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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?

      Your Answer: Left occipital lobe

      Correct Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Correct

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion for 1 week. On examination, she was found to have multiple petechiae all over her skin and mucosal surfaces. Blood investigations revealed low platelet count and raised urea and creatinine. A platelet transfusion was carried out, following which she succumbed to death. Autopsy revealed pink hyaline thrombi in myocardial arteries. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Hyaline thrombi are typically associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is caused by non-immunological destruction of platelets. Platelet transfusion is contraindicated in TTP. Platelets and red blood cells also get damaged by loose strands of fibrin deposited in small vessels. Multiple organs start developing platelet-fibrin thrombi (bland thrombi with no vasculitis) typically at arteriocapillary junctions. This is known as ‘thrombotic microangiopathy’. Treatment consists of plasma exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed...

    Correct

    • A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed to what substance which increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?

      Your Answer: Asbestos

      Explanation:

      Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 33 year old woman complains of a persistent offensive discharge from the...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old woman complains of a persistent offensive discharge from the left ear. On examination, the hearing of left ear is found to be reduced to 40 decibels compared to the right side. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      Cholesteatoma is a special form of chronic otitis media in which keratinizing squamous epithelium grows from the tympanic membrane or the auditory canal into the middle ear mucosa or mastoid. The presence of abnormal epithelium in an abnormal location triggers an inflammatory response that can destroy surrounding structures such as the ossicles. Cholesteatomas may be congenital or acquired later in life. Acquired cholesteatomas are usually associated with chronic middle ear infection. Cardinal symptoms are painless otorrhea and progressive hearing loss. Important diagnostic procedures include mastoid process x-rays, temporal bone CT scans, and audiometric tests. Left untreated, erosion of the surrounding bone by a cholesteatoma can lead to facial nerve palsy, extradural abscess, and/or sigmoid sinus thrombosis. Therefore, even if a cholesteatoma is asymptomatic, surgery is always indicated. Surgical treatment involves tympanomastoidectomy to excise the cholesteatoma, followed by repair of the damaged middle ear structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 8 month old baby girl presents with a spiral fracture of her...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 month old baby girl presents with a spiral fracture of her left humerus. Her father states that he grabbed her arm because she was falling off the park slide. He noticed that something was wrong and he rushed to the hospital with her. Which of the following is the most likely issue?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Correct Answer: Accidental fracture

      Explanation:

      In this case, there is no delay in treatment and the mechanism by which the fracture occurred fits accidental fracture.

      A statement from the parent or guardian and any witnesses regarding how the child sustained the injury will help determine whether the injury is accidental or abusive. A statement from the parent or guardian explaining why he or she delayed in seeking medical treatment is important to the investigation because caretakers often postpone medical treatment or fail to provide treatment for an injured child to hide physical abuse. The abusing parent or caregiver may also put a child in oversized clothing or keep the child inside a residence for extended periods of time in an attempt to conceal the child’s injuries.

      Parents who inflict fractures on their children tend to minimize the severity of the accident purported to cause the fracture, whereas many parents of children with accidental fractures will relate a history of high-energy events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the...

    Incorrect

    • The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate. Which of the following structures is associated with the tensor villi palatini muscle?

      Your Answer: The greater petrosal nerve

      Correct Answer: The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid hamulus is a hook-like process at the lower extremity of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone around which the tendon of the tensor veli palatini passes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 3 year old boy is awaiting surgery for a ruptured appendix and...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old boy is awaiting surgery for a ruptured appendix and the nurse wants to give him an infusion of intravenous fluid whilst waiting for theatre. Given that his electrolytes are normal, which of the following infusion fluid would be appropriate?

      Your Answer: 0.9% Saline solution

      Explanation:

      Indications for IV fluids include:
      – Resuscitation and circulatory support
      – Replacing on-going fluid losses
      – Maintenance fluids for children for whom oral fluids are not appropriate
      – Correction of electrolyte disturbances

      According to the NICE guidelines, if children and young people need IV fluid resuscitation, use glucose‑free crystalloids that contain sodium in the range 131–154 mmol/litre, with a bolus of 20 ml/kg over less than 10 minutes. Take into account pre‑existing conditions (for example, cardiac disease or kidney disease), as smaller fluid volumes may be needed.

