individuals beyond their teenage years, particularly women. The presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes, a normally commensal bacteria, is a significant factor in the development of acne. Other aetiological factors include genetic predisposition, seborrhoea, sensitivity to normal levels of circulating androgen, blockage of the pilosebaceous duct, and immunological factors. Polycystic ovary syndrome is an unlikely cause of acne. P. acnes thrives in acne lesions due to elevated sebum production or follicle blockage, triggering inflammation. Diet and poor personal hygiene are not involved in the aetiology of acne. Combined oral contraceptives can be beneficial in treating acne. It is a myth that chocolate or dirt causes acne. Understanding these factors and myths can help in the effective management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl with known coeliac disease develops a symmetrical prurigo with numerous vesicles on her shoulders, back, and buttocks. She is also currently experiencing several mouth ulcers.
      What is the probable diagnosis for her skin rash?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare skin condition that is linked to gluten sensitivity. It causes clusters of blisters to appear symmetrically on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. Treatment involves a gluten-free diet and medication to reduce itching.

      Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a chronic and itchy skin condition that is very common. It can appear anywhere on the body and is often treated with topical steroids and moisturizers.

      Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp and face. It causes redness, itching, and flaking of the skin. Treatment involves medicated shampoos and topical creams.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, teardrop-shaped plaques all over the body. It often follows a streptococcal throat infection and is treated with topical steroids and phototherapy.

      Eczema pompholyx, also known as hand/foot eczema, is characterized by blisters on the hands and feet. Treatment involves avoiding irritants and using topical steroids and moisturizers.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old music teacher who presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a skin lesion on her forearm. On examination, the lesion is a 4-mm red, raised lesion with multiple scratch marks surrounding it. The GP wishes to refer Mrs Green to a local dermatologist.
      Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this lesion?

      Your Answer: erythematosus papule with excoriation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

      Accurately describing skin lesions is crucial in diagnosing skin conditions. Dermatological terms can help healthcare professionals communicate effectively about skin lesions. Here are some common terms:

      – Bulla: A fluid-filled lesion (blister) that may be single or multiloculated.
      – Crust: Dried serum, pus, or blood.
      – Erythema: Vascular dilation and inflammation producing redness on the skin.
      – Excoriation: Scratch marks, often self-induced and secondary to itching.
      – Lichenification: Chronic thickening and increased marking of the skin caused by scratching.
      – Macule: A change in color or texture of the skin without any change in elevation. When >1 cm in diameter, it is called a ‘patch.’
      – Nodule: A raised lesion with a rounded surface greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.
      – Papule: A solid, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Plaque: An elevated plateau of the skin, often greater than 0.5 cm.
      – Pustule: A pus-filled lesion.
      – Scale: Flakes arising from an abnormal stratum corneum.
      – Telangiectasia: Small dilated blood vessels near the skin surface.
      – Vesicle: A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm in diameter.
      – Weal: A raised compressible area of dermal edema.

      Understanding Dermatological Terms: Describing Skin Lesions

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with the Dermatology team. At her review appointment, the patient mentions that she has been experiencing episodes of new skin lesions appearing in areas where she has scratched, often appearing in straight lines. The doctor examines a typical lesion, and notes that they are examples of Koebner phenomenon.
      In which one of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon MOST likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Conditions and Cutaneous Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of cutaneous injury, often caused by scratching, in otherwise healthy skin. This phenomenon is commonly seen in skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, and lichen planus. It may also manifest in association with other conditions such as viral warts, pyoderma gangrenosum, and molluscum contagiosum.

      In cases where the Koebner phenomenon occurs, the new lesions have the same clinical and histological features as the patient’s original skin disease. They are often linear in nature, following the route of cutaneous injury.

      It is important to note that not all skin conditions exhibit the Koebner phenomenon. Rosacea, eczema, pityriasis rosea, and cellulitis are examples of skin conditions that do not exhibit this phenomenon.

