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  • Question 1 - You are a junior doctor in geriatrics. You have been asked to help...

    Incorrect

    • You are a junior doctor in geriatrics. You have been asked to help on the Elderly Care Ward to perform geriatric examinations.
      Which statement is true regarding the Romberg test?

      Your Answer: A negative test in any baby negates the need for any further investigation

      Correct Answer: It relocates a dislocation of the hip joint if this has been elicited during the Barlow manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Barlow and Ortolani Manoeuvres for Hip Dislocation Screening

      Hip dislocation is a common problem in infants, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Two screening tests commonly used are the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres. The Barlow manoeuvre involves adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee, while the Ortolani manoeuvre flexes the hips and knees to 90 degrees, with pressure applied to the greater trochanters and thumbs to abduct the legs. A positive test confirms hip dislocation, and further investigation is necessary if risk factors are present, such as breech delivery or a family history of hip problems. However, a negative test does not exclude all hip problems, and parents should seek medical advice if they notice any asymmetry or walking difficulties in their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - An infant, born to a 25-year-old woman immigrant who did not receive prenatal...

    Correct

    • An infant, born to a 25-year-old woman immigrant who did not receive prenatal care, is found to have a midline lesion on his lower back. Examination reveals a fluid-filled cystic mass that is continuous with the spinal canal.
      With which one of the following could this anomaly have been prevented by supplementation?

      Your Answer: A vitamin necessary in nucleic acid synthesis

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamins in Various Biological Processes

      Vitamins play a crucial role in various biological processes, including nucleic acid synthesis, high-energy electron carrier synthesis, pyruvate dehydrogenase function, prevention of keratinised squamous metaplasia, and fatty acid synthesis.

      Insufficient maternal folate, a vitamin necessary in nucleic acid synthesis, can cause spina bifida, a neural tube defect. Supplementation with folate prior to conception can prevent such defects. Vitamin B3 is necessary for the synthesis of a high-energy electron carrier, while vitamin B1 is necessary for pyruvate dehydrogenase function. Vitamin A prevents keratinised squamous metaplasia and maintains specialised epithelium, but its supplementation is contraindicated during pregnancy. Finally, pantothenic acid or vitamin B5 is necessary for fatty acid synthesis, and its deficiency is rare.

      In conclusion, vitamins are essential for various biological processes, and their deficiency can lead to severe health issues. It is crucial to maintain a balanced diet and ensure adequate vitamin intake to prevent such deficiencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of 142 cm, which is below the 0.4th centile. Upon examination, she has an immature-appearing face and a significantly delayed bone age on wrist x-ray. Her TSH levels are normal, and she is at an appropriate Tanner stage. It is noted that her mother had her menarche at the age of 11 years. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      Growth Hormone Deficiency as a Cause of Short Stature in Pubescent Girls

      A girl who has gone through puberty but has not gained height may have growth hormone deficiency. This condition is characterized by a discrepancy between the girl’s bone age and chronological age, as well as a doll-like face that gives her an immature appearance. Growth hormone deficiency is a rare but significant cause of short stature, as it can be a symptom of an underlying disease and can be treated with replacement injections.

      In some cases, GH deficiency may be caused by intracerebral masses, particularly craniopharyngiomas in 7- to 10-year-olds. However, if a chronic illness were the cause, such as coeliac disease or Cushing syndrome, it would likely delay puberty and result in an inappropriately young Tanner stage. The girl would also be expected to exhibit features of the chronic condition.

      It is important to note that this girl is not suffering from constitutional delay, as she has already entered puberty and has appropriate Tanner staging. Constitutional delay is typically characterized by a family history and delayed menarche in the affected individual. Therefore, growth hormone deficiency should be considered as a potential cause of short stature in pubescent girls who have not gained height despite going through puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother...

    Correct

    • A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to poor feeding and drinking for the past 48 hours. The mother is concerned about the baby's weight gain and has noticed pale stools. During the examination, the baby appears jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. The medical team performs a newborn jaundice screen and considers biliary atresia as a possible diagnosis. What clinical finding would be most indicative of biliary atresia?

