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  • Question 1 - Which of the following nail changes are present in ulcerative colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nail changes are present in ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Yellow nail

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Clubbing of the fingers can be present in many clinical conditions like CLD, bronchiectasis, lung abscess, Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease. Koilonychia or spoon shaped nails are a typical finding in iron deficiency anaemia. Splinter haemorrhages are pin point haemorrhages found in infective endocarditis and secondary to trauma. Yellow nails are present in pulmonary and renal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year old female nurse presents with severe generalized itching, claiming that she had previously applied cream to the body of a patient with similar symptoms. What is the mechanism that produces her itch?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction developed due to use of topical steroid creams

      Correct Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance or an allergic reaction to it. The entry of allergen into the epidermis or dermis causes a localized allergic reaction. Local mast-cell activation in the skin leads immediately to a local increase in vascular permeability, which causes extravasation of fluid and swelling. Histamine released by mast cells activated by allergen in the skin causes large, itchy, red swellings of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT a poor prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Surface ulceration

      Correct Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm

      Explanation:

      Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented with a hyperkeratotic, scaly rash over the palmar aspect of her hands and interdigital spaces. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Tinea pedis

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tinea manum is a superficial fungal infection of the hands characterised by dry scaly rash and also involves the interdigital spaces of the hands. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of feet, whereas onychomycosis represents a fungal infection of the nails, characterised by nail dystrophy, hyperkeratosis. Kerion is the name given to secondarily infected tinea capitis leading to a soft boggy swelling over the scalp. Psoriasis presents as silvery scales over the extensors of the body and it may involve the nails, scalp and joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes -...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old male presents with an ulcer between his toes - it has a punched-out appearance. He is known to both smoke and drinks heavily. Upon examination, the ulcer is yellow in colour. His foot also turns red when it hangs from the bed. From the list given, choose the single most likely diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Arterial ischemia ulcer

      Explanation:

      Arterial ischemia ulcers present with many of the symptoms observed in this patient: ulcer on the lower extremities, pain, swelling, yellow sores, a punched-out appearance, the foot turning red when dangling from a bed. Smoking a lot is also known to be a causative factor here. This type of ulcer develops due to damage to the arteries caused by a lack of blood flow to the tissue – they are also deep wounds. Venous ischemic ulcers usually form in the knee or inner ankle area as opposed to the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      84.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non healing lesion over the right ear. It is about 1cm in size and bleeds when palpated. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell carcinoma like other skin cancers mostly arise on photo exposed sites. A patient usually presents with a history of a non healing lesion or wound. Confirmatory diagnosis requires a skin biopsy and histopathological screening. It is rarely metastatic and treatment of choice is surgical excision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.
      The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old gentleman presented with a 3 month history of a nodular growth over the dorsum of the his nose, about 0.6 cm in size. The base of nodule is slightly ulcerated and its margins are raised. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Basal cell carcinoma is usually located on sun exposed sites. It has got many variants and clinically it presents as a slow growing mass/nodule with rolled margins and an ulcerated base.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
      Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
      Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
      Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
      Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
      Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
      – Idiopathic
      – Trauma, excessive manicuring
      – Infection: especially fungal
      – Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
      – Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
      – Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
      – Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
      – Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?

      Your Answer: Folliculitis

      Correct Answer: Favus

      Explanation:

      Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which is NOT true of vitiligo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT true of vitiligo?

      Your Answer: There is no known cure

      Correct Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor

      Explanation:

      The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Correct

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicose eczema

      Explanation:

      Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (10/20) 50%
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