      All the others are contraindicated according to the guidelines as they are either made of glucose or are colloids.
      Gelofusine is a 4% w/v solution of succinylated gelatine (also known as modified fluid gelatine) used as an intravenous colloid, and behaves much like blood filled with albumins.
      Dextrose solution is a mixture of dextrose (glucose) and water. It is used to treat low blood sugar or water loss without electrolyte loss. Intravenous sugar solutions are in the crystalloid family of medications. They come in a number of strengths including 5%, 10%, and 50% dextrose.
      0.45% saline/ 5% glucose solution also contains glucose hence it is contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension and aortic stenosis. On autopsy her heart weighed 550g. What is the most likely cause of this pathology?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Due to increased pressure on the heart as a result of hypertension and aortic stenosis, the myocardial fibres hypertrophied to adapt to the increased pressure and to effectively circulate blood around the body. Hyperplasia could not occur, as myocardial fibres are stable cells and cannot divide further.
      Fat does not deposit in the heart due to volume overload.
      Myocardial oedema is not characteristic of a myocardial injury.
      Metaplasia is a change in the type of epithelium.
      Atrophy would result in a decreased heart size and inability to function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm, internal and external intercostals

      Correct Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostals

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm and external intercostals are muscles of inspiration as they increase the volume of thoracic cavity and reduce the intrathoracic pressure. Muscles of expiration include abdominal muscles and internal intercostals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old female undergoes a laparotomy and a retroperitoneal tumour is identified. The...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female undergoes a laparotomy and a retroperitoneal tumour is identified. The surgeons suspect that the lesion is a liposarcoma. Which of the following is not typical of liposarcomas?

      Your Answer: They are the most common variant of sarcoma in adults

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal liposarcoma (RLS) is a rare, biologically heterogeneous tumour that presents considerable challenges due to its size and deep location.
      RPS generally measure >5 cm, and mostly >10 cm diameter at presentation

      Liposarcoma occurs in three main biologic forms: (1) well-differentiated liposarcoma; (2) myxoid and/or round cell; and (3) pleomorphic. The latter is a rare high-grade type with a high recurrence rate and poor prognosis.

      CT scanning is superior to MRI in detailing cortical bone erosion and tumour mineralization, whereas MRI is useful in providing views of the long axis of the limb and in depicting the fatty nature of the tumour.
      Most liposarcomas have well-defined and mostly lobulated margins. The well-differentiated liposarcomas are composed of mainly fat with septa or nodules.
      Chest radiography may be used as an initial screening for pulmonary metastases; however, the definitive test for detection of pulmonary metastases is chest CT scanning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Principles Of Surgical Oncology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old athlete presents to the clinic after receiving a hard blow to his palm that has resulted into a painful swelling over the volar aspect of his hand. On examination, pain is felt on wrist movement and longitudinal compression of the thumb. Which of the following is the most likely injury?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. Fractures are most often localized in the middle third of the scaphoid bone.
      Generally, scaphoid bone fractures result from indirect trauma when an individual falls onto the outstretched hand with a hyperextended and radially deviated wrist. Pain when applying pressure to the anatomical snuffbox is highly suggestive of a scaphoid bone fracture.
      X-ray is the initial test of choice for diagnosis. Computer tomography and magnetic resonance imaging may be indicated, if x-ray findings are negative but clinical suspicion is high.
      Treatment can be conservative (e.g., wrist immobilization) or in certain cases surgical (e.g., proximal pole fracture). Complications include non-union and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Incorrect

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer: The lens

      Correct Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Correct Answer: Actinomycosis

      Explanation:

      Actinomycosis is primarily caused by any of the several members of the bacterial genus Actinomyces. These bacteria are generally anaerobes. And can cause multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Incorrect

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Frontal

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Correct

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30 year old carpenter falls off the roof of a house and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old carpenter falls off the roof of a house and lands on his right arm. X-ray and clinical examination show that he has fractured the proximal ulna and associated radial dislocation. Which of the following names would be used to describe this injury?