      Your Answer: Raised level of conjugated bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Elevated conjugated bilirubin is a characteristic feature of biliary atresia. This condition is often associated with prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abnormal growth, and cardiac murmurs in the presence of cardiac abnormalities. While liver transaminases and bile acids may also be elevated in biliary atresia, they are not specific to this condition and cannot distinguish it from other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Poor feeding and drinking are not helpful in making a diagnosis, as they can occur in many different conditions. While the age of presentation may suggest biliary atresia, there are several other potential causes of neonatal jaundice in a 15-day old infant, including congenital infections, urinary tract infections, breast milk jaundice, and hypothyroidism. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin is not a typical finding in biliary atresia, but may be seen in cases of hypothyroidism.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A newborn delivered at 36 weeks gestation through a normal vaginal delivery is...

    Correct

    • A newborn delivered at 36 weeks gestation through a normal vaginal delivery is exhibiting irritability and has experienced a convulsion 72 hours after birth. No visible head trauma or swelling is present. What type of cranial injury is most probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Caput succedaneum is a condition that occurs when pressure is applied to the fetal scalp during birth, resulting in a swollen and bruised area. This condition typically resolves on its own within a few days and does not require treatment.

      Cephalohaematoma, on the other hand, can occur after a vaginal delivery or due to trauma from obstetric tools. This condition results in bleeding between the skull and the periosteum, causing a tense swelling that is limited to the outline of the bone. Cephalohaematoma typically resolves over a period of weeks to months.

      Subaponeurotic haemorrhage, also known as subgaleal haemorrhage, is a rare condition that can occur due to a traumatic birth. This condition can result in significant blood loss in the infant.

      Intracranial haemorrhage refers to bleeding within the brain, including subarachnoid, subdural, and intraventricular haemorrhages. Subarachnoid haemorrhages are common and can cause irritability and convulsions in the first few days of life. Subdural haemorrhages can occur due to the use of forceps during delivery. Intraventricular haemorrhages are most common in preterm infants and can be diagnosed using ultrasound examinations.

      Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage

      Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.

      Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A worried 28-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on...

    Incorrect

    • A worried 28-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on her infant's head, stating with certainty that it was not present at birth and was only noticed half an hour ago. The baby was delivered vaginally with forceps 10 hours ago at 39 weeks gestation.

      Upon examination, there is a clearly defined, soft swelling that does not cross suture lines and is located on the parietal bone. The baby appears to be in good health otherwise, with normal skin color and tone, as well as regular vital signs.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the newborn baby’s well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that appeared two days after birth is cephalohaematoma. This is a haemorrhage between the skull and periosteum that occurs when blood vessels crossing the periosteum rupture. The swelling is limited by the individual bones and does not cross suture lines. It may take months to resolve as the blood clot is reabsorbed. Cephalohaematoma is more common in prolonged and/or instrumental deliveries and may lead to jaundice, anaemia or hypotension if severe. It may also indicate a linear skull fracture or risk of infection. Caput succedaneum, chignon, normal skull shape, and subgaleal haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her parents deny any trauma and have no history with social services. She recently had a cold which resolved on its own.
      The child has no medical history and was born at term through vaginal delivery. She has met all developmental milestones and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
      During examination, a petechial rash is observed on the child's legs. She appears healthy without other signs of bleeding.
      Her blood tests show:
      Hb 140 g/L Female: (120-160)
      Platelets 25 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: None

      Explanation:

      It is important to advise patients to avoid any trauma as it can impact the resolution of ITP, whether or not treatment is administered. Administering oral corticosteroids is not recommended as it is not necessary for a child who is not actively bleeding and the platelet count will typically recover on its own. Similarly, IV corticosteroids should not be used as they pose unnecessary risks for a child who will likely recover without the need for non-specific immunosuppressants. IV immunoglobulin is also not a suitable option as the child is not exhibiting any signs of active or previous bleeding and their platelet count is sufficient.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart...

