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  • Question 1 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?

      Your Answer: Recycling of old red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells found in the liver are part of the monocyte-reticular system. They are specialised macrophages and primarily function to recycle old and damaged RBCs. The RBCs are phagocytosed and the haemoglobin is broken down into haem and globin. The haem is further broken down into iron that is recycled and bilirubin that is conjugated with glucuronic acid and excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Hypofibrinogenemia

      Explanation:

      Thrombin clotting time, also called thrombin time (TT), is test used for the investigation of possible bleeding or clotting disorders. TT reflects the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and it’s also very sensitive to the presence of the anticoagulant heparin. A prolonged thrombin time may indicate the presence of hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen level ), dysfibrinogenaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), end stage liver disease or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after...

    Correct

    • Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after a streptococcal infection?

      Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephritic syndrome (or acute nephritic syndrome) is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephritis. Children between 2 and 12 are most commonly affected, but it may occur at any age. Predisposing factors/causes include:
      Infections with group A streptococcal bacteria (acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).
      Primary renal diseases: immunoglobulin A nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis.
      Secondary renal diseases: subacute bacterial endocarditis, infected ventriculo–peritoneal shunt, glomerulonephritis with visceral abscess, glomerulonephritis with bacterial, viral or parasitic infections.
      Multisystem diseases.
      By contrast, nephrotic syndrome is characterized by only proteins moving into the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Correct

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: Second heart sound

      Explanation:

      The beginning of ventricular systole corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex in the ECG. The beginning of the ventricular systole also corresponds to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, causing the first heart sound (S1). S2, the second heart sound is due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of ventricular systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?

      Your Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Correct

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint:...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does...

    Correct

    • Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does medulloblastoma commonly originate from?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumour in children, accounting for 10-20% of primary CNS neoplasms. Most of the tumours originate in the cerebellar vermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year old woman presents to the doctor with jaundice. Her investigations show...

    Correct

    • A 42-year old woman presents to the doctor with jaundice. Her investigations show conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, raised urine bilirubin levels and low urine urobilinogen levels. What is the likely cause of her jaundice?

      Your Answer: Blockage of the common bile duct

      Explanation:

      The description of the patient here fits the diagnosis of obstructive jaundice or cholestasis, which results in conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Cholestasis occurs due to impairment of bile flow, which can be anywhere from the liver cell canaliculus to the ampulla of Vater. Causes can be divided into intrahepatic and extrahepatic.
      – Intrahepatic causes include hepatitis, drug toxicity, alcoholic liver disease, primary biliary cirrhosis, cholestasis of pregnancy and metastatic cancer.
      – Extrahepatic causes include common duct stone, pancreatic cancer, benign stricture of the common duct, ductal carcinoma, pancreatitis and sclerosing cholangitis.
      There is absence of bile constituents in the intestine, which causes spillage in the systemic circulation. Symptoms include pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, malabsorption leading to steatorrhea and deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins. Chronic cases can result in osteoporosis or osteomalacia due to vitamin D deficiency and Ca2+ malabsorption. Cholesterol and phospholipid retention produces hyperlipidaemia despite fat malabsorption (although increased liver synthesis and decreased plasma esterification of cholesterol also contribute); triglyceride levels are largely unaffected. The lipids circulate as a unique, low-density lipoprotein called lipoprotein X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a palpable mass in his abdomen. The child has poor appetite and regularly complains of abdominal pain. The child was worked up and diagnosed with a tumour. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

      Your Answer: Nephroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Nephroblastoma is also known as Wilms’ tumour. It is a cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children. The median age of diagnose is approximately 3.5 years. With the current treatment, approximately 80-90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur...

    Correct

    • Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur in which of the following medical conditions?

      Your Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      As most of the coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver, liver diseases like hepatitis or cirrhosis will depress the coagulation system. Vitamin K deficiency can also decrease the production of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors VII, XI, X and prothrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Correct

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:
      Olfactory – Purely sensory
      Optic – Sensory
      Oculomotor – Mainly motor
      Trochlear – Motor
      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor
      Abducens – Mainly motor
      Facial – Both sensory and motor
      vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory
      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor
      Vagus – Both sensory and motor
      Accessory – Mainly motor
      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, the inguinal ligament and the inferior epigastric vessels. These boundaries define the hernia as being a:

      Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      The boundaries given define the inguinal triangle which is the site for direct inguinal hernias. Indirect inguinal hernias occur lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
      Femoral hernias protrude through the femoral ring, into the femoral canal.
      Umbilical hernias protrude through a defect in the umbilical area.
      Obturator hernias, occur through the obturator foramen. These are very rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Correct

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is true regarding factor XI? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding factor XI?

