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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited diseases. Her grandmother experienced difficulty walking at the age of 63, while her mother began to show the same symptoms at the age of 40. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Mosaicism, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of heredity and the variation of inherited traits. Within this field, there are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications. These phenomena include anticipation, mosaicism, incomplete penetrance, genetic imprinting, and translocation of a chromosome.

      Anticipation refers to inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can expand and lead to an increase in severity. Examples of disorders with anticipation include Huntington’s disease, myotonic dystrophy, and fragile X syndrome.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur due to errors during cell division and can result in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in an individual with a certain trait. Incomplete penetrance means that some people who carry a certain trait will have the condition, while others will not. Examples include the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, as well as RB gene mutations.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele. This can result in conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes, where only one allele is expressed due to the silencing of the other.

      Translocation of a chromosome refers to the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can result in conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of genetic disorders, as well as for advancing our knowledge of genetics as a whole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      24.8
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
      Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 82-year-old man has presented to the Emergency Department, following a 3-day history...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man has presented to the Emergency Department, following a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath, productive cough and fever. His past medical history is significant for type II diabetes, currently controlled with metformin. He is a non-smoker, denies recent travel and has no regular contact with animals.
      An examination is performed, which reveals a heart rate of 91 bpm, a blood pressure of 98/59 mmHg, a temperature of 38.2 °C and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute. Coarse crackles are heard on auscultation of the right lower lobe. A chest X-ray is performed, which confirms the presence of a right lower lobe pneumonia. The patient is admitted to the Respiratory Ward for intravenous (IV) empirical antibiotics and fluid resuscitation. A sputum culture result has been received two days later:
      Investigation Result
      Sputum
      Rust-coloured sputum
      After two days of growth, a Gram-positive spherical bacterium which tends to grow in chains is observed
      Partial haemolysis is observed on blood agar plate
      Which of the following organisms is the most likely responsible for the patient’s pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various bacteria. The most common organism associated with pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can be identified by its Gram-positive spherical shape and chain formation. It is also known for causing rust-coloured sputum. Staphylococcus aureus, another Gram-positive bacterium, grows in clusters rather than chains. Klebsiella pneumoniae, a Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium, is commonly associated with aspiration pneumonia. Haemophilus influenzae, a small Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium, is often linked to exacerbation of COPD. Streptococcus pyogenes, a Gram-positive spherical bacterium that aligns in clusters, does not typically cause pneumonia and is associated with complete haemolysis on a blood agar plate. Knowing the characteristics of these bacteria can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the term used to describe the elimination of a drug or...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the elimination of a drug or its metabolite from the body?

      Your Answer: Excretion

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics: How the Body Processes Drugs

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of drugs from the gut lumen and their entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of drugs throughout the body, which can affect their ability to interact with their target. Metabolism involves the body’s processes for changing drug molecules, usually by deactivating them in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of drugs from the body.

      Metabolism and excretion are responsible for removing active drugs from the circulation. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes drugs or their metabolites from the body. Renal excretion is common, but some drugs are excreted in the bile or feces.

      In summary, pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to drugs. these processes is important for determining the appropriate dosage and administration of drugs, as well as predicting their effects and potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.1
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  • Question 5 - A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest in activities. She has been experiencing poor sleep for the past 2 weeks and has had no appetite. Her physician prescribes mirtazapine. What category of medications does mirtazapine fall under?

      Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      By blocking alpha2 adrenoreceptors, mirtazapine increases the release of neurotransmitters and functions as a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      55.8
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old girl from Germany comes to the clinic complaining of chronic diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl from Germany comes to the clinic complaining of chronic diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past 10 months. She also reports having foul smelling stools. Her medical history includes recurrent chest infections since childhood and a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Regional research programs and voluntary early-detection programs test a significant number of neonates for cystic fibrosis. While coeliac disease and type 1 diabetes mellitus are often associated due to their auto-immune nature, the recurring chest infections are not indicative of coeliac disease.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.5
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  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 2-day history of worsening headache despite taking painkillers. She has no significant medical history. Her pregnancy has been uneventful, but she reports increasing swelling in her hands and feet over the past week. Her blood pressure at her last prenatal visit two weeks ago was 120/80 mmHg. On examination, her blood pressure is 162/110 mmHg, heart rate 108 beats per minute, and temperature 37.2°C. Urine dipstick reveals protein ++++. What is the most appropriate medication to manage her condition?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia: Medications to Consider and Avoid