    Correct

    • A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart rate is over 100 bpm, but the skin colour is blue and the toddler is not moving. After calling for help and checking for a pulse, what is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Give five breaths of air via a face mask

      Explanation:

      Steps for Neonatal Resuscitation

      Neonatal resuscitation is a crucial process that can save a newborn’s life. Here are the steps to follow:

      1. Dry the baby and assess its tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is not breathing or gasping, open the airway by placing the baby on its back with the head in a neutral position. Give five inflation breaths of air via a face mask.

      2. If the heart rate increases but the baby still cannot breathe, give breaths at a rate of 30-40 per minute until the baby can breathe independently.

      3. Cardiac massage should only be done if the chest is not moving or the heart rate drops below 60 bpm. In this case, commence cardiac massage at a rate of three compressions to one breath.

      4. Suction of the airways should only be done if there is an obvious airway obstruction that cannot be corrected by airway repositioning manoeuvres.

      5. While it is important to keep the baby warm, avoid wrapping it tightly in a towel as it can obstruct the resuscitation process.

      6. Intubation is not the first step in the resuscitation process. It is an option when resuscitation is failing and is the decision of a senior paediatrician.

      By following these steps, you can increase the chances of a successful neonatal resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 13-year-old girl comes in with a swollen left knee. Her parents mention...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl comes in with a swollen left knee. Her parents mention that she has haemophilia and has received treatment for a haemarthrosis on her right side before. What is the most probable additional condition she may have?

      Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Since Haemophilia is a disorder that is recessive and linked to the X chromosome, it is typically only found in males. However, individuals with Turner’s syndrome, who only have one X chromosome, may be susceptible to X-linked recessive disorders.

      Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.

      In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 3-month-old previously healthy boy is brought into the pediatrician's office by his...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old previously healthy boy is brought into the pediatrician's office by his father who is concerned about a change in his behavior. The father suspects his child has a fever. During the examination, the baby is found to have a temperature of 38.5 ºC but no other notable findings.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral for paediatric assessment at the hospital

      Explanation:

      If a child under 3 months old has a fever above 38ºC, it is considered a high-risk situation and requires urgent assessment. This is a crucial factor to consider when evaluating a child with a fever. The NICE guidelines use a traffic light system to categorize the risk level of children under 5 with a fever, taking into account various factors such as the child’s appearance, activity level, respiratory function, circulation, hydration, and temperature. If the child falls under the green category, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they fall under the amber category, parents should be given advice and provided with a safety net, or the child should be referred for pediatric assessment. Children in the red category must be referred urgently to a pediatric specialist. In children under 3 months with fever, NICE recommends performing various investigations such as blood culture, full blood count, c-reactive protein, urine testing for urinary tract infections, stool culture if diarrhea is present, and chest x-ray if there are respiratory signs. Lumbar puncture should be performed in infants under 1 month old, all infants aged 1-3 months who appear unwell, and infants aged 1-3 months with a white blood cell count (WBC) less than 5 × 109/liter or greater than 15 × 109/liter. NICE also recommends administering parenteral antibiotics to this group of patients.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - The neonatal doctor has been requested to assess a woman on the postnatal...

    Incorrect

    • The neonatal doctor has been requested to assess a woman on the postnatal ward who has a 24-hour old baby. The baby was born at 34 weeks without complications. The midwife informs that the mother is exclusively breastfeeding but also trying to hand express, and the most recent capillary blood glucose is 0.8 mmol/L. The baby is showing no symptoms.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Encourage breastfeeding

      Correct Answer: Admit to neonatal unit and start 10% dextrose infusion

      Explanation:

      If a newborn has a capillary blood glucose level of less than 1 mmol/L, regardless of whether they are showing symptoms or not, the paediatric team should be consulted and an intravenous dextrose infusion should be started. Prematurity is a risk factor for hypoglycaemia in this case. Therefore, the other options are incorrect and may only be used in cases of less severe or asymptomatic neonatal hypoglycaemia.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A father brings his 4-month-old daughter to the emergency department worried about her...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 4-month-old daughter to the emergency department worried about her vomiting green liquid. Moreover, she has been crying and pulling her legs up on and off for the past day. The father mentions that she has always been fussy during feeding, but she has not eaten anything in the last 24 hours and has not had a bowel movement. What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Intestinal malrotation

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that the infant is suffering from intestinal malrotation, which has led to a volvulus. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as bilious vomiting, abdominal pain and cramping, lethargy, poor appetite, and infrequent bowel movements. Upon examination, the infant may have a swollen, firm abdomen, and possibly a fever, with reduced urine output. Acute appendicitis is rare in children under three years old and would not cause bilious vomiting. Hirschsprung disease would have been evident at birth, with delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Mesenteric adenitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the lymph nodes in the abdomen and is typically preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection. It would not result in bilious vomiting but may cause abdominal pain and fever, usually in an older child or teenager.

      Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.

      Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.

      Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.

      Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.

      Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.

      Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36 weeks gestation, a very prominent murmur is heard during systole and diastole, with the loudest point being over the left sternal edge. A chest X-Ray reveals massive cardiomegaly, particularly in the right atrium. The mother of the child has bipolar disorder but is otherwise healthy and has no congenital heart problems. There is no significant family history except for a paternal cousin who developed cardiomyopathy in their early twenties. Based on the given information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father, who reports that he has been complaining of a sore throat and has developed a skin rash over the past few days. During examination, you observe erythematous macules and papules measuring 3-4 mm on the dorsum of his hands and feet. You diagnose him with hand, foot and mouth disease. The father inquires if his son should stay home from school. What guidance will you provide regarding school exclusion?

      Your Answer: Stay off school until rash has subsided

      Correct Answer: No need to stay off school if she feels well

      Explanation:

      Exclusion from a childcare setting or school is not necessary for a child with hand, foot and mouth disease, as long as they are feeling well.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness. She has no past medical history. Her 7-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Family history is also otherwise unremarkable. Urgent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a surprising finding of blood glucose level of 2.1 mmol/l. This is confirmed on urgent formal blood glucose testing. She is transferred to the hospital’s high dependency unit (HDU) for monitoring and treatment. Blood tests taken shortly after admission reveal elevated insulin and low C-peptide levels.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Maturity onset diabetes of the young

      Correct Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Factitious Hypoglycaemia and Differential Diagnosis

      Factitious hypoglycaemia is a condition where an individual deliberately induces hypoglycaemia by using insulin or oral hypoglycaemic agents. In contrast to endogenous insulin, synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide as part of its formulation. Therefore, elevated insulin with an inappropriately low C-peptide level indicates exogenous insulin administration. This condition is often associated with psychological factors, and the individual may be seeking attention or sympathy.

      Differential diagnosis includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, which presents with hyperglycaemia rather than hypoglycaemia. Familial insulinoma syndrome is a rare condition that leads to elevated C-peptide levels. Maturity onset diabetes of the young is another subset of diabetes that presents with hyperglycaemia. Insulinoma, on the other hand, presents with hypoglycaemia, elevated insulin, and elevated C-peptide levels.

      It is crucial to differentiate factitious hypoglycaemia from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment and support for the individual. A thorough medical evaluation and psychological assessment may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old boy comes to see his GP complaining of hip and knee...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to see his GP complaining of hip and knee pain on one side. He reports that the pain started 2 weeks ago after he was tackled while playing football. His limp has become more pronounced recently. During the examination, the doctor notes a reduced ability to internally rotate the leg when flexed. The boy has no fever and his vital signs are stable. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is often associated with a loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. Acute transient synovitis is an incorrect answer as it typically resolves within 1-2 weeks and is often preceded by an upper respiratory infection. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is typically diagnosed in younger children and can be detected using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. While Perthes’ disease is a possibility, the loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion makes slipped capital femoral epiphysis a more likely diagnosis. Septic arthritis would present with a fever and may result in difficulty bearing weight.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance of vomiting bile. The baby has not yet had a bowel movement. What aspect of the medical history would suggest the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Maternal history of inflammatory bowel disease