      Your Answer: Deficiency causes haemophilia C

      Explanation:

      Factor XI is also known as plasma thromboplastin and is one of the enzymes of the coagulation cascade. It is produced in the liver and is a serine protease. It is activated by factor XIIa, thrombin and by itself. Deficiency of factor XI causes the rare type of haemophilia C. Low levels of factor XI also occur in other disease states, including Noonan syndrome. High levels of factor XI have been seen in thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of shortness of breath, cough and chest pain. Chest X ray revealed a perihilar mass with bronchiectasis in the left mid-lung. Which of the following is most probably associated with these findings?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are neuroendocrine tumours that arise from Kulchitsky’s cells of the bronchial epithelium. Kulchitsky’s cells belong to the diffuse endocrine system. Patients affected by this tumour may be asymptomatic or may present with symptoms of airway obstruction, like dyspnoea, wheezing, and cough. Other common findings are recurrent pneumonia, haemoptysis, chest pain and paraneoplastic syndromes. Chest radiographs are abnormal in the majority of cases. Peripheral carcinoids usually present as a solitary pulmonary nodule. For central lesions common findings include hilar or perihilar masses with or without atelectasis, bronchiectasis, or consolidation. Bronchial carcinoids most commonly arise in the large bronchi causing obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal...

    Correct

    • All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:

      Your Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 47-year-old male smoker, who had been self-medicating with oral steroids for the...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male smoker, who had been self-medicating with oral steroids for the last two years due to persistent breathlessness presented to the doctor complaining of a productive cough, fever and chest pain. A chest X-ray revealed bilateral patchy opacities. He was diagnosed with bilateral bronchopneumonia. Which of these organisms is most probably causing these findings?

      Your Answer: Nocardia asteroides

      Explanation:

      Nocardia is a Gram-positive aerobic actinomycete. Several species have been identified but the most common human pathogen is Nocardia asteroides. The predominant clinical finding in the majority of patients affected by nocardiosis is pulmonary disease. Predisposing factors for pulmonary nocardiosis include leukaemia, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, organ transplantation, diabetes and receiving prolonged corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Correct

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a...

    Correct

    • Laboratory findings in a patient with dark urine and yellowish skin revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Liver damage

      Explanation:

      Various conditions may prolong the prothrombin time (PT), including: warfarin use, vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, hypofibrinogenemia, heparin infusion, massive blood transfusion and hypothermia. Liver disease causes prolonging of PT due to diminished synthesis of clotting factors. Dark urine colour and jaundice are indicators of the presence of a liver disease in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery...

    Correct

    • A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Coagulation in the body (in vivo) is a process in which several proteins...

    Correct

    • Coagulation in the body (in vivo) is a process in which several proteins known as coagulation factors are activated in a cascade effect to stop bleeding. Which of the following initiates this cascade effect?

      Your Answer: Tissue factor

      Explanation:

      Tissue factor (TF), also known as ‘factor III’ or ‘thromboplastin’, is an anti-coagulation protein that initiates the extrinsic coagulation. TF acts as a transmembrane receptor for Factor VII/VIIa . It is expressed by endothelial cells but also certain tissues, such as the heart and brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation? ...

    Correct

    • Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation?

      Your Answer: Granulomatous inflammation

      Explanation:

      Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in granulomatous inflammation. They form when epithelioid cells fuse together. They usually contain a nuclei with a horseshoe-shaped pattern in the periphery of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial...

    Correct

    • Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial oxygen [pa(O2)] than the alveolar oxygen [pA(O2)]. This difference is:

      Your Answer: Is normal and due to shunted blood

      Explanation:

      Blood that bypasses the ventilated parts of lung and enters the arterial circulation directly is known as shunted blood. It happens in normal people due to mixing of arterial blood with bronchial and some myocardial venous blood (which drains into the left heart). Diffusion limitation and reaction velocity with haemoglobin are immeasurably small. CO2 unloading will not affect the difference between alveolar and arterial p(O2). A large VSD will result in much lower arterial O2 as compared to alveolar O2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (7/7) 100%
Basic Sciences (30/30) 100%
Pathology (13/13) 100%
Physiology (10/10) 100%
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