      Severe pre-eclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, can lead to eclamptic seizures and other complications. To prevent seizures, magnesium sulphate is administered as a loading dose followed by an infusion. Labetalol is the first-line medication for controlling blood pressure, but nifedipine and methyldopa can be used if labetalol is contraindicated. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, are not recommended in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Atenolol, a beta blocker, is not the agent of choice for pre-eclampsia management. Aspirin may be given prophylactically to women at risk of pre-eclampsia. Delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for severe pre-eclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.9
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions. He prefers solitude and is hesitant to share his beliefs with others, which they find peculiar. During the consultation, the patient talks in a high-pitched voice about his fascination with horror movies and his 'spirit-guide' that protects him. However, he denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and does not display any delusional thinking. Additionally, there is no evidence of pressure of speech. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The man seeking help has social anxiety and prefers to be alone. He has an interest in paranormal phenomena and talks in a high-pitched voice when discussing his spirit guide. These symptoms suggest that he may have schizotypal personality disorder, which is characterized by magical thinking and odd speech patterns. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizoid personality disorder are all incorrect diagnoses.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.5
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  • Question 9 - A mother brings her baby to the GP for a check-up and seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her baby to the GP for a check-up and seeks guidance on her child's developmental milestones. She mentions that her baby was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation. Considering the premature birth, at what age can the baby be expected to display a responsive social smile?

      Your Answer: 8 to 10 weeks

      Correct Answer: 14 to 16 weeks

      Explanation:

      When assessing milestones for premature babies, their corrected age is used instead of their actual age. The corrected age is calculated by subtracting the number of weeks the baby was born early from 40 weeks. For example, a baby born at 32 weeks gestation would have a corrected age of 8 weeks less than their actual age. The normal age for a responsive smile is 6 to 8 weeks, but for a premature baby, this milestone should be expected at 14 to 16 weeks of corrected age. The corrected age is used until the child reaches 2 years old.

      The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      116.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding accident. X-rays revealed a closed right tibial shaft fracture with minimal displacement. Over the past 4 hours, he has been experiencing severe pain in the leg, despite receiving hourly oral morphine in addition to regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. His urine has turned dark and a dipstick test shows the presence of blood.

      On admission, his electrolyte and renal function tests were as follows:
      Na+ 138 mmol/L
      K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L
      Urea 3.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine 72 µmol/L

      However, on day 3 of admission, his results have changed significantly:
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 11.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 189 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the primary factor contributing to the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient?

      Your Answer: Dehydration resulting in renal hypo-perfusion and acute tubular necrosis

      Correct Answer: Accumulation of myoglobin in the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is commonly linked to fractures of the tibial shaft and supracondylar region. The presence of rapidly-progressing pain that is unresponsive to high doses of pain medication is indicative of compartment syndrome. This condition can cause an increase in pressure within the fascial compartment, leading to muscle breakdown and the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, resulting in rhabdomyolysis. This can cause acute kidney injury, with myoglobinuria causing urine to appear dark brown and test positive for blood. Dehydration and pre-renal AKI may also occur, but urinalysis would not show blood in this case. Goodpasture’s syndrome, which involves the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, typically presents with AKI, proteinuria, and pulmonary symptoms such as haemoptysis and shortness of breath. Obstructive stones usually cause right loin pain, and a single ureter obstruction is unlikely to cause significant renal impairment. While NSAIDs can worsen renal function by inhibiting prostaglandins and causing vasoconstriction of the glomerular afferent arteriole, compartment syndrome and rhabdomyolysis are likely the primary causes of AKI in this case.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.3
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  • Question 11 - A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in a magazine and ordered a test through an online laboratory, which showed a low level. He had a history of morphine addiction for the past 4 years and had recently started treatment at a detox clinic, where he was taking methadone orally. He smoked 15 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Correct Answer: To come back once his detoxification regimen is over

      Explanation:

      Management of Low Testosterone in a Patient on Methadone

      When managing a patient on methadone with low testosterone levels, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Methadone use inhibits the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in men, leading to low testosterone levels. Therefore, advising the patient to come back after detoxification is necessary before considering any treatment options.