      Correct Answer: Family history of cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus is a condition that affects newborns and can cause blockage in the intestines due to thick, sticky meconium. It is commonly associated with cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the production of mucous in the body. Other conditions that may be mistaken for meconium ileus include Hirschsprung’s disease and meconium plug syndrome. The likelihood of a baby developing meconium ileus is not influenced by factors such as conception through IVF, family history of inflammatory bowel disease or coeliac, or delivery by caesarian section.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A father brings his 20-month-old son to your GP clinic. The child has...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 20-month-old son to your GP clinic. The child has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past 2 days. Yesterday night, he developed a barking cough and a mild fever of 37.8º. Upon examination, there is mild stridor when moving around, but no visible recessions. The chest sounds clear with good air entry on both sides. The temperature remains at 37.8º today, but all other observations are normal. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Give a stat dose of dexamethasone 150 micrograms/kg PO

      Explanation:

      For a child with croup, the first step is to determine the severity of the illness. Mild croup is characterized by occasional barking cough without stridor at rest, no or mild recessions, and a well-looking child. Moderate croup involves frequent barking cough and stridor at rest, recessions at rest, and no distress. Severe croup is marked by prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, marked recessions, distress, agitation or lethargy, and tachycardia. In this case, the child has mild croup and does not require hospital admission. Nebulized adrenaline and a salbutamol inhaler are not necessary as the child is not distressed and does not have wheeze. Antibiotics are not effective for croup as it is a viral illness. However, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) can be taken immediately to ease symptoms and reduce the likelihood of reattendance or hospital admission.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain in his right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of injury or any other medical condition. Upon examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too tender to palpate completely. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion

      Explanation:

      Torsion: A Serious Condition to Consider

      A brief history of intense pain without any accompanying symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to be cautious not to disregard the possibility of torsion even if other symptoms are present, as there is only a small window of time for treatment. While a horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, it may not always be visible.

      Torsion is a severe condition that requires immediate medical attention. It occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This can lead to tissue death and, in severe cases, the loss of the testicle. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of torsion and seek medical attention promptly. Remember, a short history of severe pain in the absence of other symptoms must be regarded as torsion, and a horizontal-lying testis is a classical finding, though not always seen.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a fever and a rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a fever and a rash.

      What symptom might indicate the need for the GP to administer IM benzylpenicillin during the appointment?

      Your Answer: Bilateral pustular eruptions on the fauces

      Correct Answer: Coalescent purpura over the arms

      Explanation:

      Common Paediatric Presentations and their Management

      Fever with rash is a common presentation in paediatric patients, with viral infections being the most common cause. However, it is important to rule out meningococcal septicaemia, which can present with purpuric lesions and requires immediate management with IM or IV benzylpenicillin and hospital transfer. The causative agent is Neisseria meningitidis, and the features can be divided into meningitis and septic. Meningitic features include vomiting, neck stiffness, photophobia, Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, focal neurology, and opisthotonus. Septic features include systemic illness, pyrexia, anorexia, and reduced tone.

      Bilateral pustular eruptions on the fauces indicate bacterial tonsillitis, which is treated with amoxicillin. Measles can present with a maculopapular rash and white oral lesions known as Koplik spots. Varicella zoster virus infection causing chickenpox can present with pruritic vesicular eruptions over the trunk, which is treated symptomatically in immunocompetent children. A strawberry tongue is a sign of oral mucositis and can be found in scarlet fever or Kawasaki disease.

      In summary, fever with rash in paediatric patients can have a wide differential diagnosis, and it is important to consider serious conditions such as meningococcal septicaemia. Proper management and treatment depend on identifying the underlying cause of the presentation.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Twice as common in girls

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner (GP). She was born at term via normal vaginal delivery after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her birthweight was 2900 g. Her 20-week anomaly scan was unremarkable. Her parents inform you that a heart murmur was noted at her 8-week check, for which she is awaiting routine outpatient assessment. Her parents report that, over the last week, she has had episodes of going blue during feeds and friends have remarked that she looks ‘off colour’. She had a similar episode while with her GP, and oxygen saturation was recorded at 88% peripherally. As a result, the GP called 999 and transferred her to hospital. She is growing along the 25th centile. On examination, she is alert with normal vital signs. Heart sounds reveal a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge; she had palpable femoral pulses bilaterally and very slight cyanosis. Her chest is clear, without recession or signs of distress. Her liver is not enlarged.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart disease that affects around 3-6 out of every 10,000 births. It is characterized by four heart abnormalities that can cause symptoms such as cyanosis, difficulty with feeding, failure to thrive, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is typically made through echocardiography, and surgical correction is usually performed within the first two years of life.