      Your Answer: Pott's

      Correct Answer: Monteggia's

      Explanation:

      The Monteggia fracture refers to a dislocation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint (PRUJ) in association with a forearm fracture, most commonly a fracture of the ulna. Depending on the type of fracture and severity, they may experience elbow swelling, deformity, crepitus, and paraesthesia or numbness. Some patients may not have severe pain at rest, but elbow flexion and forearm rotation are limited and painful.
      The dislocated radial head may be palpable in the anterior, posterior, or anterolateral position. In Bado type I and IV lesions, the radial head can be palpated in the antecubital fossa. The radial head can be palpated posteriorly in type II lesions and laterally in type III lesions.

      Colles’ fractures have the following 3 features:
      – Transverse fracture of the radius
      – 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
      – Dorsal displacement and angulation

      Smith’s fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture)
      – Volar angulation of distal radius fragment (Garden spade deformity)
      – Caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed

      Bennett’s fracture
      – Intra-articular fracture of the first carpometacarpal joint
      – Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights
      – X-ray: triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpal

      Galeazzi fracture
      – Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

      Pott’s fracture
      – Bimalleolar ankle fracture
      – Forced foot eversion

      Barton’s fracture
      – Distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation
      – Fall onto extended and pronated wrist
      – Involvement of the joint is a defining feature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year old lady presented with dull, abdominal pain and some pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year old lady presented with dull, abdominal pain and some pain in her lower limbs. On enquiry, it was revealed that she has been suffering from depression for a few months. Physical examination and chest X-ray were normal. Further investigations revealed serum calcium 3.5 mmol/l, albumin 3.8 g/dl and phosphate 0.65 mmol/l. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid adenoma

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia with hypophosphatemia indicates parathyroid disorder and adenomas are more common than hyperplasia. In this young age group, metastatic disease is unlikely. Solitary adenomas are responsible for 80-85% cases of primary hyperparathyroidism. 10-15% cases are due to parathyroid hyperplasia and carcinomas account for 2-3% cases. Symptoms include bone pain (bones), nephrolithiasis (stones), muscular aches, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis (groans), depression (moans), anxiety and other mental disturbances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following conditions may be responsible for the hypocalcaemia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Chronic hypocalcaemia is mostly seen in patients with hypoparathyroidism as a result of accidental removal or damage to parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in...

    Correct

    • A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?

      Your Answer: Superior ulnar collateral

      Explanation:

      The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock?

      Your Answer: Skin

      Correct Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      At rest, the brain receives 15% cardiac output, muscles 15%, gastrointestinal tract 30% and kidneys receive 20%. However, if normalised by weight, the largest specific blood flow is received by the kidneys at rest (400 ml/min x 100g), making them highly vulnerable in the case of a haemorrhagic shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A premenopausal woman has an ovarian tumour. Which is the most common benign...

    Correct

    • A premenopausal woman has an ovarian tumour. Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a premenopausal woman?

      Your Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature and solid tissues. Dermoid cysts grow slowly and this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to: ...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:

      Your Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6 year old girl falls during dance class and fractures the growth...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl falls during dance class and fractures the growth plate of her left wrist. Which system can be used to classify the injury?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Salter - Harris system

      Explanation:

      A Salter–Harris fracture is a fracture that involves the epiphyseal plate or growth plate of a bone, specifically the zone of provisional calcification. It is a common injury found in children, occurring in 15% of childhood long bone fractures.
      There are nine types of Salter–Harris fractures; types I to V as described by Robert B Salter and W Robert Harris in 1963, and the rarer types VI to IX which have been added subsequently:
      Type I – transverse fracture through the growth plate (also referred to as the physis): 6% incidence
      Type II – A fracture through the growth plate and the metaphysis, sparing the epiphysis: 75% incidence, takes approximately 12-90 weeks or more in the spine to heal.
      Type III – A fracture through growth plate and epiphysis, sparing the metaphysis: 8% incidence
      Type IV – A fracture through all three elements of the bone, the growth plate, metaphysis, and epiphysis: 10% incidence
      Type V – A compression fracture of the growth plate (resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and metaphysis on x-ray): 1% incidence
      Type VI – Injury to the peripheral portion of the physis and a resultant bony bridge formation which may produce an angular deformity (added in 1969 by Mercer Rang)
      Type VII – Isolated injury of the epiphyseal plate (VII–IX added in 1982 by JA Ogden)
      Type VIII – Isolated injury of the metaphysis with possible impairment of endochondral ossification
      Type IX – Injury of the periosteum which may impair intramembranous ossification

      The mnemonic SALTER can be used to help remember the first five types.
      N.B.: This mnemonic requires the reader to imagine the bones as long bones, with the epiphyses at the base.

      I – S = Slip (separated or straight across). Fracture of the cartilage of the physis (growth plate)
      II – A = Above. The fracture lies above the physis, or Away from the joint.
      III – L = Lower. The fracture is below the physis in the epiphysis.
      IV – TE = Through Everything. The fracture is through the metaphysis, physis, and epiphysis.
      V – R = Rammed (crushed). The physis has been crushed.
      Alternatively, SALTER can be used for the first 6 types, as above but adding Type V — ‘E’ for ‘Everything’ or ‘Epiphysis’ and Type VI — ‘R’ for ‘Ring’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy....

    Incorrect

    • During a clinical rotation in the ENT clinic, you observe a flexible bronchoscopy. As the scope is passed down the trachea, you see a cartilaginous structure that resembles a ship's keel and separates the right and the left main stem bronchi. This structure is the:

      Your Answer: Cricoid cartilage

      Correct Answer: Carina

      Explanation:

      The carina (a keel-like cartilage) is found at the bifurcation of the trachea separating the right from the left main stem bronchi. It is a little more to the left than to the right.
      The cricoid cartilage is the inferior and posterior cartilage of the larynx.
      The costal cartilage on the other hand elongates the ribs anteriorly and contribute to the elasticity of the thoracic cage.
      The pulmonary ligament is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
      Tracheal rings are rings of cartilage that support the trachea.
      Peritracheal fascia is a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea from the outside and is not visible on bronchoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 46 year old politician with chronic hepatitis for several years visits the...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old politician with chronic hepatitis for several years visits the clinic for a review. Recently, his AFP is noted to be increased and an abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a 2.2cm lesion in segment V of the liver. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: PET CT scan

      Correct Answer: Liver MRI

      Explanation:

      In patients with liver tumours, it is crucial to detect and stage the tumours at an early stage (to select patients who will benefit from curative liver resection, and avoid unnecessary surgery). Therefore, an optimal preoperative evaluation of the liver is necessary, and a contrast-enhanced MRI is widely considered the state-of-the-art method. Liver MRI without contrast administration is appropriate for cholelithiasis but not sufficient for most liver tumour diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Incorrect

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Lacrimal nerve

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following coagulation factors cross-links fibrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following coagulation factors cross-links fibrin?

      Your Answer: Factor X

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII, also known as fibrin stabilizing factor, is an enzyme of the coagulation cascade that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of FXIII may cause bleeding tendency but paradoxically, it may also predispose to thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: While part of the sciatic nerve, it innervates nothing in the posterior thigh

      Correct Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 64 year old man has been in ICU with ARDS for a...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old man has been in ICU with ARDS for a week following acute pancreatitis. He is being mechanically ventilated. Which of the following is the best option for maintenance of the patency of his airway?

      Your Answer: Tracheostomy

      Explanation:

      Tracheostomy is an operative procedure that creates a surgical airway in the cervical trachea. It is most often performed in patients who have had difficulty weaning off a ventilator, followed by those who have suffered trauma or a catastrophic neurologic insult. High-flow oxygen via tracheostomy may reduce the inspiratory effort and enhance tidal volume by delivering high-flow oxygen and facilitate weaning from prolonged mechanical ventilation in patients with restrictive pulmonary dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      12.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Sciences (9/21) 43%
Pathology (5/9) 56%
Anatomy (3/9) 33%
Generic Surgical Topics (3/7) 43%
Head And Neck Surgery (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/4) 25%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (2/2) 100%
Principles Of Surgical Oncology (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (0/1) 0%
Post-operative Management And Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Passmed