      Starting oral or intramuscular depo testosterone is not appropriate at this point. Instead, it is recommended to have the patient stop smoking and repeat the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) tests after stopping methadone. These tests will help determine if there are any other causes for testosterone deficiency that need to be addressed.

      In conclusion, managing low testosterone levels in a patient on methadone requires a thorough understanding of the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Advising the patient to come back after detoxification and repeating FSH and LH tests are important steps in managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.9
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense pain around his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense pain around his left eye and vomiting. Upon examination, his left eye appears red and there is a noticeable decrease in visual acuity. What is the best initial course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange outpatient ophthalmology appointment + advise visit to optician to check intraocular pressure

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to hospital

      Explanation:

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.5
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old female presents in the emergency department. She is concerned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents in the emergency department. She is concerned that her waters broke earlier today and reports a sudden 'gush' that soaked her pants. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination

      Explanation:

      To evaluate a patient with suspected premature rupture of membranes, a thorough medical history should be obtained, including the number of pregnancies. A sterile speculum examination is necessary to check for the accumulation of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. Digital examination should be avoided to prevent infection. Serum beta-HCG is not recommended, and the patient should have had previous ultrasound scans and have confirmed her pregnancy by this stage. Ultrasound is the appropriate diagnostic tool if there is no evidence of amniotic fluid pooling in the posterior vaginal vault.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.6
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  • Question 15 - Drug A activates an intracellular signalling pathway by binding to a receptor on...

    Incorrect

    • Drug A activates an intracellular signalling pathway by binding to a receptor on liver cells. Drug B, on the other hand, cannot activate this pathway but has the ability to enhance the effect of drug A. This is achieved by binding to an alternative site on the same receptor.

      What term can be used to describe the impact of drug B?

      Your Answer: Agonist

      Correct Answer: Allosteric modulator

      Explanation:

      Agonists, Allosteric Modulators, and Antagonists

      An agonist is a type of drug that binds to a receptor and triggers a biological response by increasing receptor activity. This interaction between the drug and receptor is usually reversible and can occur through various mechanisms such as ionic bonding, covalent linkage, hydrogen bonding, or hydrophobic interactions. The efficacy of agonism is determined by the drug’s ability to provoke maximal or sub-maximal receptor activity at a given concentration. Additionally, the degree of receptor occupancy is influenced by the drug’s affinity for the receptor and concentration. Even low degrees of receptor occupancy can elicit a biological response.

      On the other hand, an allosteric modulator, such as drug B, binds to a different binding site on the same receptor and causes a change in receptor structure. This change enhances the ability of an agonist, like drug A, to achieve its biological effect. Lastly, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, resulting in no biological response. the differences between these types of drugs is crucial in developing effective treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She typically takes the combined contraceptive pill but missed her pills on days 2 and 3 of the first week of her current packet. On day 4, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). As a solution, you prescribe ulipristal acetate as an emergency contraceptive.

      What is the appropriate time for her to resume her regular hormonal contraception?

      Your Answer: Wait 5 days

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before resuming regular hormonal contraception. This is because hormonal contraception may be less effective when taken with ulipristal acetate, which could compromise its ability to prevent ovulation. However, there is an exception to this rule. If a patient is already taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has missed pills later than the first week of taking them, they can resume the COCP immediately after taking ulipristal acetate. Otherwise, patients should wait for 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception and use barrier methods during this period. It is not necessary to take a pregnancy test after taking ulipristal acetate unless the patient’s next period is more than 7 days late or lighter than usual. It is not contraindicated to use hormonal contraception with ulipristal acetate, but it is recommended to wait for 5 days before resuming it.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      73.3
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the left side

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      115.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for two years complains that her bags, previously clear, have become cloudy.

      She is in good health, with slight abdominal discomfort, and has successfully instilled fluid, although she only removed 1.5 liters from a 2-liter bag instilled earlier. Her abdomen is soft and only slightly tender.

      What is the probable complication?

      Your Answer: Fibrin blockages of the catheter

      Correct Answer: Peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Treatment of PD Peritonitis

      Peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis (PD) may not present with typical symptoms seen in non-dialysis patients. Patients may only experience mild abdominal discomfort or tenderness, or may not have any symptoms at all. The most common sign of PD peritonitis is a cloudy bag, which indicates bacterial growth. In severe cases, the fluid may resemble pea soup. It is important to note that any patient with a cloudy bag should be treated for PD peritonitis immediately with antibiotics, such as vancomycin, administered intraperitoneally, and oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin. PD exchanges should continue during treatment to flush out the peritoneal cavity.