      Cyanotic heart disease can be divided into two groups: those that present in the first week of life and those that present after the first week. Examples of conditions that present in the first week include total pulmonary atresia, tricuspid atresia, and transposition of the great arteries. Examples of conditions that can present after the first week include tetralogy of Fallot, total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage, and tricuspid regurgitation with right-to-left shunt via atrial septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries is a cyanotic congenital heart condition where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries from the left ventricle. It typically presents with central cyanosis within the first day or two of life and is managed with intravenous prostaglandin E1 and balloon atrial septostomy.

      Total pulmonary atresia is a congenital heart abnormality where the pulmonary valve fails to develop, resulting in disrupted blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk. It can occur with or without a ventricular septal defect and is associated with tetralogy of Fallot.

      Ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart defect located in the interventricular septum that allows mixing of blood between the two sides of the heart. Symptoms depend on the size of the defect and can range from asymptomatic to signs of heart failure.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery. It is not a cyanotic congenital heart defect and can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterization, or ligation. Symptoms may include decreased exercise tolerance, pulmonary congestion, a cardiac murmur, or heart failure.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 5 month old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department by...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after they found him unresponsive. The baby was healthy prior to this incident. Despite advanced life support efforts, the baby could not be revived. His temperature upon arrival was 37.2ºC. The child had received all of his vaccinations and was up-to-date. During the post-mortem examination, bilateral retinal hemorrhages were discovered. What is the most probable cause of the baby's death?

      Your Answer: Aggressive shaking of the baby

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome

      Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.

      Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A middle-aged woman undergoes routine screening blood tests and is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman undergoes routine screening blood tests and is found to have an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level. This prompts investigation with ultrasound scanning. The scan reveals an anterior abdominal wall defect with a mass protruding through, which appears to still be covered with an amniotic sac.
      What is the standard course of action for managing this condition, based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caesarian section and immediate repair

      Correct Answer: Caesarian section and staged repair

      Explanation:

      If a fetus is diagnosed with exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to lower the risk of sac rupture. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate abdominal wall defects. The appropriate course of action is a caesarian section with staged repair, as this reduces the risk of sac rupture and surgery is not urgent. Immediate repair during caesarian section would only be necessary if the sac had ruptured. Vaginal delivery with immediate repair is only recommended for gastroschisis, as immediate surgery is required due to the lack of a protective sac. Therefore, the other two options are incorrect.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A mother arrives with her 3-year-old son who was diagnosed with cow's milk...

    Correct

    • A mother arrives with her 3-year-old son who was diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy (CMPA) at 6 months old. He has been on a dairy-free diet and fed hydrolysed milk until he turned 1. Recently, he successfully completed the milk ladder and has been drinking raw milk for the past month without any reactions or diarrhoea. The mother is curious if this is typical or if her son was misdiagnosed earlier. IgE testing was conducted and came back normal. What advice would you give to the mother regarding her son's situation?

      Your Answer: Milk tolerance is common by 3 years

      Explanation:

      By the age of 3, most children with non-IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy will become tolerant to milk. The milk ladder is designed to gradually expose children like Gabriel, who has normal IgE levels, to increasing levels of milk protein through their diet. Diagnosis of CMPA is based on clinical symptoms such as growth faltering, constipation, and irritability, and confirmed by withdrawal of cow’s milk protein-containing substances followed by re-exposure. Lactose intolerance is rare in children under 3 years old. Milk tolerance is not unusual in non-IgE mediated cow’s milk protein allergy by the age of 3.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl presents with a 7-day history of an itchy rash, initially...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with a 7-day history of an itchy rash, initially on her abdomen and now spreading across the rest of her torso and limbs. She is usually healthy and not taking any medications, and her family members are also well. Upon examination, she appears unwell and has a fever of 38.5 °C. There is a widespread vesicular rash with some papules and crusting, as well as newer papules. The skin is generally red, and there is some discharge from the vesicles. Physical examination reveals tender and swollen lymph nodes. She cries out in pain when you attempt to touch the vesicles as they are very sensitive to the touch.

