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Question 1
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?
Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance trip to Australia and is worried about the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant medical history and is in good health.
What is the best advice to offer him?Your Answer: No aspirin, ankle exercises, aisle seat and no alcohol
Explanation:Venous Thromboembolism Prophylaxis for Long-Haul Flights
When it comes to preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) during long-haul flights, the approach varies depending on the patient’s risk level. For low-risk patients without history of VTE, cardiac disease, major illness, or recent surgery, NICE recommends avoiding long periods of immobility by taking an aisle seat, performing ankle exercises, and wearing loose-fitting clothing. It’s also important to stay hydrated and avoid alcohol.
Moderate to high-risk patients, on the other hand, may benefit from compression stockings, especially if they have a history of VTE, cardiac disease, varicose veins, or are pregnant or postpartum. High-risk patients with thrombophilia, cancer, or recent surgery requiring general anesthesia should also consider compression stockings.
While some sources recommend a single dose of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis during long-haul flights, current NICE guidelines do not recommend this approach. Instead, patients should focus on staying mobile, wearing compression stockings if necessary, and staying hydrated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added to the transplant waiting list for chronic heart failure. What is the probable reason for his heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transfusion haemosiderosis
Explanation:Complications of Blood Transfusions: Understanding the Risks
Blood transfusions are a common medical intervention used to treat a variety of conditions, from severe bleeding to anaemia. While they can be life-saving, they also carry certain risks and potential complications. Here are some of the most common complications associated with blood transfusions:
Transfusion haemosiderosis: Repeated blood transfusions can lead to the accumulation of iron in the body’s organs, particularly the heart and endocrine system. This can cause irreversible heart failure if left untreated.
High-output cardiac failure: While anaemia on its own may not be enough to cause heart failure, it can exacerbate the condition in those with reduced left ventricular systolic dysfunction.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction: This occurs when there is a mismatch between the major histocompatibility antigens on blood cells, such as the ABO system. It can cause severe intravascular haemolysis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, and shock, and has a high mortality rate if not recognized and treated quickly.
Pulmonary oedema: While rare in patients with normal left ventricular systolic function, blood transfusions can cause fluid overload and pulmonary oedema, which can exacerbate chronic heart failure.
Transfusion-related bacterial endocarditis: While rare, bacterial infections can occur from blood transfusions. Platelet pools, which are stored at room temperature, have a slightly higher risk of bacterial contamination that can cause fulminant sepsis.
Understanding the potential complications of blood transfusions is important for both patients and healthcare providers. By recognizing and addressing these risks, we can ensure that blood transfusions remain a safe and effective treatment option for those who need them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with lethargy and poor exercise tolerance. She also mentions that, over the last month, she has had excessive thirst and polyuria.
Initial investigations show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 78 g/l 115–155 g/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 109 mm/h 0–10mm in the first hour
Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 26.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 268 µmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 3.02 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Glucose 5.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Which of the following tests is the most appropriate to confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum and urine electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Multiple Derangements
The patient in question presents with several abnormalities in their blood tests, including anaemia, hypercalcaemia, electrolyte imbalances, and a significantly elevated ESR. These findings, along with the patient’s symptoms, suggest a diagnosis of malignancy, specifically multiple myeloma.
Multiple myeloma is characterized by the malignant proliferation of plasma cells, leading to bone marrow infiltration, pancytopenia, osteolytic lesions, hypercalcaemia, and renal failure. The ESR is typically elevated in this condition. To confirm a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, serum and urine electrophoresis can be performed to identify the presence of monoclonal antibodies and Bence Jones proteins, respectively. Bone marrow examination can also reveal an increased number of abnormal plasma cells.
Treatment for multiple myeloma typically involves a combination of chemotherapy and bisphosphonate therapy, with radiation therapy as an option as well. This condition is more common in men, particularly those in their sixth or seventh decade of life.
Other diagnostic tests that may be considered include an oral glucose tolerance test (to rule out diabetes as a cause of polydipsia and polyuria), a chest X-ray (to evaluate for a possible small cell carcinoma of the lung), and an abdominal CT scan (to assess the extent of disease and the presence of metastasis). A serum PTH level may also be useful in ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism as a cause of hypercalcaemia, although the patient’s symptoms and blood test results make malignancy a more likely diagnosis.
Diagnostic Tests and Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Multiple Derangements
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%
Explanation:Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options
When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.
While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.
Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.
Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 91-year-old woman with known vascular dementia presents to the Emergency Department after a routine blood test uncovered that the patient had a sodium level of 149 mmol/l. Her carer comments that the patient’s fluid intake has been minimal over the past week. The patient’s past medical history includes a previous lacunar stroke and peripheral vascular disease. Her regular medications are atorvastatin, ramipril, amlodipine and clopidogrel. She currently is fully dependent on the assistance provided by carers. The patient’s National Early Warning (NEWS) score is 0, and her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15.
A physical examination does not reveal any source of infection. A bedside capillary glucose is recorded as 5.8 mmol/mmol. A full set of blood tests are repeated, reported as follows:
Full blood count and urea and electrolytes (U&Es):
Investigations Results Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 91 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets (Plt) 215 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 3.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 66 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
A routine chest X-ray and urinalysis are performed and show no abnormalities.
Which of the following is the most suitable to correct the patient’s hypernatraemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral water
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hypernatraemia: A Case Study
Hypernatraemia is a condition characterized by an elevated sodium concentration in the blood. In this case study, the patient’s hypernatraemia is mild and caused by insufficient free water intake. It is important to rule out infection as a cause of hypernatraemia, which can increase free water loss. Mild calcification of the aortic arch is a common finding in the elderly and unrelated to the patient’s current complaint.