      While surgical problems, such as appendicitis, can occur in PD patients, they typically present with local peritonism and symptoms like vomiting. Constipation may cause abdominal discomfort and outflow problems, but it does not cause cloudy bags. Fibrin can block the catheter and cause abnormal fluid appearance, but it tends to appear as strands rather than a cloudy bag and does not cause abdominal discomfort or tenderness. It is important for PD patients to be aware of the symptoms of PD peritonitis and seek immediate treatment if they notice a cloudy bag or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.9
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a recent sexual encounter. He had unprotected sex with a woman and has since developed a purulent urethral discharge and painful urination. Gram-negative diplococci were identified in specimens taken from him. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Differentiating Sexually Transmitted Infections

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and further transmission. One such STI is gonorrhoeae, caused by the bacterium N. gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include purulent discharge, dysuria, and frequency, and if left untreated, can lead to infertility.

      Herpes simplex, another STI, typically presents with ulceration, which is not seen in this patient. Candida albicans, a type of yeast, is an unlikely diagnosis in men and would present with balanitis and white discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis, while similar in presentation, does not show Gram-negative diplococci on microscopy. However, up to 50% of patients with gonorrhoeae may also have coexisting chlamydia infection, so antibiotic regimes should cover both. Ciprofloxacin is effective, but drug-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae are emerging, so alternative antibiotics may be necessary.

      Finally, Trichomonas vaginalis, an anaerobic protozoan infection, is ruled out by the microscopy result. Accurate diagnosis and differentiation of STIs are essential for effective treatment and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man experiences polytrauma and necessitates a massive transfusion of packed red...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man experiences polytrauma and necessitates a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. After three hours, he presents with significant hypoxia and a CVP reading of 5 mmHg. A chest x-ray reveals diffuse pulmonary infiltrates in both lungs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Correct Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury

      Explanation:

      Plasma components pose the highest risk for transfusion associated lung injury.

      When plasma components are infused, there is a possibility of transfusion lung injury. This can cause damage to the microvasculature in the lungs, resulting in diffuse infiltrates visible on imaging. Unfortunately, mortality rates are often high in such cases. It is worth noting that a normal central venous pressure (which should be between 0-6 mmHg) is not necessarily indicative of fluid overload.

      Understanding Massive Haemorrhage and its Complications

      Massive haemorrhage is defined as the loss of one blood volume within 24 hours, the loss of 50% of the circulating blood volume within three hours, or a blood loss of 150ml/minute. In adults, the blood volume is approximately 7% of the total body weight, while in children, it is between 8 and 9% of their body weight.

      Massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications, including hypothermia, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, delayed type transfusion reactions, transfusion-related lung injury, and coagulopathy. Hypothermia occurs because the blood is refrigerated, which impairs homeostasis and shifts the Bohr curve to the left. Hypocalcaemia may occur because both fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and platelets contain citrate anticoagulant, which may chelate calcium. Hyperkalaemia may also occur because the plasma of red cells stored for 4-5 weeks contains 5-10 mmol K+.

      Delayed type transfusion reactions may occur due to minor incompatibility issues, especially if urgent or non-cross-matched blood is used. Transfusion-related lung injury is the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths and poses the greatest risk with plasma components. It occurs as a result of leucocyte antibodies in transfused plasma, leading to aggregation and degranulation of leucocytes in lung tissue. Finally, coagulopathy is anticipated once the circulating blood volume is transfused. One blood volume usually drops the platelet count to 100 or less, and it will both dilute and not replace clotting factors. The fibrinogen concentration halves per 0.75 blood volume transfused.

      In summary, massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications that can be life-threatening. It is essential to understand these complications to manage them effectively and prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily but has stopped since the onset of symptoms and is using glasses instead. Upon examination, the left eye appears inflamed with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. There are no abnormalities in the periorbital tissues, and visual acuity is normal with glasses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe artificial tears

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient who wears contact lenses complains of a painful, red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can usually be treated with antibiotic eye drops in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as vision loss. Distinguishing between the two conditions requires a slit-lamp examination, which is why same-day referral to ophthalmology is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care, and artificial tears are not appropriate for this type of infection.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      35.8
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Intubation

      Correct Answer: Intrapleural chest drain

      Explanation:

      Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD

      When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?