      In summary, the Koebner phenomenon is a unique characteristic of certain skin conditions that can occur in response to cutaneous injury. Understanding this phenomenon can aid in the diagnosis and management of these skin conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the skin. She is usually healthy but has been taking regular ibuprofen for the past two days due to a headache.
      On examination, the patient has numerous tense bullae across the trunk and limbs. There is no involvement of the mouth. The dermatologist suspects bullous pemphigoid and wonders which adhesive structure is disrupted by autoimmune mechanisms in this condition.

      Your Answer: Desmosome

      Correct Answer: Hemidesmosome

      Explanation:

      Cell Junctions: Types and Functions

      Cell junctions are specialized structures that connect adjacent cells and play a crucial role in maintaining tissue integrity and function. There are several types of cell junctions, each with a unique structure and function.

      Hemidesmosome: Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor cells of the stratum basale of the skin to the underlying epidermal basement membrane. Autoantibodies to hemidesmosome components can cause bullous pemphigoid, a disease characterized by large, fluid-filled blisters.

      Desmosome: Desmosomes bind cells together in the more superficial layers of the epidermis. Desmogleins are important proteins for desmosome integrity. Autoantibodies to desmogleins can cause pemphigus vulgaris and other types of pemphigus.

      Zonula occludens: The zonula occludens is a tight junction that fuses the outer leaflets of the plasma membrane, preventing the passage of small molecules between cells.

      Zonula adherens: The zonula adherens is an intercellular adhesion site that contains small gaps between adjacent plasma membranes in the junctional complex. It is reinforced by intracellular microfilaments.

      Gap junction: Gap junctions create an aqueous channel between adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small signaling molecules for the coordination of various physiological activities.

      In summary, cell junctions are essential for maintaining tissue integrity and function. Each type of junction has a unique structure and function, and disruptions in their integrity can lead to various diseases.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old professional footballer comes to the Dermatology Clinic with a lesion on his leg. The lesion started as a small cut he got during a match, but it has progressed over the past few weeks, becoming a large, painful ulcer.
      During the examination, the doctor finds that the lesion is 50 mm × 75 mm and ulcerated with a necrotic centre. The patient has no medical history, but his general practitioner (GP) recently investigated him for a change in bowel habit, including bloody stools, and fatigue.
      The patient's anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody test comes back positive, and no organisms grow from the wound swab. The doctor prescribes systemic steroids, and the patient experiences rapid improvement.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Cutaneous Ulcer in a Patient with IBD Symptoms

      When presented with a painful cutaneous ulcer, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is experiencing fatigue and change in bowel habit, which could be indicative of underlying inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). One possible diagnosis is pyoderma gangrenosum, which is commonly associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, or hepatitis. This condition presents with a rapidly progressing, painful, necrolytic cutaneous ulcer that responds well to systemic steroids. Livedo reticularis, erythema nodosum, and lupus pernio are other possible diagnoses, but they do not typically present with ulceration in this pattern or are not associated with IBD. While squamous cell carcinoma should be considered, it is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s young age and the rapid deterioration of the ulcer. Overall, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition causing the cutaneous ulcer.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis alba

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.

      Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
      Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?

      Your Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions

      There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.

      Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.

      Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.

      Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.

      Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old male presented with numerous blisters on his trunk and limbs. Linear...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presented with numerous blisters on his trunk and limbs. Linear IG deposits were observed along the basement membrane in direct immunofluorescence studies. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Explanation:

      Bullous Pemphigoid

      Bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of tense bullae, which are filled with clear fluid and appear on normal or erythematosus skin. Unlike pemphigus vulgaris, which causes blisters at the dermal-epidermal junction, bullous pemphigoid causes blistering at the subepidermal level, resulting in the formation of tense blisters. In contrast, pemphigus vulgaris causes thin-walled and fragile blisters that are rarely intact.

      To differentiate bullous pemphigoid from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence is necessary. This test helps to identify the presence of linear basement membrane zone deposition of immunoglobulin and complement, which are of the IgG type.

      In summary, bullous pemphigoid is a skin condition that causes the formation of tense bullae on normal or erythematosus skin. It is important to differentiate it from other skin conditions, such as pemphigus vulgaris, through a skin biopsy for routine and direct immunofluorescence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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Dermatology (14/29) 48%
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