      What is the next best course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous flucloxacillin and acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chickenpox with Bacterial Superinfection

      Chickenpox is a common viral infection in children that presents with a vesicular rash and fever. While it is usually self-limiting, complications such as bacterial superinfection can arise. In such cases, treatment with antibiotics and acyclovir is necessary. Intravenous flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic in this scenario. Zoster immunoglobulin is only given in specific cases of exposure to varicella-zoster. Calamine lotion and chlorphenamine can provide symptomatic relief but are not treatment options. Oral acyclovir is only recommended for children who present within 24 hours of rash eruption or are at increased risk of complications, but in cases of bacterial superinfection, combination therapy is necessary.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. During examination, you observe multiple bruises on his arms with a circular pattern. Which type of bruising is more frequently associated with physical abuse in children?

      Your Answer: Humeral fracture

      Explanation:

      Whenever there is suspicion of non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history. Child abuse is commonly associated with fractures in the radial, humeral, and femoral bones. On the other hand, fractures in the distal radial, elbow, clavicular, and tibial bones are not typically linked to NAI in paediatrics.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary...

    Correct

    • What are the common symptoms exhibited by a child with recurring upper urinary tract infections?

      Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral Reflux

      Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a medical condition where urine flows backwards from the bladder to the kidneys. If left untreated, it can lead to serious health complications such as pyelonephritis, hypertension, and progressive renal failure. In children, VUR is usually caused by a congenital abnormality and is referred to as primary VUR. On the other hand, secondary VUR is commonly caused by recurrent urinary tract infections. While horseshoe kidney can increase the risk of UTIs, it is a much rarer condition compared to VUR. It is important to understand the causes and risks associated with VUR to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - You are working as a Foundation Year 2 in a GP surgery. A...

    Incorrect

    • You are working as a Foundation Year 2 in a GP surgery. A mother brings her 4-year-old girl to see you with a cough. You notice an alert on her notes that states she is on a child protection plan.
      Which of the following is true regarding a child protection plan?

      Your Answer: They are devised for children in need of extra support for health, safety ± developmental issues

      Correct Answer: They are devised for children at risk of significant harm

      Explanation:

      Understanding Child Protection Plans and Child in Need Plans

      Child protection plans and child in need plans are two different interventions designed to support children who may be at risk of harm or in need of extra support. It is important to understand the differences between these plans and how they are implemented.

      Child protection plans are devised for children who are at risk of significant harm. The aim of these plans is to ensure the child’s safety, promote their health and development, and support the family in safeguarding and promoting the child’s welfare. Child protection plans are not voluntary and involve a team of professionals working together to ensure the child’s safety.

      On the other hand, child in need plans are voluntary and are designed to support children who may need extra help with their health, safety, or development. These plans identify a lead professional and outline the resources and services needed to achieve the planned outcomes within a specific timeframe.

      It is important to note that both plans involve consultation with parents, wider family members, and relevant agencies. Additionally, child protection plans are regularly reviewed to ensure that the child’s safety and well-being are being maintained.

      In summary, child protection plans and child in need plans are interventions designed to support children in different ways. Understanding the differences between these plans can help ensure that children receive the appropriate support and interventions they need to thrive.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 4-year-old girl is brought into resus in cardiac arrest. The patient was...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought into resus in cardiac arrest. The patient was brought in by ambulance with her father. He is too distraught to give any history other than the child had been okay when he had left the room. She was found unconscious on his return so an ambulance was called.
      Which of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest are most likely in this situation?

      Your Answer: Hypoxia

      Explanation:

      Respiratory arrest is the most frequent reason for children’s arrest, with hypoxia being the probable cause in this case. Choking incidents are a common cause of collapse and arrest in young children who are able to walk, particularly toddlers, due to their age and the absence of a clear history for another cause. Hypovolaemia and tension pneumothorax are less likely since there is no indication of trauma in the history, and hypothermia is not a factor.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (18/30) 60%
Passmed