      Your Answer: High density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol

      Correct Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

      Explanation:

      The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police...

    Incorrect

    • A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police when she was found disoriented in the street. The Emergency Department recognises her as she has been brought in numerous times before. She appears malnourished and smells of alcohol. On examination, she is confused and ataxic. On eye examination, she has normal pupillary responses and a horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze.
      Which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is likely responsible for the patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B3

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamins in Alcoholism: A Brief Overview

      Alcoholism can lead to various vitamin deficiencies, which can cause serious health problems. Thiamine deficiency, also known as vitamin B1 deficiency, is common in alcoholics and can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment with intravenous or intramuscular thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff’s psychosis. Prophylactic treatment with vitamin replacement regimes is important to prevent the development of these conditions. Vitamin A deficiency can cause photophobia, dry skin, and growth retardation, but it is not associated with alcohol abuse. Pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration, megaloblastic anemia, and is commonly seen in patients with pernicious anemia, malabsorption, and gastrectomy. Vitamin K deficiency may present in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, but it will not cause the neurological findings observed in thiamine deficiency. Overall, it is important for alcohol-dependent patients to receive proper vitamin supplementation to prevent serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      219.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents,...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents, who have noticed he is covered in a rash and has developed numerous bruises on his legs. This has come on suddenly and he has been well, apart from a ‘cold’ that he got over around 2 weeks previously. He has no past medical history of note, apart from undergoing an uncomplicated tonsillectomy aged 5 years following recurrent tonsillitis. There is no family history of any bleeding disorders. There is no history of fever within the last 24 hours.
      On examination, vital signs are normal. There is a purpuric rash to all four limbs and his trunk. A few red spots are noted on the oral mucosa. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, without lymphadenopathy and no hepatosplenomegaly. Fundi are normal.
      A full blood count and urine dipstick are performed and yield the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 132 g/l 115–140 g/l
      White cell count 4.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 25 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film thrombocytopenia
      Urine dipstick no abnormality detected
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Hematologic Conditions: ITP, AML, NAI, HSP, and SLE

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia and presents with a red-purple purpuric rash. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presents with bone marrow failure, resulting in anemia and thrombocytopenia. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely in cases of thrombocytopenia, as blood tests are typically normal. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is an IgA-mediated vasculitis that primarily affects children and presents with a petechial purpuric rash, arthralgia, and haematuria. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects multiple organs and presents with a malar rash, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, fever, seizures, and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks after presenting with symptoms suggesting low mood. He had felt ‘down’ for several weeks, no longer enjoyed work or seeing friends and was sleeping more than usual. Despite this, he had a normal appetite, a strong sense of self-worth, denied any thoughts of self-harm or suicide and came across as reasonably active and lively. He says that he feels very anxious on Sunday evenings before going to work on a Monday and is getting increasingly ‘short and snappy’ with his colleagues. However, he says that work is otherwise going well and he is managing to get through the day. He does not feel any better at today’s consultation and is requesting advice about treatment options. He says he is ‘not a tablet person’.
      What should you advise?

      Your Answer: A combination of referral for group CBT and treatment with an SSRI antidepressant for 6 months

      Correct Answer: A trial of computer-based cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or peer support

      Explanation:

      For a patient with mild depression symptoms, the recommended first-line treatment is low-intensity psychosocial interventions such as computer-based CBT, group-based CBT, or peer support groups performing physical activity programs. If the patient prefers non-pharmacological treatment, antidepressants should not be used as first-line. Benzodiazepines should be avoided due to their addictive potential and side-effect profile. In the presence of both depression and anxiety, depression should be treated first according to NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is attending her first appointment with her GP. She reports feeling healthy and has no current health concerns. However, when asked about her family medical history, she mentions that her mother and grandfather have both been diagnosed with glaucoma.

      As her GP, what advice would you give her regarding glaucoma?

