00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h....

    Incorrect

    • A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?

      Your Answer: None

      Correct Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman was on a camping holiday in Spain. She awoke at three o’clock one morning with severe neck pain radiating down into her left shoulder and down to her forearm. The next day it spread to the dorsal aspect of the forearm. She was otherwise well. Her symptoms resolved after 24 hours. She noticed that after a week she was unable to wind down the car window with her left arm. On examination of the left arm there was wasting of brachioradialis, shoulder, biceps and winging of left scapula. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: C5 root lesion

      Correct Answer: Amyotrophic neuralgia

      Explanation:

      This patient present with the classical symptoms of Amyotrophic neuralgia, characterised by sudden onset of pain in the shoulders that radiate down to the forearms and later resolve spontaneously but is followed by muscle wasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?

      Your Answer: 17-OH progesterone

      Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol

      Explanation:

      11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

      In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
      – Increased levels of ACTH
      – Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
      – Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Procainamide

      Explanation:

      Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with pain in his right flank and haematuria. A...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with pain in his right flank and haematuria. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a large 8 × 8cm solid mass in the right kidney and a 3 × 3cm solid mass occupying the upper pole of the left kidney. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Right radical nephrectomy and left partial nephrectomy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with the classic triad of renal carcinoma: haematuria, loin pain and a mass in the kidneys. Management will entail right radical nephrectomy because of the 8x8cm solid mass and a left partial nephrectomy of the 3x3cm solid mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      342.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice. What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Correct Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
      Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
      Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
      A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      174.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?

      Your Answer: Excess of homocysteine transsulfurase

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase

      Explanation:

      Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old male patient came to the OPD with a complaint of severe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male patient came to the OPD with a complaint of severe headache on the right side, with right-sided jaw pain, and additional blurred vision in the right eye. The headache was throbbing in character. Which investigation will you prefer next?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Age of the patient, headache only on one side, and loss of vision on that side suggest temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. The laboratory hallmark of this condition is a raised ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman complains of dyspnoea, occasional fevers and mild weight loss which have all gotten worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass. She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications.   Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. A HRCT of her thorax showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic pulmonary eosinophilia

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a lung condition that is caused by a build-up of proteins and other substances in the alveoli. The alveoli are the part of the lungs that contain air. PAP has the following symptoms:
      Shortness of breath, also called dyspnoea
      Chest pain or tightness
      Fever
      Weight loss
      Cough (sometimes, but not always)
      Low levels of oxygen in the blood
      Nail clubbing (abnormal growth of toenails or fingernails)

      Serologic studies are generally not useful for PAP. Flexible bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) remains the criterion standard. Elevated levels of the proteins SP-A and SP-D in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Elevated titer of neutralizing autoantibody against GM-CSF (immunoglobulin G [IgG] isotype) in serum and BAL fluid may be useful. Recent studies have proposed that deficiency of GM-CSF causes pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP); all patients studied had the antibody to GM-CSF. Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level is usually elevated, but this finding is nonspecific.

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan of the chest demonstrates areas of patchy ground-glass opacification with smooth interlobular septal thickening and intralobular interstitial thickening, which produces a polygonal pattern referred to as crazy paving.

      Light microscopy of the lung parenchymal tissue shows alveoli filled with a granular PAS base-reactive and diastase-resistant eosinophilic material.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain and generalised weakness. Which of the following would be most indicative of type I cryoglobulinemia?

      Your Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Cryoglobulinemia may be caused by paraprotein bands such as those seen in Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia and multiple myeloma (MM). Meltzer’s triad of arthralgia, weakness, and palpable purpura are common to all types of cryoglobulinemia—as are membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and low C4 levels. Raynaud’s phenomenon, however, occurs only in type 1 cryoglobulinemia, and its presence can be helpful in ascertaining the underlying cause.

      Cryoglobulinemia is a condition in which the blood contains large amounts of pathological cold-sensitive antibodies called cryoglobulins—proteins (mostly immunoglobulins themselves) that become insoluble at reduced temperatures. One-third of the cases are idiopathic.

      There are three types of cryoglobulinemia:
      1. Type I (25%):
      Monoclonal—IgG or IgM
      Associated with multiple myeloma (MM), Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

      2. Type II (25%):
      Mixed monoclonal and polyclonal—usually with rheumatoid factor (RF)
      Associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Sjogren’s syndrome

      3. Type III (50%):
      Polyclonal—usually with RF
      Associated with rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome

      Investigation results for cryoglobulinemia show low complement (especially C4) and high ESR. Treatment options include immunosuppression and plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?