Hypertonic saline infusion is not recommended as it would further increase the sodium concentration. Standard dialysis is not necessary in this case as the hypernatraemia is not profound enough. 500 ml of 10% dextrose is not appropriate as it is not equivalent to giving free water and is used to reverse hypoglycaemia. 500 ml of 0.9% saline is not the correct option for this patient, but it may be appropriate for hypovolaemic and hypotensive patients to restore circulating volume.
The most appropriate treatment option for this patient is to provide free water, which can be achieved by administering 5% dextrose. It is important to monitor the patient’s sodium levels and fluid intake to prevent further complications. The decision to start hypertonic saline infusion or dialysis should be made by a consultant in severe cases of hypernatraemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells
Explanation:Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions
Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.
Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.
Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.
Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.
Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations
Explanation:Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion
Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV
When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned having the 'factor V Leiden mutation'. Can you explain the pathophysiology of this mutation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance
Explanation:Factor V Leiden: A Genetic Condition Affecting Blood Clotting
Factor V is a protein that acts as a cofactor to allow the generation of an enzyme called thrombin, which is responsible for cleaving fibrinogen to fibrin. This process leads to the formation of a dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. Activated protein C (aPC) is a natural anticoagulant that limits clotting by degrading factor V. However, in individuals with Factor V Leiden, a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the coagulation factor cannot be destroyed by aPC.
Factor V Leiden is caused by a single nucleotide substitution of adenine for guanine in the gene encoding factor V. This mutation changes the protein’s 506th amino acid from arginine to glutamine, which prevents efficient inactivation of factor V. As a result, factor V remains active, leading to overproduction of thrombin and excess fibrin generation, which in turn causes excess clotting.
In summary, Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that affects blood clotting by preventing the efficient inactivation of factor V. This leads to excess clotting, which can increase the risk of developing blood clots and related complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with sickle-cell disease is being evaluated in Haematology Outpatients. She has been admitted several times due to sickle-cell crisis and abdominal pain, and there is suspicion of multiple splenic infarcts. What blood film abnormalities would indicate hyposplenism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Howell–Jolly bodies
Explanation:Blood Film Abnormalities and Their Significance
Blood film abnormalities can provide important diagnostic information about a patient’s health. One such abnormality is Howell-Jolly bodies, which are nuclear remnants found in red blood cells and indicate hyposplenism. Other abnormalities seen in hyposplenism include target cells, Pappenheimer cells, increased red cell anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, and spherocytes. Patients with hyposplenism are at increased risk of bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly.
Rouleaux formation, on the other hand, is a stack of red blood cells that stick together, forming a rouleau. This occurs in conditions where plasma protein is high, such as multiple myeloma, some infections, Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia, and some cancers.
Schistocytes are irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells that occur due to mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as hemolytic anemia. They are not typically seen in hyposplenism.
Tear drop cells, which are seen in conditions where there is abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis, are also not seen in hyposplenism.
Finally, toxic granulation occurs during inflammatory processes such as bacterial infection or sepsis and refers to neutrophils which contain dark, coarse granules. It is not present in hyposplenism.
In summary, understanding blood film abnormalities and their significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of heavy periods. She presents with a prolonged APTT and bleeding time, but normal indices. The patient reports a family history of bleeding disorders on her mother's side. She denies any prior history of bleeding or bruising after minor surgical procedures. What is the most likely bleeding disorder in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: von Willebrand’s disease
Explanation:The diagnosis in this scenario is von Willebrand’s disease, which is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a defective von Willebrand factor. This protein plays a crucial role in haemostasis by assisting in platelet adhesion and stabilising coagulation factor VIII. A deficiency in von Willebrand factor prolongs bleeding time and APTT, but does not affect platelet counts or PT. It is more pronounced in women and may present with menorrhagia. Treatment involves administration of recombinant von Willebrand factor. Haemophilia A, Bernard-Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, and vitamin K deficiency are other bleeding disorders with different causes and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor
Explanation:Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products
When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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By how much does the haemoglobin concentration increase with the infusion of one unit of fresh blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 g/L
Explanation:The Effect of Fresh Blood on Haemoglobin Levels
When one unit of fresh blood is transfused, it increases the haemoglobin levels in the body by approximately 10 g/L. This is equivalent to the effect of one unit of red cell concentrate. Both fresh blood and red cell concentrate contain red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the increase in haemoglobin levels is due to the additional red blood cells that are introduced into the bloodstream. This information is important for medical professionals who need to monitor and manage the haemoglobin levels of their patients, particularly those who have undergone significant blood loss or have conditions that affect their red blood cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample
Explanation:Common Causes of Transfusion Errors
Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.
In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy
In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.
If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.
It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have a raised platelet count. She is diagnosed with essential thrombocytosis by the haematologist.
Which of the following might be used to treat essential thrombocytosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea
Explanation:Common Medications and Their Uses
Thrombocytosis and Hydroxyurea
Thrombocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated platelet count, which can lead to bleeding or thrombosis. Primary or essential thrombocytosis is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in overproduction of platelets by the bone marrow. Hydroxyurea is the first-line treatment for essential thrombocytosis, as it inhibits an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis and reduces the rate of platelet production.Interferon Gamma for Immunomodulation
Interferon gamma is an immunomodulatory medication used to reduce the frequency of infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis. It is administered by subcutaneous injection.Cromoglycate for Inflammation
Sodium cromoglycate is a synthetic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and various food allergies.Interferon β for Multiple Sclerosis
Interferon β is a cytokine used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is administered subcutaneously.Ranitidine for Acid Reduction
Ranitidine is a H2 (histamine) receptor blocker that inhibits the production of acid in the stomach. It can be used in the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, and gastritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous Dopplers
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis
This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.
DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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