      Your Answer: Glaucoma has no hereditary component

      Correct Answer: He should get annual screening from age 40 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have a positive family history of glaucoma are recommended to undergo annual screening from the age of 40. This is because glaucoma has a strong genetic component, and having a first-degree relative with the condition increases one’s risk. The NHS offers free examinations for those who meet this criteria. It is important to note that glaucoma often has no symptoms in its early stages, making regular screening crucial in detecting and treating the condition before it causes significant visual impairment. Opticians can typically perform these screenings.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness of breath over the last year, along with an associated cough. He has no significant past medical history to note except for a previous back injury and is a non-smoker. He occasionally takes ibuprofen for back pain but is on no other medications. He has worked on farms since his twenties and acquired his own farm 10 years ago.
      On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.9oC and respiratory rate of 26. Examination of the chest reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles. His GP requests a chest X-ray, which shows bilateral reticulonodular shadowing.
      Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Crocidolite exposure

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis: Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by shortness of breath and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. It can be caused by various factors, including exposure to inorganic dusts like asbestosis and beryllium, organic dusts like mouldy hay and avian protein, certain drugs, systemic diseases, and more. In this scenario, the patient’s occupation as a farmer suggests a possible diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is caused by exposure to avian proteins or Aspergillus in mouldy hay. It is important to note that occupational lung diseases may entitle the patient to compensation. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, silicosis, crocidolite exposure, and beryllium exposure are less likely causes in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 48-year-old woman is referred for further evaluation after an abnormal routine mammogram....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is referred for further evaluation after an abnormal routine mammogram. Biopsy of a left breast mass shows high-grade malignant ductal epithelial cells with dark staining nuclei and several mitotic figures visible under high-power field. Necrosis and central calcification are noted and the basement membrane appears intact.
      Based on the biopsy findings, which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mucinous carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Comedocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Subtypes and Histological Findings

      Breast cancer can present in various subtypes, each with unique histological findings and prognoses. Comedocarcinoma is a high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ that often presents with calcification and necrosis due to rapid cellular proliferation. Mucinous carcinoma is a subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma characterized by a large amount of mucin-producing cells and a slightly better prognosis than inflammatory carcinoma. Lobular carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells in the terminal duct lobules that rarely progress to invasive lobular carcinoma. Anaplastic carcinoma is another subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma with a slightly better prognosis than inflammatory carcinoma. Inflammatory carcinoma is characterized by dermal lymphatic invasion of malignant cells and is associated with poor prognosis. Understanding the different subtypes and histological findings of breast cancer can aid in diagnosis and treatment planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      37.6
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  • Question 30 - A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a severe exacerbation of COPD. Despite full intervention, being intubated and ventilated, he fails to respond to treatment and continues to steadily deteriorate. It is believed that the patient is now brain dead.
      The patient is unconscious, fails to respond to outside stimulation and it is believed that his heart rate and breathing are only being maintained by the ventilator. The patient has agreed in the past to be an organ donor, and brainstem death verification is sought. The consultant with six years’ experience is present to certify brainstem death; however, a further person is needed for the process.
      Which of the following people is most appropriate to certify brainstem death along with the consultant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ST4 doctor with five years full GMC registration

      Explanation:

      Certification of Brainstem Death: Who Can Verify and Who Cannot

      Brain death is the irreversible loss of brain function, including the brainstem. To diagnose brainstem death, all three criteria of apnoea, coma, and absence of brainstem reflexes must be present. The verification of brainstem death is typically done in the ICU, where patients are mechanically ventilated.

      According to the guidelines set by the Academy of Medical Royal Colleges, two doctors must verify brainstem death. Both doctors must have at least five years of full medical registration and be trained and competent in performing the assessment. At least one of the two doctors must be a consultant. They must both agree that all three criteria are met and that there is no reversible cause that can be treated.

      It is important to note that any doctor who has received training in death certification can certify a death following cardiorespiratory arrest. However, only doctors who meet the above criteria can verify brainstem death.

      The coroner is not involved in death verification unless the circumstances of the death are suspicious or meet strict referral criteria.

      Nursing staff should not verify death unless they have received specific training. In certifying brainstem death, two qualified doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, and both of whom must have been fully registered with the GMC for at least five years, must perform the tests.

      Relatives and next of kin should not be involved in the verification of death. They can be informed of the death as soon as it is confirmed by medical practitioners.

      Who Can Verify Brainstem Death? A Guide to Certification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (0/3) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Breast (0/1) 0%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Passmed