      Your Answer: IgA monoclonal gammopathy

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      The following are conditions commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum:
      Inflammatory bowel disease:
      – Ulcerative colitis
      – Crohn’s disease
      Arthritides:
      – Rheumatoid arthritis
      – Seronegative arthritis
      Haematological disease:
      – Myelocytic leukaemia[8]
      – Hairy cell leukaemia
      – Myelofibrosis
      – Myeloid metaplasia
      – Monoclonal gammopathy
      Autoinflammatory disease:
      – Pyogenic sterile arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and acne syndrome (PAPA syndrome)
      – Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Around 75-80% of the patients are female

      Correct Answer: It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight. People with anorexia place a high value on controlling their weight and shape, using extreme efforts that tend to significantly interfere with their lives.

      The minimum level of severity is based, for adults, on current body mass index (BMI) (see below) or for
      children and adolescents, on BMI percentile. The ranges below are derived from World Health
      Organization categories for thinness in adults; for children and adolescents, corresponding BMI percentiles
      should be used. The level of severity may be increased to reflect clinical symptoms, the degree of
      functional disability, and the need for supervision.
      Mild: BMI > 17 kg/m2
      Moderate: BMI 16-16.99 kg/m2
      Severe: BMI 15-15.99 kg/m2
      Extreme: BMI < 15 kg/m2 Anorexia nervosa is more common in women than in men, with a female-to-male ratio of 10-20:1 in developed countries. The prognosis of anorexia nervosa is guarded. Morbidity rates range from 10-20%, with only 50% of patients making a complete recovery. Of the remaining 50%, 20% remain emaciated and 25% remain thin. The main change in the diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa was to remove the criterion of amenorrhea (loss of menstrual cycle). Removing this criterion means that boys and men with Anorexia will finally be able to receive an appropriate diagnosis.
      Similarly, girls and women who continue to have their period despite other symptoms associated with Anorexia, such as weight loss and food restriction, will now be eligible for a diagnosis of Anorexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ig

      Explanation:

      After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation...

    Incorrect

    • Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      A couple of papers written by the same authors indicate that children and adolescents taking an SSRI definitely experience discontinuation reactions that can be mild, moderate or severe when the medication is stopped suddenly or high doses are reduced substantially. Among the SSRIs paroxetine seems to be the worst offender and fluoxetine the least while sertraline and fluvoxamine tend to be intermediate. The rate of discontinuation syndrome varies with the particular SSRI involved. It is generally quoted as 25% but is higher for SSRIs with shorter half-lives. Paroxetine has been associated with more frequent discontinuation symptoms than the other SSRIs.

      The use of fluoxetine with its long half-life appears safer in this respect than paroxetine and venlafaxine causing the most concerns.

      Paroxetine has the shortest half-life with 21 hours of all listed SSRIs and as such it would be expected to have a higher incidence or severity (greater number of symptoms) and fluoxetine would have the least since it has a half life of 96 hours. Citalopram has a half-life of 35 hours while escitalopram has a half-life of 30 hours.

      The most common symptoms reported are: dizziness, light-headedness, drowsiness, poor concentration, nausea, headache and fatigue.
      Another common symptom in adults is paraesthesia described as burning, tingling, numbness or electric shock feelings usually in the upper half of the body or proximal lower limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing...

    Incorrect

    • From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing survival in patients with COPD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention in stopping the progression of COPD, as well as increasing survival and reducing morbidity. This is why smoking cessation should be the top priority in the treatment of COPD. Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may increase survival in hypoxic patients. The rest of the options dilate airways, reduce inflammation and thereby improve symptoms but do not necessarily increase survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On neurological examination, his upper and lower limbs are normal however he has a homonymous hemianopia with central preservation. Where is the most likely cause of his problems within the central nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the optic radiation can cause a homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, as a result of collateral circulation offered to macular tracts by the middle cerebral artery.
      Lesions in the optic tract also cause a homonymous hemianopia, but without macular sparing.
      Lesions in the optic chiasm, optic nerve, and temporal lobe cause bitemporal hemianopia, ipsilateral complete blindness, and superior homonymous quadrantanopia respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.

      Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.
      Pharmacological effects:
      – Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.
      – Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.
      – Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.

      Side effects:
      – Hypersensitivity
      – Primary biliary cirrhosis
      – Pre-existing gallbladder disease
      – Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy
      – Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.

      Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.

      Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
      Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased release of renin

      Explanation:

      The oedema is an effect of the a decreased cardiac output that increases renin release which leads to vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD8

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed αβ T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now stopped. According to her boyfriend, she has a recent history of mucosal bleeding and has at times been very disorientated. On examination, she has a low-grade fever and appears confused and jaundiced. There is bruising over her legs and arms. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You receive the following blood results from the laboratory: Hb: 8.5 g/dL, Plts: 8 x 10^9/L, WCC: 4.5 x 10^9/L, MCV: 92 fL, Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 4.9 mmol/L, Urea: 10.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 182 mmol/L, Her coagulation profile is normal. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma exchange

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis for the aforementioned case is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is classically characterised as a pentad of thrombocytopaenia, microvascular haemolysis, fluctuating neurological signs, renal impairment, and fever.

      The differential diagnosis for severe thrombocytopaenia is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). ITP is more common than TTP. However, a patient of ITP would not present with the range of symptoms seen in this scenario.

      In TTP, there is deficiency of a protease which breaks down large multimers of von Willebrand factor. This leads to abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand factor which cause platelets to clump within the vessels.

      Untreated TTP has a mortality rate of up to 90%. Therefore, rapid plasma exchange (PEX) may be a life-saving intervention. Platelet transfusion in TTP is only indicated if there is an ongoing life-threatening bleed. Intravenous methylprednisolone is indicated after treatment with PEX has been completed. There is no current role of intravenous immunoglobulin in the routine management of TTP. However, there have been reports of its successful use in PEX- and steroid-refractory cases. Intravenous argatroban is indicated in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT), but there is no history of recent heparin administration or hospitalisation in this patient nor are the clinical signs consistent with HIT.

      Management options for TTP include PEX as the treatment of choice. Steroids and immunosuppressants are also given. Antibiotics are not recommended as they may worsen the outcome of the disease. For cases resistant to PEX and pharmacologic therapy, vincristine is given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Her medical notes state that she developed a skin rash after taking penicillin a few years ago. She has a CURB score of 4 and adverse prognostic features. Which of the following would be an appropriate empirical antibiotic choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime and erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases and is an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
      The CURB-65 is used as a means of deciding the action that is needed to be taken for that patient.
      Score 3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit

      Recent studies have suggested that the use of a beta-lactam alone may be noninferior to a beta-lactam/macrolide combination or fluoroquinolone therapy in hospitalized patients.

      Therapy in ICU patients includes the following:
      – Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam) plus either a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
      – For patients with penicillin allergy, a respiratory fluoroquinolone and aztreonam

      Therefore the appropriate treatment would be Cefotaxime and erythromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22 year old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the past three weeks she has also developed painful erythematous nodules on both shins. Respiratory examination is normal. A chest x-ray is performed which is reported as follows: Bilateral mediastinal nodal enlargement. No evidence of lung parenchymal disease. Normal cardiac size. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects one or more organs but most commonly affects the lungs and lymph glands. The inflammation may change the normal structure and possibly the function of the affected organ(s).
      The presentation in sarcoidosis varies with the extent and severity of organ involvement, as follows:
      Asymptomatic (incidentally detected on chest imaging): Approximately 5% of cases.
      Systemic complaints (fever, anorexia): 45% of cases
      Pulmonary complaints (dyspnoea on exertion, cough, chest pain, and haemoptysis [rare]): 50% of cases

      Löfgren syndrome (fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthralgias): Common in Scandinavian patients, but uncommon in African-American and Japanese patients.

      Dermatologic manifestations may include the following:
      – Erythema nodosum
      – A lower-extremity panniculitis with painful, erythematous nodules (often with Löfgren syndrome)
      – Lupus pernio (the most specific associated cutaneous lesion)
      – Violaceous rash on the cheeks or nose (common)
      – Maculopapular plaques (uncommon)

      Staging of sarcoidosis is as follows:
      Stage 0: Normal chest radiographic findings
      Stage I: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
      Stage II: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and infiltrates
      Stage III: Infiltrates alone
      Stage IV: Fibrosis

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are indicated for the treatment of arthralgias and other rheumatic complaints. Patients with stage I sarcoidosis often require only occasional treatment with NSAIDs.

      Treatment in patients with pulmonary involvement is as follows:
      Asymptomatic patients may not require treatment
      In patients with minimal symptoms, serial re-evaluation is prudent
      Treatment is indicated for patients with significant respiratory symptoms
      Corticosteroids can produce small improvements in the functional vital capacity and in the radiographic appearance in patients with more severe stage II and III disease.

      This patient has Stage 1 Sarcoidosis so observation is the most appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty,...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure. Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l. A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology. Which diagnosis fits best with this woman’s clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profound hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
      Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed